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Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication - Religion (29) - Nairaland

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Poll: Is pre-marital sex fornication?

Yes: 81% (353 votes)
No: 18% (82 votes)
This poll has ended

Fornication:is It A 'necessary' Sin? / My Brother Goshen, Please Explain Your Stand On Fornication Here / Is Fornication Really A Sin? (1) (2) (3) (4)

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Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by ladygaga(f): 11:17pm On Jul 13, 2010
Not necesarily. Fornication could mean having multiple partners at the same time, or casual sex. Giving every man a wife would solve this problem. I think this statement was directed at people who couldn't limit their sex to one partner, and so the marriage was in there to tie the people to one intimate partner. Some people are prefectly capable of having just one intimate partner outside the bonds of marriage.

This is so funny to me. People don't argue whether or not lying is a sin because the Bible clearly states "Thou shalt not bear false witness." Don't you think if sex before marriage was such an extreme sin it would have been stated more clearly and we wouldn't be having this debate? Most of the support against it comes from the words of Paul, which in my mind is not the same as the words of God or Jesus. True, it is divinely inspired, but Paul was not perfect, he was human. Usually when Paul wrote to communities, such as Corinth, condoning fornication, the communities had a reputation for having sin assemblies in the streets. That's pretty extreme, and I'm sure that's why Paul felt he had to address the problem
i agree
Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by brucemcg: 8:25pm On Jul 27, 2010
Firstly a dictionary says what a word currently means.
Meanings change along with how the population uses the words.

Not only that, porneia is no longer translated as fornication, due to it being inaccurate.
Porneia covers a variety of meanings.
So don't be looking into you KJV and pointing out "But it says fornication!"
That's using the definition being analysed as proof :S

So, understandably it's hard for the translators to choose which translation to use where,
and so use "intimate immorality", the closest translation we have.

But what constitutes as intimate immorality?

Well for that it's wise to look at Deuteronomy 22 and Leviticus 18.
Though these are Old Testament quotes, they show God's intent fairly well I think.
Leviticus 18, well, it's detailed to say the least. Not a mention of sex between two unmarried people.
Why?
Well the issue a guy having sex with a virgin is dealt with in Deuteronomy. They must marry.
There's no room for anyone following the rules to sleep around.

And to re-enforce that, just before it I think, it talks about a girl lying about her virginity.
Then upon being married being discovered to be lying, and should be stoned to death for her sin.
What was her sin? Promiscuity. The time is taken to emphasise this, yet the following line about premarital sex has no tone of wickedness about the act. The wickedness comes from not following the rule to then marry.

Instead the one flesh bond that should be shared between two until death do they part, has been spread among more than intended.

So then there's the question of "Ok well clearly promiscuity is a sin, but would it be a sin to have sex before marriage?"
If it were then wouldn't it have been clearly stated in the incredibly detailed Leviticus. Wouldn't there have been punishment in Deuteronomy? God didn't seem to care that it was done, but cared that once they did, they became married.

So, don't think "Oh yeah! I can have sex now!"
Unless you and the guy or girl you're with intend to marry, and understand the grave sin of having sex as a virgin an not marrying. Because if the future spouse is anyone other than those then you have been prmiscuous.
To have sex is a life long bond as strong as marriage to be with that person, after all, it is supposed to result in marriage.

And to finish off, to all you who think that people are trying to weasel their way out of the "difficult route of self-control",
with the excuse that "It just is."

Isaiah 19:13
Matthew 15:9

Don't condemn what God clearly didn't condemn.
He was precise about promiscuity being a grave sin, but also in the importance of the one flesh bond and that when it's created you must be with that person until death.
Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by Joagbaje(m): 11:31am On Jan 13, 2011
@trini girl
Greetings!

It is my belief that pre-marital sex is different from fornication.  The verb "to fornicate" is derived from the Greek word
korinthiazomai,a word which was derived from the city of Corinth, where promiscuity and intimate immorality abounded like no where else and the corinthians worshipped the goddess of love (eros), Aphrodite.

There were over 1,000 love-peddlers in the temple of Aphrodite, so intimate promisuity was the norm.

In Paul's letter to the Corinthians he admonishes them to flee fornication, meaning avoid to avoid sexually promiscuous behaviour, sleeping with love-peddlers, and multiple sex partners.

This is different from pre marital sex.

My point is, if you are committed to be married to someone, then having sex with that person does not mean you are a fornicator.

Although I do not condone sex with multiple partners, sex with your boyfriend or fiancee is fine, as long as you are both committed to each other and monogamous.

The floor is now open.

I will want you to explain which passage you got this "korinthiazomai" from.
Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by lookwonder: 11:55am On Jan 13, 2011
you seem to have a very good argument. let us face, majority of those on this post have slept with a girl before marriage. just plain hypocrisy , that is the problem with the African. he would alwaya pretend to be what he is not.

i have always wondered is pre-marital sex is sin cos thre seems to be no biblical support for this but it suits us over here because from our rural backgrounds, the society has always frowned at pre-marital sex and appluaded virgins.

