dolphinheart:

get serious , you are asking childish questions, you want God to directly tell you that he is performing the resurrection through Jesus before you can believe or respond to the numerous verses shown to you.

DoctorAlien:


Jesus was speaking of Himself while He was in the flesh. His Father was greater than He was in the flesh.

DoctorAlien:
Peacefullove,

To help you understand that Jesus was talking of Himself in the flesh, read Psa. 8:5 and Heb. 2:9.

Remember Jesus was made man/flesh.

Peacefullove:
you think am dumb to swallow that crap , show me greater than I " in the flesh " in john 14 vs 28?

DoctorAlien:


If you want [b] to interpret Jn. 14:28 [b] literally, then you must also interpret Heb. 2:9 literally to mean that when Jesus was created(which is not true), he was created lower than angels in rank.

You see it?

dolphinheart:
no, but note, my study of other translations is very limited.

any translation I come across, but it's based on a particular verse, not the whole translation. and it is also dependent on the topic under discussion.

maybe you did not read the points I made after I quoted the verses, Ill repost them and put the point in red for you to read and respond to, note it is not about accuracy, but the difference in meaning and message passed!

(1) 1 John 5: 7
NIV translation : For there are three that testify:
KJV says: For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
Apart from the fact that they do not have the same words , they also do not have the same meaning or are they telling us the same thing?
so can you explain these differences in that verse?

(2) rev 1:8
NIV says :"I am the Alpha and the Omega," says the Lord God, "who is, and who was, and who is to come, the Almighty."
KJV says : I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.
the words " the begginING and the ending" cannot be found in the NIV, pls tell us why, cus such words go a long way in telling us who that verse is referring to.
are those words meant to be their like in the KJV or not meant to be their like in the NIV?

(3) isaiah 9:6
NIV says: You have enlarged the nation and increased their joy; they rejoice before you as people rejoice at the harvest, as warriors rejoice when dividing the plunder.
KJV says: Thou hast multiplied the nation, and not increased the joy: they joy before thee according to the joy in harvest, and as men rejoice when they divide the spoil.
NIV helps us to understand that God increased their joy while KJV says the opposite, can you espanciate on the difference between the two and tell us which is right and which is wrong? cus they give us different meaning!

another one is 1 ti:3:16, kjv says "God was manifest in the flesh", but the NIV says " he appeared in the flesh".
pls tell us, did the NIV translate the Greek word for God "theos" to "he" in that verse or did the KJV Translate the Greek word for "he" to "god"?

I'm not here to discuss how I arrive at a point, I'm here to discuss the point I arrive at!

good that you have such knowledge

the scriptures

no, I just gave you differences in meaning and message from 2 translations you agree with.

you so not determine how I study and what I study for, you can only have issues with the result of my study.

all that long epistle which you yourself dont understand , just because you want to lie. Only is clear even to a primary 4 pupil ,

Jesus called his Father ONLY true God , thats the ONLY true God.

Jesus is another person entirely, if he is true god too, that means he lied at john 17 vs 3 .

if he is not the true God , that render him a false God , do u accept ?

dolphinheart:

I envy you, haven't done that in years!

truthislight:


Sharaaap! HYPOCRITE!

Jesus is not the TRUE God, he said himself at John 17:3:

3. This is life eternal that they know you the ONLY TRUE GOD and Jesus Christ whom thou has sent.

Peacefullove:
are you this dumb ? who is the " I" , show me "in the flesh" in that verse ? am waiting

themall:

You know the group of people who insist that Jesus did not die are: Judaism, Muslims, The ancient Roman Government, Satan De Devil, PaulGundy, AlienDoctor, The Scribes, Saducces and Pharisees of Jesus time, Phony Christians and others...So You should not be surprised.

DoctorAlien:
Can you prove that I said that Jesus did not die?

DoctorAlien:
Help your brother barny95 out Where is it written in the Bible that GOD will resurrect people "through" Jesus Christ

barny95:
1cor 15:21 21 For since death came through a man, resurrection of the dead also comes through a man." Who is that man, you? Lol

solite3:
False witnesses deny that Jesus resurrected himself from the grave and also claim that Jesus did not rise with his human body!

But see this verse that completely destroy their false teaching,

John 2:19 Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up

John 2:21 But he spake of the temple of his body.
Jesus was clearly referring to his body


Jesus is Jehovah God.

I have every proof.

solite3:


John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

[color=blue] what an unreasonable fellow I asked you whom did bible call ONLY TRUE God , you started john 1 vs 1 the word was with God , was with someone and he called that one the Only True God , what kind of God does that automatically make the word , false God ?

Number 2 - I gave you a portion that says Yahweh have a son , kindly tell me if Jesus have a son since you insist Jesus is Yahweh ?

dave1614:
how is Jehovah God also Jesus christ. Man just hear yourself it makes no sense. I also know that you would want to use john 10:30 where jesus said that he and the father are one.

solite3:
John 1:1 already proves Jesus is God.

