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What Did Jesus Mean When He Said, "I And The Father Are One" In John 10:30? - Religion (4) - Nairaland

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Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said, "I And The Father Are One" In John 10:30? by OLAADEGBU(m): 12:29am On Nov 24, 2014
An2elect2:



Hehehehe you people never cease to amaze me. I asked you a question that if you had simply chosen any of the two options will expose your trinity doc for what it is. It is flawed, incoherent and unscriptural.
Sir, the only thing you could do was to refer me back to a man made explanation of God. Common, they are suppose to be co-equal? so what is the Son with the holy spirit doing down there?

Lets look at John 1:1 again.
Most trinitarians will readily assert that God in that verse is the Father. If they say He is the first person of the trinity, let us replace God with the Father(like i tried showing you). What do we have finally and the Word was God(Father).
Who is the Word here? Jesus Christ
Jesus Christ is the Father! that Father! that Jehovah!
How clear can Isaiah 9:6 be?

" For unto us a child is born, unto us a Son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The Mighty God, THE EVERLASTING FATHER, The Prince of peace."

According to you trinitarians prophet Isaiah did not mean to call Jesus the Father. Why Father? why not everlasting Son? Oh his mistake. Nah! go ahead and tell me the Greek or Hebrew meaning of everlasting Father like every trinitarian does.lol

Jesus is Yahweh, for instance. cool

Jesus Has the Names of God

Jesus Christ is God, not with inverted commas, but the very God of the very God. His name is Yahweh.

Jesus Christ possesses divine names—names that can only be used of God. For example:

Jesus is Yahweh.

Yahweh is a very common Hebrew name for God in the Old Testament, occurring over 5,300 times. It is translated Lord (all capitals) in many English translations of the Bible.

We first learn of this name in Exodus 3, where Moses asked God by what name He should be called. God replied to him, "I AM WHO I AM. . . .Thus you shall say to the children of Israel, ‘I AM has sent me to you" (verse 14). Yahweh is basically a shortened form of "I AM WHO I AM" (verse 15). The name conveys the idea of eternal self-existence. Yahweh never came into being at a point in time for He has always existed.

Jesus implicitly ascribed this divine name to himself during a confrontation He had with a group of hostile Jews. He said, "I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM" (John 8:58). Jesus deliberately contrasted the created origin of Abraham—whom the Jews venerated—with His own eternal, uncreated nature as God

http://www.answersingenesis.org/articles/nab2/is-jesus-god
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said, "I And The Father Are One" In John 10:30? by PastorAIO: 12:32am On Nov 24, 2014
OLAADEGBU:


Below is an article that answers your objections with Scriptures:



I didn't see anything about selective memory in that article. Not to mention scriptures talking about selective memory.


However I noticed this:
It is a uniplural noun, however,specific usage depending on context,

As a little exercise in textual analysis for you to do, .... Can Context be found within a text?

I repeat. Can the context of a text be determined simply by considering the Text, OR is context always imposed on a text from the outside?

If it is difficult for you to think about this using the bible then try using any text. Try your morning newspaper.

If the context is found outside the text then by what Authority is the context determined. This is important to stop any tom dick and ola from making up contexts for biblical passages out of the top of their heads. For example, claiming selective Memory.
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said, "I And The Father Are One" In John 10:30? by OLAADEGBU(m): 12:43am On Nov 24, 2014
CANTICLES:


Why is †̥ђe op reasoning like this ..... Infact God himself promise in Obadiah 13 to raise some
"saviours" can u see its plural !

@op ... Captivator says u should explain 1cor 15:24-28 for this thread !! #grabs lacasera# waiting

Foul! Only Jesus can save. Hallelujah! cheesy

"Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved" (Acts 4:12)
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said, "I And The Father Are One" In John 10:30? by OLAADEGBU(m): 1:20am On Nov 24, 2014
RikoduoSennin:


Not Really, Luke 3:38 "Adam which is THE SON OF GOD". Job 1:6 "Now there was a day when THE SONS OF GOD ....". Rom 8:14 "....they are the SONS OF GOD".

