JMAN05:


Rom 10:13

John 3:16 For God so loved the world that He gave His only Begotten Son that whosoever believes in Him will not perish but have everlasting life.
Acts 4:10-12
10. Let it be known to you all and to all the people of Israel, that by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, whom you crucified, whom God raised from the dead, by Him this man stands here before you whole.
11. This is the stone which was rejected by you builders, which has become the chief cornerstone.
12. Nor is there salvation in any other, for there is no other name under heaven given among men by which we must be saved. Here Peter was referring to the name 'Jesus' in Vs 10.
Acts 16:31 So they said, Believe on the Lord, Jesus Christ and you will be saved, you and your household.
Matthew 14:30 but when he saw that the wind was boisterous, he was afraid; and beginning to sink he cried out, saying LORD, save me!
Matthew 1:21 And she will bring forth a Son, and you shall call His name JESUS, for He will save His people from their sins.
I ask you again, will God answer me if I do not call Him Jehovah but call the name Jesus or His titles (as you stated)?

Emusan:


@bold-this same Israelite believed God has seven name: "The number of divine names that require the scribe's special care is seven: El, Elohim, Adonai, Yhwh, Ehyeh-Asher-Ehyeh, Shaddai, and ?eba'ot." jewishencyclopedia.com/view.jsp?artid=52&letter=N (25/09/2005)

Do we have 7 DIVINE NAMES or Just 1 ?

Is El, Elohim, Adonai, Shaddai NAMES or TITLES?

Emusan:

Are you an Israelite?
And why did Jesus and His disciples didn't use it often?

You have already said "Jesus did not shy away from using it". That is the end of that.

Emusan:

Are you telling us that Jesus and His disciples don't know God for not using the name?

Jesus and his disciples knew God because they worshipped him in the appropriate way. They no doubt used God's name in their daily life. Was there any real reason why they should not use God's name?

Emusan:


You didn't say the bold but you said Jesus and His Disciples USED THE DIVINE NAME IN THEIR EVERYDAY LIFE. What does it mean?

Does Jesus EVER CALL THE FATHER Jehovah/Yahweh?

John 21:25 "But there are also many other things which Jesus did: were every one to be written, I suppose that the world itself could not contain the books that would be written"

Is there any really reason why Jesus would see the use of the Divine Name as a 'Taboo' ?

Emusan:

And I ask you how does Jesus make this Divine name known SINCE JESUS NEVER CALLED THE FATHER JEHOVAH/YAHWEH?

Which is very hard for you to provide answer.

@the bold section, that is a Very BOLD thing to say seeing as not everything Jesus did was written and you did not lived during his era.

Emusan:

@bold-that's the lie WT will also feed you people, The usage of Divine name has been lost and REPLACED many century before Jesus Himself was born. I challenge you to provide the evidence that the Divine name was still in use prior to time of Jesus or during the time of Jesus.

The Greek septuagint is my proof that the Divine Name exist during the first century C.E
/ during Christ Era.

Emusan:

How does Jesus PROCLAIM THIS NAME? Answer my question with SCRIPTURE because I only know TWO OPTIONS how Jesus can do this.

1. That Jesus always called The Father with the Divine name, OR
2. Jesus teaches people to call The Father the Divine name.


So either number you choose Show me with scriptures support.

Either number one or two is well understood by you and the same conclusion can be made after considering John 17:6,26; Hebrew 2:11,12;

Emusan:

Lastly, The DIVINE NAME WAS NO MORE IN USE before Jesus was born so if it's necessary for us to use the Divine name IN FACT IT WAS JESUS WHO SUPPOSED TO BROUGHT IT INTO LIGHT.

Look at the chart below.

Why did the Jews stop using the Divine Name? Was it because of God's command or Tradition? Does Jesus obey the tradition of man?

Where did you come up with the above conclusion?
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Since you won't research The Greek Septuagint online- let me help you:

Is The Name YHWH in the New Testament?


Why did the New Testament writers NOT include the Divine Name in their writings ... or Did They?

References, both scriptural and secular, are herein designed to answer this seeming dilemma with regard to the OT use of The Name (in the Hebrew manuscripts) around 6,972 times ...
It is true, no reference to The Divine Name, in it's complete form, can be found in the extant
manuscript copies of the original text of the "New Testament".  However, an abbreviated form of The Name does occur at Revelation 19:1, 3, 4, 6, in the expression "Alleluia" or "Hallelujah" in KJ, Dy, JB, AS, and RS.

The logic presented for the absence of the "full form" of the Divine Name in the NT had been that the inspired writers of the NT made their quotations from the Greek Septuagint version of the OT, which substituted Kyrios or Theos for the Tetragrammaton (an expression generally referring to the Divine Name, literally meaning "having four letters"; that they, therefore, followed the same custom or precedent in their own writings.  However,in recent times at least ten fragments of the OT have been found, some of which are the oldest copies available, that did preserve the Tetragrammaton, usually in ancient Hebrew characters.

Commenting on the fact that the oldest fragments of the Greek Septuagintdo contain the divine name in its Hebrew form, Dr. P. Kahle says:

"We now know that the Greek Bible text [the Septuagint] as far as it was written by Jews for Jews did not translate the Divine name by kyrios; but the Tetragrammaton, written with Hebrew or Greek letters, was retained in such MSS [manuscripts].  It was the Christians who replaced the Tetragrammaton by kyrios, when the divine name written in Hebrew letters was not understood any more." (The Cairo Geniza, Oxford, 1959, p. 222)

When did Greek translators of O T stop using The Divine Name?

... evidently in the centuries following the death of Jesus and his apostles.  In Aquila's Greek Version, dating from the second century C.E., the Tetragrammaton still appeared in Hebrew characters.  Also, around 245 C.E., the noted scholar Origen produced his Hexapla, a six-column reproduction of the inspired Hebrew Scriptures:  (1) in their original Hebrew and Aramaic, accompanied by (2) a transliteration into Greek, and by the Greek versions of (3) Aquila, (4) Symmachus, (5) the Septuagint, and (6) Theodotion.  On the evidence of the fragmentary copies now known, Professor W. G. Waddell says:

"In Origen's Hexapla . . . the Greek versions of Aquila, Symmachus, and LXX [Septuagint], all represented JHWH by PIPI, in the second column of the Hexapla the Tetragrammaton was written in Hebrew characters." (The Journal of Theological Studies, Oxford, Vol. XLV, 1944, pp. 158, 159)

Some believe the original text of Origen's Hexapla used Hebrew characters for the Tetragrammaton in all its columns.  Origen himself stated:

"in the most accurate manuscripts THE NAME occurs in Hebrew characters, yet not in today's Hebrew [characters], but in the most ancient ones."