Emusan:


Sorry, you people couldn't resolve anything just normal way of dodging and escape.

Emusan:

Yes! That even this Son is also living in Heaven with Yahweh.

Emusan:

No aspect was considered as impossible for Yahweh since The Son actually came and gone.

Emusan:

Yahweh can do ALL THINGS as He wills

Emusan:

All these won't save you from dodging my point.

Emusan:

All I'm saying is this, the Son of Yahweh is a PERSON and Yahweh said He will send His Son to Earth and your organization said Yahweh ONLY TRANSFERED this Son's life to earth.

Emusan:

1. Where is the body that this life was removed Since you believe the spiritual beings have a body.

Emusan:

2. Life to you is nothing but an ordinary force, this means Yahweh didn't send anything

Emusan:

Is Yahweh Himself not a person save us this please.

Emusan:

Your questions are so baseless, so spare us that and tackle my points.

solite3

Both Jesus and the father are called the only true God

unreasonable guy , read the statement above again . " BOTH " dont tell me your Jesus was praying to himself too @ john 17 vs 3 . hahahahah


Contrary to your lie above ^^ , Jesus called his Father ONLY true God . that renders Jesus a false god , just agree ?

or [size=27] if Jesus is also true god then his Father is not the ONly true God!!!! , [/size] which makes him a liar and dubious person, agree ?



the problem here is you have refused to use your brain.

Emusan:


That's why you can rate NWT above other translations which your studies about is so limited.....contunuuu



Then have you come across a single VERSE in NWT that you against

Answer my question....how do you know that very particular verse is wrong

I read your point and understood them. Using NIV with KJV shows something was wrong with some particular verses. Now you have one translation you can use to check mate the other.

Which translation do you use to check the little verses you've studied in NWT before you can say that you don't have problem with NWT

Which point do you arrive at on NWT?

As if I care...

So which scripture do you use for NWT?

So, which translation is accurate between the two?

Your studies must be fair not base on any doctrine or a believe in a particular translation before you can say yes I've studied well.

I know the result of your studies won't be anything other than, NWT is the only accurate translation among the over one thousand Translations we have.

dolphinheart:
I believe I've answered your questions several times!

I posted some verses from two translations you accepted, you initially claimed that those translations don't have verses that give different meanings when they are translated. After giving you those verses, I gave some points and asked some questions which up till now you refuse to respond to. I even put those points and questions in another color for you to see, but still you did not respond to it.
It is clear that those verses did not give the same meaning, neither do they contain same content or issues.

here below is the post again, let's see if you will a dress the different issues raised when comparing the translations of each verse.
(Note it is evident that both translations can't be correct, since you say you accept both translations, do you then accept incorrect translations)

"[b]maybe you did not read the points I made after I quoted the verses, Ill repost them and put the point in red for you to read and respond to, note it is not about accuracy, but the difference in meaning and message passed!
(1) 1 John 5: 7
NIV translation : For there are three that testify:
KJV says: For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
Apart from the fact that they do not have the same words , they also do not have the same meaning or are they telling us the same thing?
so can you explain these differences in that verse?

(2) rev 1:8
NIV says :"I am the Alpha and the Omega," says the Lord God, "who is, and who was, and who is to come, the Almighty."
KJV says : I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.
the words " the begginING and the ending" cannot be found in the NIV, pls tell us why, cus such words go a long way in telling us who that verse is referring to.
are those words meant to be their like in the KJV or not meant to be their like in the NIV?

(3) isaiah 9:6
NIV says: You have enlarged the nation and increased their joy; they rejoice before you as people rejoice at the harvest, as warriors rejoice when dividing the plunder.
KJV says: Thou hast multiplied the nation, and not increased the joy: they joy before thee according to the joy in harvest, and as men rejoice when they divide the spoil.
NIV helps us to understand that God increased their joy while KJV says the opposite, can you espanciate on the difference between the two and tell us which is right and which is wrong? cus they give us different meaning!

another one is 1 ti:3:16, kjv says "God was manifest in the flesh", but the NIV says " he appeared in the flesh".
pls tell us, did the NIV translate the Greek word for God "theos" to "he" in that verse or did the KJV Translate the Greek word for "he" to "god"?

you have been asking several questions about the NWT, I asked you questions about the translations you accepted and agree with, but you refuse to answer any of my questions.
(Note that I even numbered the scriptures qouted)

I have not checkmate any version with any version yet, I just quoted the verses from 2 translations you agree with and asked you to explain the difference in words, messages and meaning!

that so far, I can use in in my study of God's word

so why the questions?

I do not understand

you say you accepted the two translations , I brought out some verses for you to explain the differences between the two, now you are asking me the same question you don't want to answer!

SaffronSpice:

You don't get it: No one is downplaying the role of CTR,but he is not the founder.
JWs is a theocratic organisation - I hope you understand?