So, there are many persons called SON/SONS of God but only one called "ONLY BEGOTTEN" that should be the emphasis, e.g why is Jesus called that?

And I answered that even though you conveniently omitted the following from your quote:

"To beget is to become the father of: to create is to make.  And the difference is this.  When you beget, you beget something of the same kind as yourself.  A man begets human babies, a beaver begets little beavers, But when you make, you make something of a different kind from yourself.  A bird makes a nest, a beaver builds a dam . . .  Now that is the first thing to get clear.  What God begets is God; just as what man begets is man.  What God creates is not God, just as what man makes is not man.  That is why men are not Sons of God in the sense that Christ is.  They may be like God in certain ways, but they are not things of the same kind."

RikoduoSennin:


@Bolded,
Psalm 2:1-8 "...You are MY SON, TODAY I HAVE BEGOTTEN YOU..." Compare Hebrew 1:5


Min-Oxford Dictionary defines beget/begot (old English use)
as "to FATHER A CHILD or To CAUSE".

Choose your pick. Mind you, "only begotten" is English. Except translators in the past and those of the present still haven't find a better English word to translate the original greek text into.

Bible scholars say that there are several senses in which Christ can be said to be the only begotten Son of God, but the emphasis in Psalm 2:7 is on the resurrection of Jesus Christ (See Acts 13:33). In Romans 1:4 Jesus was "declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness by the resurrection from the dead."

RikoduoSennin:


Col 3: 15 ..." Who is the IMAGE of THE INVISIBLE GOD...."

Jesus is the "image" of the God men can not see (meaning "invisible"wink.

This is what my Bible says:

"And let the peace of God rule in your hearts, to the which also ye are called in one body; and be ye thankful" (Col.3:15).

This tells me that you don't know what you're talking about. It is a case of the blind leading the blind, see as PastorAIO is hailing you not knowing that he is being led into a ditch. undecided

RikoduoSennin:


Gen 1:26,27 "and God said, let us make man in OUR IMAGE....So God Created man in HIS OWN IMAGE, IN THE IMAGE OF GOD ....."

Man too is GOD, if the "Image" is the same/equal to God.

1 cor 11:7 " For a man indeed ought not to cover his head foreasmuch as he is the IMAGE and GLORY of GOD..."

Jesus is not the source of. GOD'S GLORY rather he REFLECTS JEHOVAH'S GLORY like all of God's son.

Hebrew 1:3 "...he [Jesus] REFLECTS THE GLORY OF GOD [Jehovah]...."

The Scriptures says "My people perish for lack of knowledge" cry

RikoduoSennin:


Jesus in the bible says, "....I go to MY Father, for MY Father is GREATER than I ". ---John 14:28.

I really don't know where you got the above from!

NB: 1 cor 4:6 "...Do not go beyond what is written....".

You should go and learn what Jesus meant there before you start to embarrass yourself in the public forum.
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said, "I And The Father Are One" In John 10:30? by An2elect2(f): 6:31pm On Nov 24, 2014
OLAADEGBU:


Jesus is Yahweh, for instance. cool

Jesus Has the Names of God


I agree that Jesus is God. The very God.
But i don't agree that He is the 2nd person of a so called trinity. No scripture, not even one has ever accorded God a second or third position.

In the book of revelation, Jesus referred to Himself many times as Alpha and Omega: the First and the Last. The Lord Almighty.

Why First? did he lie? did he take the Father's place?
Why not i am the second... Why did Jesus speak with so much power and authority on earth? Was God not in Him reconciling the world to Himself? Didn't Christ attribute His work on earth to the Father(Spirit)?
Why not God the Son? why Father?

If God the Son( am using this term loosely) had equal power and can take decisions independently being God, why the complete dependence on the Father/Spirit within? Can't you trinitarians see the authentic humanity of Christ, His weak and unwilling flesh and His appeal to His divinity within that was reduced in human eyes because of the putting on of flesh?