As late as the fourth century C.E., Jerome, the translator of the Latin Vulgate, says in his prologue to the books of Samuel and Kings:

"And we find the name of God, the Tetragrammaton [i.e.,YHWH], in certain Greek volumes even to this day expressed in ancient letters."

In a letter written at Rome, 384 C.E., Jerome states:

"The ninth [name of God] is the Tetragrammaton, which they considered [a·nek·pho'ne·ton], that is, unspeakable, and it is written with these letters, Iod, He, Vau, He.  Certain ignorant ones, because of the similarity of the characters, when they would find it in Greek books, were accustomed to read PIPI [Greek letters corresponding to the Roman letters PIPI]."--Papyrus Grecs Bibliques, by F. Dunand, Cairo, 1966, p. 47, ftn. 4.

Evidence indicates that the "New Testament" writers did NOT substitute The Divine Name with "kyrios," (Lord) or "theos," (God).

According to Professor George Howard, Associate Professor of Religion and Hebrew at the University of Georgia:

"In 1944, W. G. Waddell discovered the remains of an Egyptian papyrus scroll, (Papyrus Fuad 266), dating to thefirst or second century B.C., which included part of the Septuagint.  In no instance, however, was YHWH translated kyrios.  Instead the Tetragrammaton itself-- in square Aramaic letters -- was written into the Greek text.  This parallels the Qumran Covenanters' use of the paleo-Hebrew script for the Divine Name in a document which was otherwise written in square Aramaic script. . . "

"We have three separate pre-Christian copiesof the Greek Septuagint Bible and in not a single instance is the Tetragrammaton translated kyrios or, for that matter, translated at all.  We can now say with near certainty that it was a Jewish practice, before, during and after the New Testament period to write the divine name in paleo-Hebrew or square Aramaic script or in transliteration right into the Greek text of Scripture. . . . "

"The divine name,  YHWH, was and is the most sacred word in the Hebrew language.  So it is hardly likely that Jews of any sort would have removed it from their Bibles.  Furthermore, we know now from discoveries in Egypt and the Judean desert the Jews wrote the Tetragrammaton in Hebrew even in their Greek texts.  In all likelihood Jewish Christians felt the same way about the divine name and continued to preserve it in Hebrew in their Bibles.  A famous rabbinic passage (Talmud Shabbat 13.5) discusses the problem of destroying heretical texts (very probably including books of Jewish-Christians).  The problem arises for the rabbinic writer, because the heretical texts contain the divine name, and their wholesale destruction would include the destruction of the divine name.  This further suggests that Jewish Christians did not translate the divine name into Greek."

"But Gentile Christians, unlike Jewish Christians, had no traditional attachment to the Hebrew Tetragrammaton and no doubt often failed to even recognize it.  Gentile scribes, who had never before seen Hebrew writing (especially in its archaic form), could hardly be expected to preserve the divine name.  Perhaps this contributed to the use of kyrios and theos for the Tetragrammaton. . . . "

"Thus, toward the end of the first Christian century, the use of surrogates (kyrios and theos) must have crowded out the Hebrew Tetragrammaton in both Testaments."

Recognizing that this must have been the case, some translators have included The Divine Name in their renderings of the Christian Greek Scriptures.  The Emphatic Diaglott, a 19th-century translation by Benjamin Wilson, contains the name Jehovah a number of times, particularly where the Christian writers quoted from the Hebrew Scriptures; but, as far back as the 14th century, the Tetragrammaton had already begun to be used in translations of the Christian Scriptures into Hebrew, beginning with the translation of Matthew into Hebrew that was incorporated in the work ´E'ven bo'chan by Shem-Tob ben Isaac Ibn Shaprut.  Wherever Matthew quoted from the Hebrew Scriptures, this translation used the Tetragrammaton in each case of its occurrence.  Many other Hebrew translations have since followed the same practice.

As to the basis of this course, note the following acknowledgment by R. B. Girdlestone, late principal of Wycliffe Hall, Oxford.  This statement was made before manuscript evidence came to light showing that the Greek Septuagint originally contained the name, YHWH.  He said:

"If that [Septuagint] version had retained the word [Jehovah], or had even used one Greek word for Jehovah and another for Adonai, such usage would doubtless have been retained in the discourses and arguments of the N. T.  Thus our Lord, in quoting the 110th Psalm 110:1, instead of saying, 'The Lord said unto my Lord,' might have said, 'Jehovah said unto Adoni.'"  [Matthew 22:44]

Proceeding on this basis (which evidence now shows to have been actual fact) he adds:

"Supposing a Christian scholar were engaged in translating the Greek Testament into Hebrew, he would have to consider, each time the word K¨l;rioV occurred, whether there was anything in the context to indicate its true Hebrew representative; and this is the difficulty which would arise in translating the N. T. into all languages, if the title Jehovah had been allowed to stand in the [Septuagint translation of the] O. T.  The Hebrew Scriptures would be a guide in many passages:  thus, wherever the expression 'the angel of the Lord' occurs, we know that the word Lord represents Jehovah; a similar conclusion as to the expression 'the word of the Lord' would be arrived at, if the precedent set by the O. T. were followed; so also in the case of the title 'the Lord of Hosts.'" (Synonyms of the Old Testament, 1897, p. 43)

The following scriptures show that Jesus must have used The Divine Name:

Matthew 6:9 (ASV) "After this manner therefore pray ye. Our Father who art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name."

John 5:43 (ASV) "I am come in my Father's name, and ye receive me not: if another shall come in his own name, him ye will receive."

John 10:25 (ASV) "Jesus answered them, I told you, and ye believe not:  the works that I do in my Father's name, these bear witness of me."

John 12:28 (ASV) "Father, glorify thy name.  There came therefore a voice out of heaven, [saying], I have both glorified it, and will glorify it again."

John 17:3 (ASV) "And this is life eternal, that they should know thee the only true God, and him whom thou didst send, [even] Jesus Christ."

John 17:6 (ASV) "I manifested thy name unto the men whom thou gavest me out of the world:  thine they were, and thou gavest them to me; and they have kept thy word."