@ the Reverend; humanist? Nah!!
Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by UyiIredia(m): 3:02pm On Jan 13, 2011
of course pre-maarital sex isn't fornication given your premises in the topic post >>> consider this that Molesting will not be a sin if i were to use your logic >>> trust me, i can argue that molest is not a sin
Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by uplawal(f): 3:12pm On Jan 14, 2011
See Christians supporting sex before marriage,na wa o. ; angry
Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by Tunisque(m): 4:53pm On Jan 14, 2011
Whether you guys that are rationalising pre-marital sex like it or not God's standard remains the same: and there shall in no wise enter into that city any thing that defileth, neither whatsoever worketh abomination, or maketh a lie (Rev21:27). Wait for this: But the fearful, the unbelieving, and the abominable, and murderers, and whoremongers, and sorcerers, and idolaters, and all liars, shall have their part in the lake which burneth with fire and brimstone: which is the second death. (Rev21:8 )
Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by Glad2CU: 6:54pm On Apr 10, 2011
The person who started this thread made
the following INACCURATE statement:
.
"The verb "to fornicate" is derived from the
Greek word korinthiazomai,a word which
was derived from the city of Corinth…."

.
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
.
The only acceptable response [/b]to the person who started
this thread [b]is to state that what you have noted [/b]in the
thread that you have started [b]is very simply WRONG!!!!

.
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
.
The FACTS of the matter are as follows: ….
.
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
.
The word "FORNICATE" IS actually derived from
the Greek word –'PORNEIA'--
which is (both the origin
of the English word ' P-O-R-N-O-G-R-A-P-H-Y ' and is also) ….
.
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
.
I.) The Greek word of 1) 'PORNEIA' is based
on the Greek root word of 2)’ PORNEUŌ'. …
.
II.) The Greek root-word of 2)’ PORNEUŌ'[/b]is
based on the Greek root word of 3) ‘PORNE'. …
.
[b]III.)
The Greek root-word of 3) 'PORNE' [/b]is
based on the Greek root word of 4) ‘PORNOS’ …
.
[b]IV.)
The Greek root-word of 4) ‘PORNOS’ is
based on the Greek root word of ‘PERNEMI’.
.
V.) The Greek root-word of 5) ‘PERNEMI’ is
akin to the base of the Greek word ‘PIPRASKŌ’
.
VI.) The Greek word 6) ‘PIPRASKŌ’ is a prolonged
and a duplicated form of the Greek word ‘PRAO’ ---
(which is both used as an ‘alternate’ to and is also
a ‘contracted’ form of the Greek word ‘PERAO’.)
.
VII.) The Greek word A) ‘PERAO’ (which simply
means “To Traverse”) -- is derived from the base
of the Greek word B) ‘PERAN’ (which means …
To Be “Beyond” -- or --To Be “On The Other Side”)
-- which is the accusative-case form of the derivative of
the Greek word C) ‘PEIRO’ (which means “To Pierce”)
.
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
.
AND HERE ARE THE DEFINITIONS
OF EVERY ONE OF THESE WORDS ,