I pray you answer these questions in all sincerity in Christ cos God is not the author of confusion. That's all.

1 Like

Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said, "I And The Father Are One" In John 10:30? by RikoduoSennin(m): 6:59pm On Nov 24, 2014
OLAADEGBU:


And I answered that even though you conveniently omitted the following from your quote:

"To beget is to become the father of: to create is to make.  And the difference is this.  When you beget, you beget something of the same kind as yourself.  A man begets human babies, a beaver begets little beavers, But when you make, you make something of a different kind from yourself.  A bird makes a nest, a beaver builds a dam . . .  Now that is the first thing to get clear.  What God begets is God; just as what man begets is man.  What God creates is not God, just as what man makes is not man.  That is why men are not Sons of God in the sense that Christ is.  They may be like God in certain ways, but they are not things of the same kind."

I removed that because you are stating your own/personal opinion/ that of a book publisher's opinion of the WORD "BEGOTTEN". I don't respect such nor see it as an authority.

What is however is an ENGLISH DICTIONARY. The bible was translated from greek to English so that we may understand it easily since English appears to be our common langusge in this part of the world.

So what did the translators mean when they use the words "only begotten", Please check your Dictionary and tell me. I don't want your interpretations.

Christian Religious Matter: Bible is the Authority to consult.

For English words and their meaning: the Dictionary/Encyclopedia is the only authority.

So I am waiting, because there is more.


OLAADEGBU:

Bible scholars say that there are several senses in which Christ can be said to be the only begotten Son of God, but the emphasis in Psalm 2:7 is on the resurrection of Jesus Christ (See Acts 13:33). In Romans 1:4 Jesus was "declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness by the resurrection from the dead."



Jesus is the "image" of the God men can not see (meaning "invisible" )

This is what my Bible says:

"And let the peace of God rule in your hearts, to the which also ye are called in one body; and be ye thankful" (Col.3:15).

This tells me that you don't know what you're talking about. It is a case of the blind leading the blind, see as PastorAIO is hailing you not knowing that he is being led into a ditch. undecided



The Scriptures says "My people perish for lack of knowledge" cry



You should go and learn what Jesus meant there before you start to embarrass yourself in the public forum.

Did I miss something?

I did not give me an answer, you were just saying another thing, accusing PastorAIO of being too happy/excited, and saying I should not embarrass myself.

I don't see how all those fit into our DiscuSsion/ conversation. After all, "Iron sharpens iron" , so please stick to the Bible and answer straight. Please don't do like naija Politicians.
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said, "I And The Father Are One" In John 10:30? by An2elect2(f): 7:00pm On Nov 24, 2014
MrPresident1:


God is one.

My question is, when God pours His spirit on you, what do you become?

Here is the scripture where i suppose the idea of God pouring His flesh on men is gotten from.
Joel 2:28 " And it shall come to pass afterward, that i will pour out my spirit upon all flesh; and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, your old men shall dream dreams, your young men shall see visions."

The initial fulfillment of this prophecy took place on the day of Pentecost.

Here is what peter said in Acts when the crowd mistook the pouring of the holy spirit on the apostles for being drunk.
Acts 2:15-17 "For these are not drunken, as ye suppose,seeing it is but the third hour of the day.
But THIS IS THAT which was spoken by the prophet Joel;
And it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God, I will pour out of my spirit upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy,and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams."

The fullness of that prophecy has not happened but men who have received this "pouring of the holy spirit" starting from the early apostles have not become Gods. This is evidently clear for all to see!
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said, "I And The Father Are One" In John 10:30? by MrPresident1: 9:20pm On Nov 24, 2014
An2elect2:


Here is the scripture where i suppose the idea of God pouring His flesh on men is gotten from.
Joel 2:28 " And it shall come to pass afterward, that i will pour out my spirit upon all flesh; and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, your old men shall dream dreams, your young men shall see visions."