John 17:11, 12 (ASV) " ... And I am no more in the world, and these are in the world, and I come to thee.  Holy Father, keep them in thy name which thou hast given me, that they may be one, even as we [are]. 12 While I was with them, I kept them in thy name which thou hast given me: and I guarded them, and not one of them perished, but the son of perdition; that the scripture might be fulfilled."

John 17:26 (ASV) " ... and I made known unto them thy name, and will make it known; that the lovewherewith thou lovedst me may be in them, and I in them."

Acts 15:14 (ASV) "Symeon hath rehearsed how first God visited the Gentiles, to take out of them a people for his name."

Acts 15:17 (ASV) "... That the residue of men may seek after the Lord, And all the Gentiles, upon whom my name is called, ..."

Hebrews 2:12 (ASV) " ... saying,I will declare thy name unto my brethren, In the midst of the congregation will I sing thy praise."

3 John 1:7 (ASV) " ... because that for the sake of the Name they went forth, taking nothing of the Gentiles."

Revelation 3:12 (ASV) "He that overcometh, I will make him a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go out thence no more: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, the new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God, and mine own new name."

Revelation 14:1 (ASV) "And I saw, and behold, the Lamb standing on the mount Zion, and with him a hundred and forty and four thousand, having his name, and the name of his Father, written on their foreheads."

Revelation 15:4 (ASV) "Who shall not fear, O Lord, and glorify thy name? for thou only art holy; for all the nations shall come and worship before thee; for thy righteous acts have been made manifest."

Revelation 22:4 (ASV) " ... and they shall see his face; and his name [shall be] on their foreheads."

These references from Holy Scripture, clearly document the sacred importance and emphasis associated with the use of The Divine Name by Jesus (and the apostles).

Jesus' (Hebrew, Yeshua) own name means "Salvation [or help] of Jah [Jehovah]" or "Jehovah is Salvation;"

Jesus stated:  "I have come in the name of my Father" (John 5:43);

Jesus taught his followers to pray:  "Our Father in the heavens, let your name be sanctified" (Matthew 6:9);

Jesus said his works were done "in the name of my Father" (John 10:25); and,

Jesus made his Father's name known to his disciples and said he would continue to make it known (John 17:6, 11, 12, 26).

Based on the preceeding references, when Jesus quoted or read from the Hebrew Scriptures he most assuredly used The Divine Name!  Note the following references:

The Divine Name in Jesus' Reference to OT
 OT Reference

JESUS' quote in NT

Deuteronomy 8:3; 6:16; 6:13

Matthew 4:4, 7, 10

Deuteronomy 6:5

Matthew 22:37

Psalm 110:1

Matthew 22:44

Isaiah 61:1, 2

Luke 4:16-21

 
No doubt Jesus' disciples, including the inspired writers of the Christian Greek Scriptures, would follow his example, using The Divine Name in their writings.
 

Why would the early copiests substitute kyrios (Lord) or theos (God) for The Divine Name?

From 66 CE to 135 CE there were:
Several Jewish revolts fostered much persecution by Roman authorities upon any who appeared Jewish;

After the apostle's deaths,  there was a great falling away from the true faith. (2 Thessalonians 2:3; 2 Peter 2:3);

Most Jewish Christians were killed by the Roman authorities, leaving mostly "Gentile" Christians.  These Gentile Christians wanted to appease the Roman authorities and gain approval amongst Romans, in general, and therefore may have developed a propensity to discard almost anything that made them look Jewish, including The Divine Name.

Greek philosophies were put on par with the Holy Scriptures.  (2 Timothy 6:20, 21)

Under these circumstances, we can see how most scriptures containing The Divine Name could  have been destroyed, leaving only copies that contained the substitutes, kyrios or theos.  Therefore, those who replaced the Tetragrammaton with "kyrios "in the both the OT and NT copies, were NOT the early disciples of Jesus; they were persons of later centuries, when the foretold apostasy was well developed and had corrupted the purity of Christian teachings.--2 Thessalonians 2:3; 1 Timothy 4:1.

Therefore, in the days of Jesus and his disciples The Divine Name very definitely must have appeared in copies of the Holy Scriptures, both in Hebrew manuscripts and in Greek manuscripts.

The Sovereign Lord of the universe does not want to be anonymous.

The proliferant use of The Divine Name in the Hebrew Scriptures alone certainly says something about the value attributted to it by God.  Almighty God inspired  the Bible writers of the Hebrew Scriptures or OT to record the Tetragrammaton, %&%* (YHWH in English), about 6,972 times, and stated emphatically:
"And God said moreover unto Moses, 'Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, Jehovah, the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name forever, and this is my memorial unto all generations.'"--Exodus 3:15, ASV.

The third of the Ten Commandments states:

Thou shalt not take the name of Jehovah thy God in vain; for Jehovah will not hold him guiltless that taketh his name in vain."--Exodus 20:7, ASV.

Near the closing verses of the OT Almighty God, himself, spoke of the importanceof His Name:

"Then they that feared Jehovah spake one with another; and Jehovah hearkened, and heard, and a book of remembrance was written before him, for themthat feared Jehovah, and that thought upon his name.--Malachi 3:16, ASV.

Jesus emphasised the importance of adhearing to the Divine Will:

"Then there come to Jesus from Jerusalem Pharisees and scribes, saying, 2 Why do thy disciples transgress the tradition of the elders? for they wash not their hands when they eat bread. 3 And he answered and said unto them, Why do ye also transgress the commandment of God because of your tradition? 4 For God said, Honor thy father and thy mother: and, He that speaketh evil of father or mother, let him die the death. 5 But ye say, whosoever shall say to his father or his mother, That wherewith thou mightest have been profited by me is given [to God]; 6 he shall not honor his father. And ye have made void the word of God because of your tradition. 7 Ye hypocrites, well did Isaiah prophesy of you, saying, 8 This people honoreth me with their lips; But their heart is far from me. 9 But in vain do they worship me, Teaching [as their] doctrines the precepts of men.--Matthew 15:1-9, ASV.

It is on such a basis that translations of the Greek Scriptures containing The Divine Name in the form Yahweh or Jehovah have proceeded.  The next topic for analysis hopes to be focused on the manner Christians today should refer to The Divine Name.

A relevant question is:  "Do I want to be written in Yahweh's 'book of remembrance'?"