.
I.) The word 1) 'PORNEIA' was used in reference to:
.
--- Committing ADULTERY (which means to
engage in EXTRA-MARITAL intimate intercourse);
.
--- Committing intimate intercourse with an
UNLAWFULLY-DIVORCED person
(as referred to in Mark / 10:11,12);
.
--- Committing Inbreeding (which is intimate
intercourse with a close relative -- as
referred to in 'Leviticus / chapter 18');
.
--- Committing the acts of homosexuality / lesbianism /
intercourse with animals etc. that were often actively
practiced in the Greek PAGAN temples as a
form of IDOLATROUS-PROSTITUTION)
.
--- It was also used METAPHORICALLY as a reference
to “committing the act of WORSHIPPING IDOLS"
(which is also known as "IDOLATRY" and was a
SPIRITUAL reference to allowing one’s spirit to
become tainted by "the defilement of idolatry"
.
(The following BIBLE VERSES
contain the word 1) 'PORNEIA’:
Matthew 53: 2; Matthew 15:19; 19:9;
Mark 7:21; John 8:41; Acts 15:20; 15:29;
21:25; Romans 1:29; 1Corinthians 5:1; 6:13;
6:18; 7:2; 2Corinthians 12:21; Galatians 5:19;
Ephesians 5:3; Colossians 3:5; 1Thessalonains 4:3;
Revelation 2:21; 9:21; 14:8; 17:2, 4; 18:3; 19:2)
.
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
.
II.) The root-word 2) ’PORNEUŌ' was
used in reference to the activities of:
.
--- PROSTITUTING one’s
body to the lust of another;
.
--- Giving one's self to UNLAWFUL intimate
INTERCOURSE with someone else;
.
--- It was also used METAPHORICALLY as
a reference to “being given TO IDOLATRY
(worshipping ‘idols’)” and / or to “permitting one's
self to be drawn away by another into IDOLATRY”
.
(The following BIBLE VERSES
contain the word 2) ’PORNEUŌ':
1Corinthains 6:18; 10:8;
Revelation 2:14, 20; 17:2; 18:3, 9)
.
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
.
III.) The root-word 3) 'PORNE' was (a term
generally used in the ‘feminine’ format and
was also) used in reference to the activities of:
.
-- A woman who SELLS THEIR BODY for intimate uses
.
-- A woman who BEHAVES as a PROSTITUTE;
a HARLOT; as “one who yields themselves
to ‘defilement’ -- for the sake of gain”
.
--- A woman who indulging in UNLAWFUL
intimate intercourse, whether for gain or for lust
.
--- It was also used METAPHORICALLY as
a reference to “being an IDOLATRESS” (as
in a Christian – who is a part of the Body of
‘The Bride of Christ’ -- committing ‘idolatry’)
and also spoke of ‘Babylon’ (“confusion”) wherein is
the place that ‘idolatry’ attempts to “rest” and “rule”.
.
(The following BIBLE VERSES
contain the word 3) 'PORNE’ …
Matthew 21:31, 32; Luke15:30;
1Corinthians 6:15, 16; Hebrews 11:31;
James 2:25; Revelation 17:1, 5; 17:15, 16; 19:2)
.
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
.
IV.) The root-word 3) 'PORNOS’ was (a term
generally used in the ‘masculine’ format and
was also) used in reference to the activities of:
.
--- a man who PROSTITUTES his
body to another's lust for hire;
.
--- a male PROSTITUTE;
.
--- a man who indulges in the activity
of UNLAWFUL intimate intercourse
.
(The following BIBLE VERSES
contain the word 3) 'PORNOS’ …
1Corinthians 5:9, 10, 11; 6:9; Ephesians
5:5; 1Timothy 1:10; Hebrews 12:16;
13:4; Revelation 21:8; 22:15)

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
.
V.) The root-word 5) 'PERNEMI’
meant “TO SELL” and was akin to the
base of the Greek word ‘PIPRASKŌ’ ,

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
.

VI.) The Greek word 6) ‘PIPRASKŌ’ meant …
.
--- To SELL (and was used to refer to the matter
“of price” relating to selling) ONE INTO SLAVERY
(and was also used in reference to the “master”
or “captor” …. “to whom one is sold as a slave”)
.
--- It was also used METAPHORICALLY as a reference
to one being “SOLD UNDER SIN” and / or “ENTIRELY
UNDER THE CONTROL OF THE LOVE OF SINNING”
and / or “OF ONE BRIBED TO GIVE HIMSELF
UP ENTIRELY TO ANOTHER'S WILL”.
.
(The following BIBLE VERSES
contain the word 6) ‘PIPRASKŌ’ …
Matthew 13:46; 18:25; 26:9; Mark 14:5;
John 12:5; Acts 2:45; 4:34; 5:4; Romans 7:14)
.
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
.
VII.) The Greek word A) ‘PERAO’ (which means
“To Traverse”) -- is derived from the base of
the Greek word B) ‘PERAN’ (which means
To Be “Beyond” -- or --To Be “On The Other Side”)
-- which is the accusative-case form of the derivative of
the Greek word C) ‘PEIRO’ (which means “To Pierce”)
.
(The following BIBLE VERSES
contain the word B) ‘PERAN’’
Matthew 4:15, 25; 8:18, 28; 14:22; 16:5; 19:1; Mark
3:8, 4:35; 5:1, 21; 6:45; 8:13;  10:1; Luke 8:22;
John 1:28; 3:26; 6:1, 17, 22, 25; 10:40; 18:1)
.
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
.
Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by Trinadad: 7:13pm On Jun 20, 2011
Greetings,

Cudos to Trini Girl!!!! I have been preaching this for a while now. Here's the thing; can anyone out there give biblical proof and please don't go to Webster dictionary please find a bible dictionary and when you are defining words like fornication and adultery, think about this, what was the meaning of these words during Moses' time? What did fornication mean to Solomon the man of so many wives? Noah Webster the creator of the original Webster Dictionary, was wrong when he deleted original meanings of base root words. So; Cudos to Trini Girl!!!!!!!!!