The initial fulfillment of this prophecy took place on the day of Pentecost.

Here is what peter said in Acts when the crowd mistook the pouring of the holy spirit on the apostles for being drunk.
Acts 2:15-17 "For these are not drunken, as ye suppose,seeing it is but the third hour of the day.
But THIS IS THAT which was spoken by the prophet Joel;
And it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God, I will pour out of my spirit upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy,and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams."

The fullness of that prophecy has not happened but men who have received this "pouring of the holy spirit" starting from the early apostles have not become Gods. This is evidently clear for all to see!

Habakkuk 2:20
20 But the LORD is in his holy temple: let all the earth keep silence before him.


Ephesians 2:22
21 In whom all the building fitly framed together groweth unto an holy temple in the Lord:
22 In whom ye also are builded together for an habitation of God through the Spirit.


Ezekiel 39:29
29 Neither will I hide my face any more from them: for I have poured out my spirit upon the house of Israel, saith the Lord GOD.



My question is, when God pours His spirit on you, what do you become?
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said, "I And The Father Are One" In John 10:30? by jamesjohn2010: 10:59pm On Nov 24, 2014
An2elect2:
Jesus is the fullness of God in flesh and not a part of God plsss.
'I and my Father are one' i believe Jesus is not saying they agree or are in union, but that He is both the son and that Father(who promised them a messiah) they know from old.


God is numerically one.
An2elect2:
Jesus is the fullness of God in flesh and not a part of God plsss.
'I and my Father are one' i believe Jesus is not saying they agree or are in union, but that He is both the son and that Father(who promised them a messiah) they know from old.


God is numerically one.
An2elect2:
Jesus is the fullness of God in flesh and not a part of God plsss.
'I and my Father are one' i believe Jesus is not saying they agree or are in union, but that He is both the son and that Father(who promised them a messiah) they know from old.


God is numerically one.



flesh and blood has not reveal this to you
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said, "I And The Father Are One" In John 10:30? by jamesjohn2010: 11:16pm On Nov 24, 2014
please all should read the bible and ask God for interpretation. forget all your Bible school knowledge that may not fetch you anything. the word is largely symbolic and man's logic is too Petit to decipher the hidden truth.
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said, "I And The Father Are One" In John 10:30? by RikoduoSennin(m): 2:01pm On Nov 25, 2014
jamesjohn2010:
please all should read the bible and ask God for interpretation. forget all your Bible school knowledge that may not fetch you anything. the word is largely symbolic and man's logic is too Petit to decipher the hidden truth.

2 Cor 1:13 "For we write you NOTHING BUT WHAT YOU CAN READ AND "UNDERSTAND"; I Hope you will "UNDERSTAND FULLY".
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said, "I And The Father Are One" In John 10:30? by An2elect2(f): 2:08pm On Nov 25, 2014
MrPresident1:


Habakkuk 2:20
20 But the LORD is in his holy temple: let all the earth keep silence before him.


Ephesians 2:22
21 In whom all the building fitly framed together groweth unto an holy temple in the Lord:
22 In whom ye also are builded together for an habitation of God through the Spirit.


Ezekiel 39:29
29 Neither will I hide my face any more from them: for I have poured out my spirit upon the house of Israel, saith the Lord GOD.



My question is, when God pours His spirit on you, what do you become?

You become God's own not God!
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said, "I And The Father Are One" In John 10:30? by An2elect2(f): 2:21pm On Nov 25, 2014
jamesjohn2010:
[color=#006600][/color]



flesh and blood has not reveal this to you
Amen but the Spirit of the Lord smiley
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said, "I And The Father Are One" In John 10:30? by Fidelisharrison: 4:52pm On Nov 25, 2014
it shows the oneness between Christ and the father.