God is looking for people to worship him in "spirit and truth" (John 4:23), I am striving to meet that expectation and hope you are, too.  Please advise me of any input you may have in this regard.

bwid.net/studies/yhwhinnt.htm;
www.eliyah.com/lxx.html

Barnabaseloka:

John 3:16 For God so loved the world that He gave His only Begotten Son that whosoever believes in Him will not perish but have everlasting life.
Acts 4:10-12
10. Let it be known to you all and to all the people of Israel, that by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, whom you crucified, whom God raised from the dead, by Him this man stands here before you whole.
11. This is the stone which was rejected by you builders, which has become the chief cornerstone.
12. Nor is there salvation in any other, for there is no other name under heaven given among men by which we must be saved. Here Peter was referring to the name 'Jesus' in Vs 10.
Acts 16:31 So they said, Believe on the Lord, Jesus Christ and you will be saved, you and your household.
Matthew 14:30 but when he saw that the wind was boisterous, he was afraid; and beginning to sink he cried out, saying LORD, save me!
Matthew 1:21 And she will bring forth a Son, and you shall call His name JESUS, for He will save His people from their sins.
I ask you again, will God answer me if I do not call Him Jehovah but call the name Jesus or His titles (as you stated)?

If you cant decode that verse, have a nice day.

JMAN05:

If you cant decode that verse, have a nice day.

And you too.

RikoduoSennin:
John 21:25 "But there are also many other things which Jesus did: were every one to be written, I suppose that the world itself could not contain the books that would be written"

@the bold section, that is a Very BOLD thing to say seeing as not everything Jesus did was written and you did not lived during his era.

I wasn't surprised at all with this your statement.

If we should go by you, then it means the writings of these blessed Apostles are not enough for us to know EVERYTHING about what Jesus taught. Anyway it's not strange since that's how your organization always do. Why did I say this?

When they want to build faith in Bible they claimed "No striking or fundamental variation is shown either in the Old or [size=14pt]the New Testament. There are no important omissions or additions of passages, and no variations which affect vital facts or doctrines."[/size] Reasoning from the Scriptures p. 64

"Not only are there thousands of manuscripts to compare but discoveries of older Bible manuscripts during the past few decades take the Greek text back as far as about the year 125 C.E., just a couple of decades short of the death of the apostle John about 100 C.E. These manuscript evidences provide strong assurance that we now have a [size=14pt]dependable Greek text[/size] in refined form." All Scripture is Inspired of God and Beneficial p.319

But when they were asked, why they insert JEHOVAH in their NWT? The story changes:
"Sometime during the second or third century C.E. [size=14pt]the scribes removed the Tetragrammaton from both the Septuagint and the Christian Greek Scriptures and replaced it with Ky´ri·os, "Lord" or The·os´, "God."[/size] " New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures - With References p.1564 1D The Divine Name in the Christian Greek Scriptures

So if the Scribes can remove the Tetragrammaton that means what we have in possession today have been tampered with and they can be trusted.

Is there any really reason why Jesus would see the use of the Divine Name as a 'Taboo'?

I think the question should be WHY NO SINGLE PLACE IN THE FOUR DIFFERENT GOSPEL ACCOUNTS OF JESUS CHRIST WAS RECORDED THAT JESUS USED THE NAME?

The Greek septuagint is my proof that the Divine Name exist during the first century C.E
/ during Christ Era.

So where are these Greek Septuagint today?

Either number one or two is well understood by you and the same conclusion can be made after considering John 17:6,26; Hebrew 2:11,12;

You're still beating around the BUSH, even with the insertion of Jehovah by NWT I'm still asking you to show me JUST A SINGLE VERSE where Jesus EVER CALLED THE FATHER Jehovah. Yet you couldn't.

Let me give you a small quote from Greek scholars and compare it with the WT interpretation of both John 17:,26 & Heb 2:12 to see the difference.
But let me start with this toking;

[b] The definition of the word 'name' includes:

1. A word or words by which an entity is designated and distinguished from others.
2. A word or group of words used to describe or evaluate, often disparagingly.
3. Representation or repute, as opposed to reality: a democracy in name, a police state in fact.
A reputation

[size=14pt]Likewise Strong's Concordance explains that 'name' (onoma - 3686)[/size] includes "everything which the name covers, everything the thought or feeling of which is aroused in the mind by mentioning, hearing, remembering, the name, i.e. for one's rank, authority, interests, pleasure, command, excellences, deeds etc." The root word for onoma is ginosko (1097), meaning;

*to learn to know, come to know, get a knowledge of perceive, feel
*to become known
*to know, understand, perceive, have knowledge of
*to understand
*to know
*Jewish idiom for sexual intercourse between a man and a woman
*to become acquainted with, to know[/b]


[size=14pt]On John 17:6,26[/size][/hr]

Verse 6. Have manifested thy name. The word name here includes the attributes or character of God. Jesus had made known his character, his law, his will, his plan of mercy--or, in other words, he had revealed GOD to them. [size=14pt]The word name is often used to designate the person,[/size] Joh 15:21; Mt 10:22; Ro 2:24; 1Ti 6:1. Albert Barne NT commentary

Verse 6. I have manifested thy name] efanerwsa, I have brought it into light, and caused it to shine in itself, and to illuminate others. A little of the Divine nature was known by the works of creation; a little more was known by the Mosaic revelation: [size=14pt]but the full manifestation of God, his nature, and his attributes, came only through the revelation of Christ."[/size] Adam Clarke commetary

Verse 26. Thy name. See Barnes for Joh 17:6. Albert Barne NT commentary

Verse 26. I have declared unto them thy name, &c.] I have taught them the true doctrine. Adam Clarke commetary

[/hr]

[size=14pt]On Heb 2:12[/size]

"I will declare thy name. I will make thee known. [size=14pt]The word "name" is used, as it often is, to denote God himself.[/size] The meaning is, that it would be a part of the Messiah's work to make known to his disciples the character and perfections of God--or to make them acquainted with God. He performed this. In his parting prayer (Joh 17:6) he says, "I have manifested thy name unto the men whom thou gavest me out of the world." And again, Joh 17:26, "And I have declared unto them thy name, and will declare it." Albert Barne NT commentary