Trinadad
Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by seyibrown(f): 11:45pm On Jun 20, 2011
Trinadad?? Trini girl?? Did you two ever work for the MI5 or SSS ?? grin grin
Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by ears4hire: 1:31am On May 11, 2012
Please see this great web site on the subject:
http://www.sabbathcovenant.com/doctrine/fornication_defined.htm
 
Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by Andybaby: 7:51pm On Oct 06, 2012
fornication is lusting after a woman in your heart. As well as all forms of intimacy and sex outside marriage committed by unmarried persosn
Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by MistadeRegal(m): 2:19pm On Oct 07, 2012
It becomes sin if they both are not going to marry.
It is like defiling another Adam's Eve.
God commanded if a man found a woman and met with her she must be his wife and must not divorce her for any reason except for a proven infidelity.
But I prefer after legal marriage

1 Like

Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by kaytytty: 9:53pm On Oct 07, 2012
no wonder na xtians get HIV pass
Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by haibe(m): 11:07am On Oct 08, 2012
Even if it is not fornication, as long as it is sin they are all in the same class, so lets not argue about it.
Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by biblebased: 6:10pm On May 06, 2013
On the Divine Institution, Marriage: God Ordained, God Defined

by: brother Ken

Marriage ceremonies and traditions differ from society to society, culture to culture, and, age to age. It is a constantly changing ceremonial tradition in the eyes of men. To make proper Christian judgments and decisions in the areas of marriage, divorce and remarriage, one must fully understand and examine God’s definition of marriage and the purpose for which He established the institution. The Word clearly defines the guidelines which govern marriage.
Marriage is primarily designed so that a man and woman become one flesh. God said in Genesis 2:24,25
“Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh. And they were both Unclad, the man and his wife, and were not ashamed.”
Notice the absence of any “wedding ceremony”. They become one flesh and that is it. While the teachings of many Puritanical Protestants and even the Roman Catholic church claim that sex is inherently evil, the first mention of marriage defines it as the intimate act of union between the man and the woman. It does not even mention children. God further elaborates that they, Adam and Eve, were Unclad and unashamed by their unclothedness. This flies in the face of any teaching that sin in the Garden of Eden was the act of disobedience to God that caused the fall.
On the contrary, sex was established as the definition of marriage and the purpose of marriage by God. Its placement in the Genesis account of the creation of Eve pointedly explains the creation of the help mate for Adam that would be one with Adam. The explanation in Genesis 2:21-23 says,
“And the LORD God caused a deep sleep to fall upon Adam, and he slept: and he took one of his ribs, and closed up the flesh instead thereof; and the rib, which the LORD God had taken from man, made he a woman, and brought her unto the man. And Adam said, This is now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh: she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man.

This explains that the creation of woman from man demands their union. They were created from the same flesh to be the same flesh.
Many cults have sought to make this God given intimate attraction evil. Some as Paul warned Timothy in 1 Timothy 4:3, even forbid people to marry or engage in marital sex. This most certainly seems to be done in order to enslave people and must be (as Paul warned) the doctrine of devils as it is a direct violation of God’s purpose. However, in order to demonstrate His definition of marriage and expound on it, Jesus, the Christ, spoke on the subject of the divine institution, marriage.
When the Pharisees asked our Lord a controversial question on divorce, He not only quoted what He had said in Genesis, but, added commentary on the law and the provision of divorce. First consider His answer. He starts by defining marriage from His Word in Genesis. In Matthew 19:3-6, we read
“The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, ‘Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause?’ And he answered and said unto them,
‘Have ye not read, that He which made them at the beginning made them male and female, and said, ‘For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh’. Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh.’ What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.’ ”
So, first Jesus answers with the Word given in Genesis 2:25. He defines marriage from the Word. As Jesus is God, and is named as “The Word” in John 1:1, His explanation and interpretation of the Word given in the Old Testament is the ABSOLUTE basis for our understanding and interpretation of the Old Testament and law anywhere He explains it or quotes it. (Also, as John chapter 1 goes on to say that He created all things as He was in the beginning, one can fairly argue that the Word given in Genesis 2 was Jesus’ Word as He is the Word who created all things.) Therefore, marriage is defined by God as intimate union of a man and a woman. The statement of “They shall be one flesh” is established as the statement made by God and not a second statement by Adam. Jesus, the Christ, quotes “and they shall be one flesh” as the very statement of God and not man.
Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by biblebased: 6:12pm On May 06, 2013
cont:

At this point many who have been socialized by tradition and worldly concepts of marriage will be reeling at this discussion and possibly railing against it. Therefore, it is necessary to point out other scriptures that drive home the divine institution and reveal how God views the statement, "they shall be one flesh" as the part of marital tradition that God accepts as a marriage ceremony. The fact that God views the intimate union between a man and a woman as marriage is further 'shown in the law concerning intimate intercourse between virgins in Deuteronomy' 22:28,29
“If a man find a damsel that is a virgin, which is not betrothed, and lay hold on her, and lie with her, and they be found; then the man that lay with her shall give unto the damsel's father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife; because he hath humbled her, he may not put her away all his days.”
Thus, as they have had sex, they are already married in God's eyes they need to make a formal declaration and fulfillment of the marriage contract. In this way everyone knows, they are bound to each other. This concept is confirmed by our Lord in the passage quoted above from Matthew’s gospel 19:5,6. He says,
“And said ‘For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh’. Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh.’ What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.”
He indicates that God, Himself, joins the two as husband and wife when they unite sexually. This is NOT an interpretation of the Word. It is a direct quote of the Word of God. One must read what He said in Matthew again and again until it is written on their heart.
What a wonderful and upright society we would have in churches across the land if this truth about marriage were properly explained to young people. Abstinence teaching fails to stop intimate activity because it is NOT a divine concept. But, when we know that sex is marriage, it does give us a stronger answer to give when temptation to marry the wrong person arises. Because God recognizes the intimate union as marriage and even instructs us that man should not separate the couple, we know that we must refrain from intimate union with anyone that we do not want to marry
This concept of God actually nullifies the English concept of pre-marital sex. According to the Word there is no such thing as sex before marriage. There can be extra-marital sex (sex with someone other than one’s spouse), but, never any pre-marital sex. Paul references the spiritual nature of sex when he says in 1 Corinthians 6:15-20 ,
“Know ye not that your bodies are the members of Christ? shall I then take the members of Christ, and make them the members of a harlot? God forbid. What? know ye not that he which is joined to a harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh. But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit. Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that committeth fornication sinneth against his own body. What? Know ye not that your body is the temple of the Holy Ghost which is in you, which ye have of God, and ye are not your own? For ye are bought with a price: therefore glorify God in your body, and in your spirit, which are God's.”
Paul admonishes the people of intercourse with prostitutes. He demonstrates how God views "couples that' have had intimate intercourse using the same statement of God from Genesis 2. He says that they, the Christian and the prostitute, are unified in the divine concept of marriage and are looked on as man and wife in the sight of God. This is the reason that Paul warns the people of illicit intimate relationships. These relationships undermine God’s system of marriage.
Paul also expounds on the spiritual-physical nature of the divine marriage of a couple after intimate intercourse in 1 Corinthians 7:14,
“For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they holy.”
Paul explains that in an illicit relationship the Just are defiled by the unjust, but in a marital relationship the unjust are united with a member of the body of Christ and are set apart. Thus the spiritual-physical bond of intimate intercourse is fully revealed.
Before going on to a full discussion of our Lord’s commandments on divorce, we must look at the definition of fornication because many trying to evade the direct commandments and warnings of God try to hide behind the word. As there is a difference in the Hebrew word for adultery and the Greek word for adultery and we are referring to scriptures in the Old Testament Hebrew and the New Testament Greek, there are two words used for the same meaning in two different languages. Therefore, we will enter into a brief discussion of its etymology.