Why then did the Jews pick up stones to lynch Him?[/quote]
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said, "I And The Father Are One" In John 10:30? by OLAADEGBU(m): 5:21pm On Nov 25, 2014
RikoduoSennin:


I removed that because you are stating your own/personal opinion/ that of a book publisher's opinion of the WORD "BEGOTTEN". I don't respect such nor see it as an authority.

What is however is an ENGLISH DICTIONARY. The bible was translated from greek to English so that we may understand it easily since English appears to be our common langusge in this part of the world.

So what did the translators mean when they use the words "only begotten", Please check your Dictionary and tell me. I don't want your interpretations.

Christian Religious Matter: Bible is the Authority to consult.

For English words and their meaning: the Dictionary/Encyclopedia is the only authority.

So I am waiting, because there is more.

Writers of your dictionaries/encyclopedia are not spirit filled Christians they are secular and are not the ones you should go to for proper interpretation of the Scriptures. The weapons of our warfare are not carnal (intellectual/secular) but are mighty through God for the pulling down of strongholds.

RikoduoSennin:


Did I miss something?

I did not give me an answer, you were just saying another thing, accusing PastorAIO of being too happy/excited, and saying I should not embarrass myself.

I don't see how all those fit into our DiscuSsion/ conversation. After all, "Iron sharpens iron" , so please stick to the Bible and answer straight. Please don't do like naija Politicians.

You gave a biblical reference of Colossian 3:15 going on to say:..." Who is the IMAGE of THE INVISIBLE GOD...." shocked It is either you are confused or you've got no clue of what you are dabbling into.
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said, "I And The Father Are One" In John 10:30? by OLAADEGBU(m): 5:21pm On Nov 25, 2014
An2elect2:


Amen but the Spirit of the Lord smiley

Are you sure? undecided
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said, "I And The Father Are One" In John 10:30? by An2elect2(f): 7:01pm On Nov 25, 2014
OLAADEGBU:


Are you sure? undecided

I am sure that God is 1.
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said, "I And The Father Are One" In John 10:30? by OLAADEGBU(m): 7:25pm On Nov 25, 2014
An2elect2:


I am sure that God is 1.

3 in 1?
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said, "I And The Father Are One" In John 10:30? by An2elect2(f): 7:42pm On Nov 25, 2014
OLAADEGBU:


3 in 1?

Nope, God doesn't need to fragment Himself to perform. He is 1 in number.

1 Like

Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said, "I And The Father Are One" In John 10:30? by OLAADEGBU(m): 11:54pm On Nov 25, 2014
An2elect2:


Nope, God doesn't need to fragment Himself to perform. He is 1 in number.

1 x 1 x 1 = 1
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said, "I And The Father Are One" In John 10:30? by An2elect2(f): 7:12am On Nov 26, 2014
OLAADEGBU:


1 x 1 x 1 = 1

lol, more confusion :-/

1 Like

Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said, "I And The Father Are One" In John 10:30? by RikoduoSennin(m): 9:50am On Nov 26, 2014
OLAADEGBU:


Writers of your dictionaries/encyclopedia are not spirit filled Christians they are secular and are not the ones you should go to for proper interpretation of the Scriptures. The weapons of our warfare are not carnal (intellectual/secular) but are mighty through God for the pulling down of strongholds.

Dictionaries/encyclopedias are not there to interpret Religious terms (eg like the difination of words like "God" or "christian faith"wink but every other word in the bible that relates also to the secular world.

If we don't have standard (Dictionary) for defining words, then everything will be subject to each persons individual interpretation which will not bring a united understanding of things.

Now I can assure you that the bible was written for us to understand: 2 Corinthians 1:13.

OLAADEGBU:

You gave a biblical reference of Colossian 3:15 going on to say:..." Who is the IMAGE of THE INVISIBLE GOD...." shocked It is either you are confused or you've got no clue of what you are dabbling into.


Forgive me for my typographical error, I meant to type/quote Colossians 1:15.

So it seems you only have an issue with the error not what the scripture says on the matter.

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