Verse 12. I will declare thy name] See Ps 22:22. The apostle certainly quotes this psalm as referring to Jesus Christ, and these words as spoken by Christ unto the Father, in reference to his incarnation; as if he had said: [size=14pt]"When I shall be incarnated, I will declare thy perfections to mankind; and among my disciples I will give glory to thee for thy mercy to the children of men."[/size] See the fulfilment of this, [size=14pt]Joh 1:18: No man hath seen God at any time; the ONLY-BEGOTTEN SON, which is in the bosom of the Father, HE HATH DECLARED HIM. Nor were the perfections of God ever properly known or declared, till the manifestation of Christ.[/size] Hear another scripture, Lu 10:21,22: In that hour Jesus rejoiced in spirit, and said, I thank thee, O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, that thou hast hid these things from the wise and prudent, and hast revealed them unto babes, &c. Thus he gave praise to God." Adam Clarke commetary

What we can conclude from here is; Jesus made known the Father's qualities. He highlighted a loving God, rather than focus on the more legalistic and destructive qualities so readily identifiable in the Old Testament Yahweh.
[/hr]

Why did the Jews stop using the Divine Name? Was it because of God's command or Tradition? Does Jesus obey the tradition of man?

I believe you have internet you can browse why the Jews stop using it.

Evidence shows that the pronunciation of the Divine name has been lost before Jesus Christ, if the usage of the name is so important for us;
1. Jesus as the Son of God suppose to have restored the details about the Name
2. Jesus would have given a commandment about the Name
3. Jesus would have setting an example by referring to the Father with that Name always.

But no single verse from the TRUSTWORTHY FOURFOLD GOSPEL ACCOUNT that supported all these including entire NT writers whereas these people can gave us more than two places where The NAME OF JESUS WAS CALLED UPON

Where did you come up with the above conclusion?
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Since you won't research The Greek Septuagint online- let me help you:

Imaging you want to help me when you've not helped yourself.

Anyway I won't bombard this post with many words but I'll only pick three most important parts

It is true, [size=14pt]no reference to The Divine Name, in it's complete form, can be found in the extant manuscript copies of the original text of the "New Testament".[/size]  However, an abbreviated form of The Name does occur at Revelation 19:1, 3, 4, 6, in the expression "Alleluia" or "Hallelujah" in KJ, Dy, JB, AS, and RS.

The bold part destroyed the argument of NWT because the ONLY MANUSCRIPTS for support is the over 5,000 Greek manuscripts which the usage of the Divine name has never been found. So which manuscripts the WT used to insert Jehovah into their NWT?

Sit down and enjoy the unfold truth about NWT.

"in the most accurate manuscripts THE NAME occurs in Hebrew characters, yet not in today's Hebrew [characters], [size=14pt]but in the most ancient ones."[/size]

Your author shot him/herself in the leg with this quote
Notice the underline & bold

Evidence indicates that the "New Testament" writers did NOT substitute The Divine Name with "kyrios," (Lord) or "theos," (God).

Your Author says EVIDENCE but no evidence was shown, why?

According to Professor George Howard, Associate Professor of Religion and Hebrew at the University of Georgia:

Your Author alluded to Professor Howard which is the normal practice of JWs quoting half message of a scholars or professors and withholding the most important message the person(s) trying to pass across.

Now see the whole truth:
In 1977 George Howard published a [size=14pt]thesis[/size] showing that the Old Testament retained YHWH in certain versions of the Greek Septuagint.

Three critical points must be made;

1. Howard's work did not examine the use of YHWH in the New Testament, but the use of YHWH in the Old Testament.
2. Howard then concludes with a theory that YHWH may have appeared in the New Testament, which the Watchtower chooses to present fact.
3. Howard's work contradicts the Watchtower concept that YHWH was not removed from the Septuagint until the second century after Jesus.

What we first know is that Howard's word is just a THESIS which WT themselves knew but decided to take it as TRUTH, can you imaging?
[/hr]
See the following discussion from the NWT Reference edition.

"Concerning the use of the Tetragrammaton in the Christian Greek Scriptures, George Howard of the University of Georgia wrote in Journal of Biblical Literature, Vol. 96, 1977, p. 63: "Recent discoveries in Egypt and the Judean Desert allow us to see first hand the use of God's name in pre-Christian times. These discoveries are significant for N[ew] T[estament] studies in that they form a literary analogy with the earliest Christian documents and may explain how NT authors used the divine name. [size=14pt]In the following pages we will set forth a theory that the divine name,... (and possibly abbreviations of it), was originally written in the NT quotations of and allusions to the O[ld] T[estament] and that in the course of time it was replaced mainly with the surrogate ? [abbreviation for Ky´ri·os, "Lord"]. This removal of the Tetragram[maton], in our view, created a confusion in the minds of early Gentile Christians about the relationship between the 'Lord God' and the 'Lord Christ' which is reflected in the MS tradition of the NT text itself."
[size=14pt]We concur with the above, [b]with this exception: We do not consider this view a "theory," rather, a presentation of the facts of history as to the transmission of Bible manuscripts."[b][/size] New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures - Reference Edition p.1564 1D The Divine Name in the Christian Greek Scriptures

Can you see how WT played their game here?

The concluding part of Howard thesis that NWT didn't quote

"(2) Concluding Observations. The above examples are, of course, [size=14pt]only exploratory[/size] in nature and are set forth here programatically. Nevertheless, the evidence is sufficiently strong to suggest that the thesis of this paper is quite possible. We have refrained from drawing too many conclusions due to the revolutionary nature of the thesis. Rather than state conclusions now in a positive manner it seems better only to raise some questions that suggest [size=14pt]a need for further explanation."[/size]

And I believe that if Howard's word including NT and show where Jesus was applied with the name Jehovah like the way Hebrew J version
which was used for NWT you people would have discard his claim or cherry pick it as usual.
[/hr]

The Emphatic Diaglott, a 19th-century translation by Benjamin Wilson, contains the name Jehovah a number of times, particularly where the Christian writers quoted from the Hebrew Scriptures; but, as far back as the 14th century, the Tetragrammaton had already begun to be used in translations of the Christian Scriptures into Hebrew, beginning with the translation of Matthew into Hebrew that was incorporated in the work ´E'ven bo'chan by Shem-Tob ben Isaac Ibn Shaprut.  Wherever Matthew quoted from the Hebrew Scriptures, this translation used the Tetragrammaton in each case of its occurrence.  Many other Hebrew translations have since followed the same practice.