Fornication is the English equivalent of the Greek PORNEIA, πορνειαν, which comes from the Greek root, PORNE 1(prostitute), and would in its purest Greek form refer to intimate intercourse with a prostitute or prostitution. However, it is used as a complete word covering a multitude of intimate acts and uncleanness. Figuratively, it may be applied to spiritual adultery towards God. We employ the Greek root PORNE in English in such words as 'Indecency' as the nonspecific root for all forms of intimate promiscuity and eroticism. This usage transcends all levels of intimate illicitness. This concept of PORNEIA comes from the Greek use of the word as a general term for all forms of intimate illicitness and lewdness. This is why the English translators dutifully translated it to the English word fornication which has the same open use as a “catch all” term. Webster’s Dictionary defines fornication to include every extra-marital sex act including Inbreeding. This shows its universal meaning as any intimate act outside of the sanctity of marriage with the obvious negative denotation as intimate impropriety.
The reason for this discussion is that when Jesus, the Christ, condemned adultery and other extra-marital acts, He used the catch all term PORNEIA which properly translates tofornication when He is speaking generally and adultery when He is speaking specifically. We know that adultery is the proper translation of PORNEIA when our Lord references sex between a married person and any person other than their spouse because adultery is the only classification of sex outside of a marriage. By definition, if a married person commits any intimate act with any person other than their spouse, it is adultery. This applies to such cases as that of the ex-president of the United States, Bill Clinton. His intimate act was by definition adultery whether it included intercourse or not. The specificity of adultery is its delineation of who the intimate act includes (non-spouse), NOT what intimate activity occurred.
Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by biblebased: 6:15pm On May 06, 2013
This proper translation removes any loop hole that has been used by pastors teaching in err in the past. Some have taught that women cannot divorce a man for his adulterous acts. Some have taught that the first person one has sex with is NOT their spouse. Both are contrary to the scriptures that we have reviewed thus far. Now that we have established a couple myths and cleared up the meaning of fornication and adultery, let us address the issue of improper sex, extra-marital sex.
As marriage is defined as a man and a woman uniting sexually, there is no such thing as pre-marital sex. The worldly construct of pre-marital sex is a convenient way for sinful man to illegally divorce himself (pun definitely intended) from his first intimate union’s Biblical-spiritual obligations. Therefore, the only true intimate sin is that of extra-marital sex, sex with anyone outside of your marriage. We also call this adultery. Unfortunately, as we as Christians have allowed the government to get involved in marriage (people need laws on divorce so they can circumvent the divine law and get simple divorces free of divine interference), the definition of marriage has gone from being a divinely instituted intimate-spiritual union to that of a legal contract between two people. Therefore, much of the intimate impropriety in the world goes unacknowledged or improperly defined as pre-marital.
The problem with this construct of pre-marital sex is that it eliminates God’s law of marriage by trying to separate sex from marriage. This problem is a struggle between man’s rebellious sinful desires and God’s commandments on sex. Man wants to have his free sex and then settle into his legal sex. This is totally extra-Biblical. The Bible does not provide man with sin or justify man’s sin! The only provision for man’s sin in the Bible is the mercy of God through the death of His Son, Jesus. The reason that so many people have so many problems related to sex is that man wants his sin and his life. You CANNOT have both for “the wages of sin is death” (Romans 6:23).
If the Christians would teach marriage as does the Bible, many problems could be avoided. Unfortunately, weak Christians and fallen Christians have given in to the world’s sinful definitions in order to satisfy their own lusts. Instead of impacting the world with the truth of the Bible, they have perverted the true Biblical doctrine of marriage within the church to serve their own ends. The modern church must repent this sin and return to God’s Will and commandments on marriage. If they do, God will heal their hearts, their homes and their lands.
The Word of God does provide an answer for man’s sin in regard to marriage. The Ten Commandments which provide God’s moral law and give us an understanding of His Heart and Will, specifically forbad adultery (Exodus 20:14). Further answer was given when God ordained a bill of divorcement in Deuteronomy 24:1-4,
“When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favor in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house. And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man's wife. And if the latter husband hate her, and write her a bill of divorcement, and giveth it in her hand, and sendeth her out of his house; or if the latter husband die, which took her to be his wife; her former husband, which sent her away, may not take her again to be his wife, after that she is defiled; for that is abomination before the LORD: and thou shalt not cause the land to sin, which the LORD thy God giveth thee for an inheritance.”
This passage provides several rules about marriage, divorce and remarriage. It gives us amazing insight into God’s Will for marriage and His rulings on what should be done after a spouse commits adultery.
Now the reader is asking, “Where do you see adultery in this passage?” Granted on first examination it would appear that this passage is very open to interpretation and makes allowance for divorce on almost any grounds. However, let God interpret it for us UNEQUIVICALLY. Examine again the answer of our Lord to the Pharisees that tempted Him in Matthew 19:3-9,
“The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, ‘Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause?’ And he answered and said unto them,
Have ye not read, that He which made them at the beginning made them male and female, and said, ‘For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh’. Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh.’ What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.’
They say unto him, ‘Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?’ He saith unto them, ‘Moses because of the hardness of your heartssuffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so. And I say unto you, whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marryanother, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.’ ”