I asked, since the Greek manuscripts we have in possession don't contain the full form of the Divine Name where did WT get it from?
It occurs that they used Hebrew J version (this is Greek manuscripts that were translated to Hebrew around 1384 AD) which came out thousand years after the canon of the Bible has been formed.

As an example, the New World Translation Reference Bible footnote to Matthew 1:24 cites;

24* Jehovah J1-4, 7-14, 16-18, 22-24; Lord AB

Whereas in the J version we found the Divine Name in 307 places For this reason the NWT does not include Jehovah in over 50 places that the J versions do. For instance J7 and J8 translate 1 Peter 3:15 as:

"Sanctify Jehovah God (who is Christ) in your hearts."
Other verses in which the Tetragrammaton appears in the "J" versions but not as Jehovah in the New World Translation include;

1 Corinthians 12:3
(J-14) "...no one can say "Jesus is Lord Jehovah, except by the Holy Spirit."
(NWT) "nobody can say: "Jesus is Lord!" except by holy spirit.

2 Timothy 1:18
(J-7,8,13,14,16,17,18,22,23,24) "The Lord Jehovah grant unto him that he may find mercy of the Lord Jehovah in that day..."
(NWT) "May the Lord grant him to find mercy from Jehovah in that day."

Why would the early copiests substitute kyrios (Lord) or theos (God) for The Divine Name?

From 66 CE to 135 CE there were:
Several Jewish revolts fostered much persecution by Roman authorities upon any who appeared Jewish;

After the apostle's deaths,  there was a great falling away from the true faith. (2 Thessalonians 2:3; 2 Peter 2:3);

Most Jewish Christians were killed by the Roman authorities, leaving mostly "Gentile" Christians.  These Gentile Christians wanted to appease the Roman authorities and gain approval amongst Romans, in general, and therefore may have developed a propensity to discard almost anything that made them look Jewish, including The Divine Name.

See this blatant illogical statement, "MOST" Jewish Christians were killed but NOT ALL JEWISH Christians.

And the date conflict the evidence that WT provided that SOME GREEK MANUSCRIPTS CAN BE DATED BACK TO THE LAST APOSTLE who is John.
""Not only are there thousands of manuscripts to compare but discoveries of older Bible manuscripts during the past few decades take the Greek text back as far as about the year 125 C.E., just a couple of decades short of the death of the apostle John about 100 C.E. These manuscript evidences provide strong assurance that we now have a [size=14pt]dependable Greek text[/size] in refined form." All Scripture is Inspired of God and Beneficial p.319

So is it Jewish Christians who wrote those manuscripts or Jewish Christians where Lord and God were used?
[/hr]

Under these circumstances, we can see how most scriptures containing The Divine Name could  have been destroyed, leaving only copies that contained the substitutes, kyrios or theos.  Therefore, those who replaced the Tetragrammaton with "kyrios "in the both the OT and NT copies, were NOT the early disciples of Jesus; they were persons of later centuries, when the foretold apostasy was well developed and had corrupted the purity of Christian teachings.--2 Thessalonians 2:3; 1 Timothy 4:1.

I can't stop laughing the more you people continue to prove your false doctrine the you people discredit the Holy Bible.
Now your Author claimed that "we can see how most scriptures containing The Divine Name could have been destroyed,..."
Is there any evidence that Christians scriptures ever destroyed?

Therefore, in the days of Jesus and his disciples The Divine Name very definitely must have appeared in copies of the Holy Scriptures, both in Hebrew manuscripts and in Greek manuscripts.

Yet Jesus and his disciples never address the Father with this Divine name.

[quote author=Emusan post=34308779]

I wasn't surprised at all with this your statement.

If we should go by you, then it means the writings of these blessed Apostles are not enough for us to know EVERYTHING about what Jesus taught. Anyway it's not strange since that's how your organization always do. Why did I say this?

P/s stop arguing with JW b/c you will never win. They have this mindset that they are the only ones that have read and understood the Scriptures. They can never agree with you but want you to do concur with them when they speak. They know much of theology and history and these give them a fooothold to argue so much. If you want them to leave you alone, speak only of what is writtten in the Scriptures and stop there.

There was no passage that showed that Jesus or the apostles used 'Jehovah' before God heard their prayers. If there is any I want to see the passage.
Someone might quote John 21:25 'And there are also many other things which Jesus did, the which, if they should be written every one, I suppose that even the work itself could not contain the books that should be written', but forget to quote these scriptures:
John 20:30-31
30 And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of His disciples, which are not written in this book
31 But these are written that you might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and believing you might have life through HIS NAME (Jesus).
1Tim. 3:16-17
16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness
17 That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works.

Note: The Scriptures contain everything we need to know about God and about our relationship with Him so that we can live as God wants us to, without any exemption.

@Emusan

1. Are you of the opinion that Jesus went along with the popular Jewish tradition of not pronouncing God's name?

2. Do you have the autograph written by apostle John? And why do you think that Jesus and John would not use the divine name when the Septuagint used in his day used the name?

Emusan

I asked, since the Greek manuscripts we have in possession don't contain the full form of the Divine Name where did WT get it from?
It occurs that they used Hebrew J version (this is Greek manuscripts that were translated to Hebrew around 1384 AD) which came out thousand years after the canon of the Bible has been formed.

[b]As an example, the New World Translation Reference Bible footnote to Matthew 1:24 cites;

24* Jehovah J1-4, 7-14, 16-18, 22-24; Lord AB

Whereas in the J version we found the Divine Name in 307 places For this reason the NWT does not include Jehovah in over 50 places that the J versions do. For instance J7 and J8 translate 1 Peter 3:15 as:

"Sanctify Jehovah God (who is Christ) in your hearts."
Other verses in which the Tetragrammaton appears in the "J" versions but not as Jehovah in the New World Translation include;

1 Corinthians 12:3
(J-14) "...no one can say "Jesus is Lord Jehovah, except by the Holy Spirit."
(NWT) "nobody can say: "Jesus is Lord!" except by holy spirit.

2 Timothy 1:18
(J-7,8,13,14,16,17,18,22,23,24) "The Lord Jehovah grant unto him that he may find mercy of the Lord Jehovah in that day..."
(NWT) "May the Lord grant him to find mercy from Jehovah in that day."

Hahahaha this guy self. By saying J version, it shows you dont know what you are talking about. You even called them Greek manuscripts. Chai, go and google apostate site again and wipe this gaffe.

Oh dey were translated into Hebrew around 1385AD? So that is where we got the form?

But wait. What are u talking abt? The Greek manuscript we have on hand does not have the full form. I mean what is this guy talking about? How does that even favor ur position?

U don't have full knowledge of this subject. U are just making what I call a guess reply.

Psa 110:1 A Psalm of David. The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.

YHWH, however you pronounce God's Hebrew name, means LORD, God.
Lord is adon adon, which of course also means Lord, and is God's Hebrew name or title referring to the Word, to His human existence.

Mat 22:44 The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?

The Greek word here for both LORD and Lord is Kurios,
showing that they are both God, and that the Lord is not "a god"

johnw74:
Psa 110:1 A Psalm of David. The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.

YHWH, however you pronounce God's Hebrew name, means LORD, God.
Lord is adon adon, which of course also means Lord, and is God's Hebrew name or title referring to the Word, to His human existence.

Mat 22:44 The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?

The Greek word here for both LORD and Lord is Kurios,
showing that they are both God, and that the Lord is not "a god"

Hahahahaha meeeeen,who say we no get bible scholars here? Abeg clap for ursef joor! Chai, wot a funny morning!

JMAN05:


Hahahahaha meeeeen,who say we no get bible scholars here? Abeg clap for ursef joor! Chai, wot a funny morning!

That's jw way of saying:
"we no admit Jesus is God"

If Lord Jesus Kurios is "a god"
then LORD Jehovah Kurios is also "a god"

isn't that right mano?

Mat 22:44 The LORD (Kurios) said unto my Lord (Kurios), Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?

JMAN05:


Hahahahaha meeeeen,who say we no get bible scholars here? Abeg clap for ursef joor! Chai, wot a funny morning!

It is very obvious in these forums that what Christians get from unbelievers is mockery
you can tell the unbelievers by their mocking, whether thay are jw, rc and other.

Syncan:

Hahahaha, Can't you see...................making you stumble and somersault? Just hear yourself......................hahahaha,

JMAN05:

Hahahahaha meeeeen,who say we no get bible scholars here? Abeg clap for ursef joor! Chai, wot a funny morning!

The way of the wicked

You will know them by their fruit,
they speak the same mocking language.

They don't go door to door speaking like that, which shows their hypocrisy,
if they were like that from door to door, it would be the only way that they get to Kingdom come.
zap pow wham bam thud

Speaking of jw:
Jud 1:17 But, beloved, remember ye the words which were spoken before of the apostles of our Lord Jesus Christ;
Jud 1:18 How that they told you there should be mockers in the last time, who should walk after their own ungodly lusts.
Jud 1:19 These be they who separate themselves, sensual, having not the Spirit.

Speaking of rc:
1Ti 4:1 Now the Spirit speaketh expressly, that in the latter times some shall depart from the faith, giving heed to seducing spirits, and doctrines of devils;
1Ti 4:2 Speaking lies in hypocrisy; having their conscience seared with a hot iron;
1Ti 4:3 Forbidding to marry, and commanding to abstain from meats, which God hath created to be received with thanksgiving of them which believe and know the truth.

JMAN05:
1. Are you of the opinion that Jesus went along with the popular Jewish tradition of not pronouncing God's name?

With the insertion of Jehovah in NWT just show me where Jesus and the Disciples address the Father as Jehovah/Yahweh...this is what have been demanding from your brother since.

2. Do you have the autograph written by apostle John? And why do you think that Jesus and John would not use the divine name when the Septuagint used in his day used the name?

Lol...so you mean the over 5000 Greek manuscripts in possession today is not dependable again, so the autograph of apostle John is what you're looking for.

If Jesus and His disciples used it, it would have been pen down by the NT writers with over 5000 Greek manuscripts in possession today.

So once again show me where Jesus and the disciples address the Father as Yahweh/Jehovah.

DP

The problem you're having is that you jump too much

JMAN05:
Hahahaha this guy self. By saying J version, it shows you dont know what you are talking about. You even called them Greek manuscripts. Chai, go and google apostate site again and wipe this gaffe.

Greek manuscripts in that part it's as result of long typing.

Oh dey were translated into Hebrew around 1385AD? So that is where we got the form?

Can you tell us which manuscripts the translators of NW use? If you think I'm wrong.

But wait. What are u talking abt? The Greek manuscript we have on hand does not have the full form. I mean what is this guy talking about? How does that even favor ur position?

Go back to your brother's and my post and see the reason why I said you jump too much.

I was replying to his copy and paste work.

U don't have full knowledge of this subject. U are just making what I call a guess reply.

Imaging I'm making a guess reply with ALL the evidence I've provided from your own WT and NWT which none of you are yet to refute.

johnw74:



Syncan:

Hahahaha, Can't you see...................making you stumble and somersault? Just hear yourself......................hahahaha,

johnw74:

Speaking of rc:
1Ti 4:1 Now the Spirit speaketh expressly, that in the latter times some shall depart from the faith, giving heed to seducing spirits, and doctrines of devils;
1Ti 4:2 Speaking lies in hypocrisy; having their conscience seared with a hot iron;
1Ti 4:3 Forbidding to marry, and commanding to abstain from meats, which God hath created to be received with thanksgiving of them which believe and know the truth.

(1Pet 2:1-2) - So put away all malice and all deceit and hypocrisy and envy and all slander. Like newborn infants, long for the pure spiritual milk, that by it you may grow up into salvation... to be a holy priesthood, to offer spiritual sacrifices acceptable to God through Jesus Christ. ...

Don't bring me into discussions I have no interest in, if you want to learn from me, be humble and I will feed you...just like the scripture tells you.

Emusan:
The problem you're having is that you jump too much



Greek manuscripts in that part it's as result of long typing.



Can you tell us which manuscripts the translators of NW use? If you think I'm wrong.



Go back to your brother's and my post and see the reason why I said you jump too much.

I was replying to his copy and paste work.



Imaging I'm making a guess reply with ALL the evidence I've provided from your own WT and NWT which none of you are yet to refute.

Your words are guess replies. U are not well acquainted with what u saying.

Emusan:


With the insertion of Jehovah in NWT just show me where Jesus and the Disciples address the Father as Jehovah/Yahweh...this is what have been demanding from your brother since.

Lol...so you mean the over 5000 Greek manuscripts in possession today is not dependable again, so the autograph of apostle John is what you're looking for.

If Jesus and His disciples used it, it would have been pen down by the NT writers with over 5000 Greek manuscripts in possession today.

So once again show me where Jesus and the disciples address the Father as Yahweh/Jehovah.

You ve not answered the question. I said:

1. Are you of the opinion that Jesus went along with the popular Jewish tradition of not pronouncing God's name?

2. Do you have the autograph written by apostle John? And why do you think that Jesus and John would not use the divine name when the Septuagint used in his day used the name?

Answer...

In short, if u know this topic well, those questions should clear ur eye. Keep copy and pasting what u don't understand. J version, which bible Greek manuscript is J version. Sorry for u.

Its as a result of long typing? If u had admitted ur mistake I would have helped u see ur error, but u are here pushing it to typo. OK that these versions were translated into Hebrew abt 1385 is still typo?

johnw74:


That's jw way of saying:
"we no admit Jesus is God"

If Lord Jesus Kurios is "a god"
then LORD Jehovah Kurios is also "a god"

isn't that right mano?

Mat 22:44 The LORD (Kurios) said unto my Lord (Kurios), Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?

Ooooooooh! Doesn't this guy get a hint. Stop spewing gaffe.

Syncan:






(1Pet 2:1-2) - So put away all malice and all deceit and hypocrisy and envy and all slander. Like newborn infants, long for the pure spiritual milk, that by it you may grow up into salvation... to be a holy priesthood, to offer spiritual sacrifices acceptable to God through Jesus Christ. ...

Don't bring me into discussions I have no interest in, if you want to learn from me, be humble and I will feed you...just like the scripture tells you.

No I will stay with the Truth.

johnw74:


That's jw way of saying:
"we no admit Jesus is God"

If Lord Jesus Kurios is "a god"
then LORD Jehovah Kurios is also "a god"

isn't that right mano?

Mat 22:44 The LORD (Kurios) said unto my Lord (Kurios), Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?

JMAN05:


Ooooooooh! Doesn't this guy get a hint. Stop spewing gaffe.

jw again rejects more of God's scripture calling it gaffe
jw shows yet once again that they are entrenched in lies and are unable to agree with the Truth of God's written Word.

johnw74:


No I will stay with the Truth.

I've heard that before, when your fore fathers said "Let his blood be on us and our children" Matt 27:25.

O had they known how wrong they were.... Obstinacy in ignorance.

Am leaving this thread for I never had nor do I now have interest in it, please stop mentioning my handle here.

Syncan:



I've heard that before, when your fore fathers said "Let his blood be on us and our children" Matt 27:25.

O had they known how wrong they were.... Obstinacy in ignorance.

Am leaving this thread for I never had nor do I now have interest in it, please stop mentioning my handle here.

@bold, Syncan forever the accuser

johnw74:

No I will stay with the Truth.

JMAN05:
You ve not answered the question. I said:

Now you focus on your questions but you couldn't realize that they're many of many my questions you didn't attend to before you disappeared on this thread even when I trashed the very link you provided.

1. Are you of the opinion that Jesus went along with the popular Jewish tradition of not pronouncing God's name?

I've asked some questions on this thread which I believe if you people have answered them, it'll provide answer to this your question.

Now let me ask again, if Jesus and His disciples actually used the name including THE ACTUAL PRONUNCIATION of the name (because I know if Jesus had to pronounce it He will surely used the right pronunciation) why everything lost again?

2. Do you have the autograph written by apostle John?

Since you have it you can help me get one.

And why do you think that Jesus and John would not use the divine name when the Septuagint used in his day used the name?

Your organization can help you unless if you want to me that they were wrong.

"Not only are there THOUSANDS of manuscripts to compare but discoveries of older Bible
manuscripts during the past few decades take the GREEK TEXT back as far as about the year 125 C.E., just a couple of decades short of the death of the apostle John about 100 C.E. [size=14pt]These manuscript evidences provide strong assurance that we now have a dependable Greek text IN REFINED FORM[/size]." All Scripture is Inspired of God and Beneficial p.319 (Capital, bold-mine)

Please I've addressed all these in my previous post refute my previous post first before you ask further question(s).

Answer...

In short, if u know this topic well, those questions should clear ur eye. Keep copy and pasting what u don't understand. J version, which bible Greek manuscript is J version. Sorry for u.

So it pains you how I'm exposing your false teaching through copy and paste.

I don't understand it yet none of them have you nor your brother refuted.

quote]Its as a result of long typing? If u had admitted ur mistake I would have helped u see ur error, but u are here pushing it to typo.[/quote]

You just like making empty noise, after I've told you it was as a result of long typing. you're still referring to it or you want to tell me it hasn't happened to you before.

OK that these versions were translated into Hebrew abt 1385 is still typo?

I guess you're asking question here.

Are you telling me that J versions are not TRANSLATIONS but ORIGINAL one pen down by the disciples?

JMAN05:
Your words are guess replies. U are not well acquainted with what u saying.

Imaging I'm not well acquainted with what I'm saying yet you couldn't point out where I've misinterpreted ALL THE EVIDENCE I'VE PROVIDED FROM YOUR ORGANIZATION nor be able to refute them.

Maybe it's now old light!

I asked a question which you dodged.

This is my question once again, Can you tell us which manuscripts did the translators of NW use? If you think I'm wrong.

Syncan:


Am leaving this thread for I never had nor do I now have interest in it, please stop mentioning my handle here.

jw believe diffrently to rc
but rc is scared to stay here, maybe because there are to many of them

I ve written a reply up to 4 times, yet I can't see any. I wonder what is wrong.

Emusan

In the previous thread. I asked what you mean by Hebrew root/form, and why Jesus and Isaiah have and Jehovah does not.

You also said that Greek use there Greek equivalent. That does not make any sense, since the issue is about name. Unless you are saying that name should be translated.

And what is the equivalent of YHWH in English?

2. The link I gave was to show scholars who do not agree that Yahweh is the correct pronunciation. That was the point there. Don't twist it.

Emusan:


Imaging I'm not well acquainted with what I'm saying yet you couldn't point out where I've misinterpreted ALL THE EVIDENCE I'VE PROVIDED FROM YOUR ORGANIZATION nor be able to refute them.

Maybe it's now old light!

I asked a question which you dodged.

This is my question once again, Can you tell us which manuscripts did the translators of NW use? If you think I'm wrong.

What you referred to were not greek bible manuscripts, they are bible translations. Next time, research well before you speak.