Not only does our Lord explain why the bill of divorce was given, but, He expounds on the purpose of divorce. He also repeats the very context, continuity and fullness of Deuteronomy 24:2.
The Pharisees that came to the Christ to tempt Him were most likely of the school of Hillel who taught that the “uncleanness” in Deuteronomy included physical imperfections or bad temper found in the wife. However, Jesus, the Word, specifically explains that divorce on any grounds other than adultery is not His commandment and He makes no allowance for such grounds other than adultery. He goes on to expound on Deuteronomy by stating that a man who marries another woman after improperly divorcing his wife commits adultery. There is NO equivocation here. Jesus, the son of the Living God, the Word made flesh, God Almighty, left no neutral ground. There is only one allowance for divorce given by God. One must come to terms with the commandment given here.
Not only is what the Son of God said given to the Christian, but, it was also the very Word of God given to the Jewish adherent to the law. It was the explanation of the law given by God. We can make a spiritual assumption based on the spiritual mystery of marriage here. Marriage is the symbol of the relationship between the child of God and God. Revelations described the church, the believers, as the “Bride of Christ”. The Old Testament describes the children of God as espoused to Him. It warns them of spiritual fornication, idolatry. Yet, the children of God turned away over and over to idolatry and committed spiritual adultery against God. Yet, time and time again, God forgave this adultery and remained in the relationship with them as long as they would repent. He NEVER turned Israel out to another husband. The assumption is that ultimately, God expects that the adulterous party repent and be forgiven. However, as people are not divine and cannot have the limitless Grace of God, they are allowed to end a marriage and move on with their lives.
Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by biblebased: 6:16pm On May 06, 2013
This brings one to the question, “How is adultery so destructive that it is a reason for divorce?” Well, that point is quite simple. As spiritual idolatry is having a relationship with another, false god, intimate unfaithfulness is entering into a type relationship that is exclusive to the marriage relationship. That is, as sex constitutes the divinely acknowledged marriage relationship, sex with another partner enters into an illicit marital relationship with an outside party. This effectively ends the exclusive definition of “they shall be one flesh.” There is no provision for “they three will be one flesh” or any such like. This does condemn the historical practices of marriage traditions in the Old Testament.
However, as God incarnate, Jesus, explained the way that He ordained marriage, that command supersedes tradition and history. The mistakes or sins of the early Israelites do not create a traditional loophole for any type of marriage that does not conform to the exact definition given by God Incarnate, when He addresses the issue directly. The mere fact that that explanation is provided three separate places and times by God alone (we are not counting Paul’s multiple references to this definition just God’s), points out its importance and solidity. Jesus, the Christ, even pointed out that Moses allowances were things that God tolerated for Moses’ sake but were not His Will. In Mark’s account of the same tempting of our Lord by the Pharisees, he gives even more details of His answer.
“And the Pharisees came to him, and asked him, ‘Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife?’ tempting him. And he answered and said unto them, ‘What did Moses commandyou?’ And they said, ‘Moses suffered to write a bill of divorcement, and to put her away.’ And Jesus answered and said unto them, ‘For the hardness of your heart he wroteyou this precept. But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female.’ ” Mark 10:2-6
The Lord explained that while an allowance was made, it was actually made by Moses, not Him. He, then, goes on to reiterate that His original definition was immutable and unchanged. He expected one man and one woman to be one flesh. He could not be more clear in His speech. One finds often that our Lord answered the scoffers in His day as well as the arguments made by “modern” scoffers who would now argue against His direct commandments. He answers once and for all that the only ground is the only ground that He will accept and that if a man violates this ordinance and puts away his wife for any other reason taking a new wife, he is commiting adultery.
This points to the nature of the spiritual-intimate nature of the marriage union, indicating that the intimate union of man and wife lasts to the grave. If there is only one ground for divorce then logically marriage is for life. The reinforcement of this doctrine is found in Paul’s letters. Paul not only expounds on issues of marriage law, but, also reveals more about the mystery of the church’s marital relationship to Christ. Paul delineates the length of the marriage contract in 1 Corinthians 7:39,
“The wife is bound by the law as long as her husband liveth; but if her husband be dead, she is at liberty to be married to whom she will; only in the Lord.”
In this passage, Paul is teaching directly on whether one should or should not marry. He is also explaining the right of a widow or widower to remarry. It is indisputable, direct teaching of the doctrine of marriage.
Paul also repeats this teaching in Roman 7:2-3, where he uses marriage as an example to dying to the law to live in the Spirit. He says of marriage,
“For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband. So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man.”
There is no mistake on the teaching. There is complete continuity with the teachings given by God in Genesis and the Lord, Jesus, in the New Testament. He demonstrates the doctrine using the law showing there is no disparity of doctrine.
From these teachings of Paul we have a reiteration showing that marriage is a lifelong commitment. We see another reference to the fact that anyone marrying (having sex with one other than their spouse) is committing adultery. And, we have the provision that as in the case of adultery, a widow may take a new spouse upon the end of their marriage.
Paul gave eleven admonishes against fornication. He even went so far as to explain why fornication is so abhorrent to God and why it should not be named among the saints. In his explanation he reveals a powerful mystery as to the spiritual nature of sex. In 1 Corinthians 6:15-20, he is dealing with Christians that were caught up in horrendous adultery which violated the Old Testament commandment that a man could not take his step mother as a wife. He wrote,
“Know ye not that your bodies are the members of Christ? Shall I then take the members of Christ, and make them the members of a harlot? God forbid. What? Know ye not that he which is joined to a harlot is one body? For two, saith he, shall be one flesh. But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit. Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that committeth fornication sinneth against his own body. What? Know ye not that your body is the temple of the Holy Ghost which is in you, which ye have of God, and ye are not your own? For ye are bought with a price: therefore glorify God in your body, and in your spirit, which are God's.”
Here Paul reveals that intimate intercourse is a spiritual act not just a physical one. It is such an act that it unites one spiritually with the other person. He elaborates on this subject in the same book, 7:14-16.
“For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they holy. But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace. For what knowest thou, O wife, whether thou shalt save thy husband? Or how knowest thou, O man, whether thou shalt save thy wife?
Here Paul explains that an unsaved spouse (and their children) is sanctified to God by intimate union with the Christian spouse. This is quite a powerful statement. He further exhorts a Christian to strive in faithful patient for the salvation of the unbelieving partner. Therein, Paul explains the only other provision in the Word for divorce. He says that as the unbelieving partner is dead in their sins, if they depart and do not return, the Christian spouse is no longer bound to them in marriage.
In this chapter prior to these verses, Paul commented again reinforcing God’s stand on marriage and divorce (notably verses 10 and 11).
“And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, ‘Let not the wife depart from her husband: but and if she depart, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to herhusband: and let not the husband put away his wife.’ ”
There is absolute continuity and unity of doctrine on marriage given us by God in His Word. He provides ample direct commands and explanations of the same throughout the Bible. All the major sources (God the Father, God the Son, Moses, and Paul) give the same consensus (with the exception of Moses whom the Lord corrected). All point to marriage as
1. An institution ordained by God, Himself.
2. Defined as one woman having intimate intercourse with one man becoming one flesh.
3. A spiritual mystery relationship between the couple.
4. A relationship that lasts until death.
5. A union that is defiled and broken by adultery.
6. A union that can only be put aside in the case of physical or spiritual adultery.
7. A joining of two individuals by God that should not be separated by man.
We also see those constructs and doctrines of men which cannot fit into the marriage doctrine given by God. The institution of marriage given by God shows that
1. Sex is neither evil nor brought about the fall. It was given by God as the establishment of a marriage.
2. All sex is either marriage or adultery. Therefore, there is no such thing as “pre-marital” sex.
3. People cannot be “doubly” married. They are either remarried according to God’s provisions or they are caught up in adultery.
4. Divorce is not granted on the grounds of incompatibility, falling out of love or any reason other than physical or spiritual adultery. Therefore, Christians divorcing without Biblical cause are sinning against God.
5. Christians who properly divorce a spouse can remarry another Christian without condemnation.
6. No Christian or sinner can be condemned for remarrying after the death of their spouse as there is no marriage after death.
7. Marriage cannot be between members of the same sex or between more than two people.
As God ordained and defined marriage in the beginning of His Word, all those who disagree with this construct, disagree with God, Almighty. In a day of New Age serving of the lust of the flesh, many endeavor to redefine marriage to suit their own lusts. Such are absolute heresies. Homosexual relationships seeking religious acceptance and validation attempt to pervert the entirety of the Bible. Divorce for incompatibility is destroying the church and the nuclear family. Unfortunately, we see a time where no one seems capable of keeping their word or accepting the clear revelation and commandments of God. Of such our Savior spoke,
“For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved. He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believethnot is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God. And this is the condemnation, that light is come into the world, and menloved darkness rather than light, because their deeds were evil. For every one that doeth evil hateth the light, neither cometh to the light, lest his deeds should be reproved. Buthe that doeth truth cometh to the light, that his deeds may be made manifest, that they are wrought in God.” John 3:17-21
Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by Jenpoet(f): 12:26pm On May 19, 2013
This might help:


There is no Hebrew or Greek word
used in the Bible that precisely refers to sex
before marriage. The Bible undeniably
condemns adultery and intimate immorality, but
is sex before marriage considered sexually
immoral? According to 1 Corinthians 7:2 , “yes”
is the clear answer: “But since there is so much
immorality, each man should have his own
wife, and each woman her own husband.” In
this verse, Paul states that marriage is the
“cure” for intimate immorality. First Corinthians
7:2 is essentially saying that, because people
cannot control themselves and so many are
having immoral sex outside of marriage, people
should get married. Then they can fulfill their
passions in a moral way.
Since 1 Corinthians 7:2 clearly includes sex
before marriage in the definition of intimate
immorality, all of the Bible verses that
condemn intimate immorality as being sinful also
condemn sex before marriage as sinful. Sex
before marriage is included in the biblical
definition of intimate immorality. There are
numerous Scriptures that declare sex before
marriage to be a sin ( Acts 15:20; 1 Corinthians
5:1 ; 6:13 , 18; 10:8 ; 2 Corinthians 12:21 ;
Galatians 5:19 ; Ephesians 5:3 ; Colossians 3:5 ; 1
Thessalonians 4:3 ; Jude 7). The Bible promotes
complete abstinence before marriage. Sex
between a husband and his wife is the only
form of intimate relations of which God approves
(Hebrews 13:4 ).
Far too often we focus on the “recreation”
aspect of sex without recognizing that there is
another aspect—procreation. Sex within
marriage is pleasurable, and God designed it
that way. God wants men and women to enjoy
intimate activity within the confines of marriage.
Song of Solomon and several other Bible
passages (such as Proverbs 5:19 ) clearly
describe the pleasure of sex. However, the
couple must understand that God’s intent for
sex includes producing children. Thus, for a
couple to engage in sex before marriage is
doubly wrong—they are enjoying pleasures not
intended for them, and they are taking a
chance of creating a human life outside of the
family structure God intended for every child.
While practicality does not determine right from
wrong, if the Bible's message on sex before
marriage were obeyed, there would be far
fewer sexually transmitted diseases, far fewer
abortions, far fewer unwed mothers and
unwanted pregnancies, and far fewer children
growing up without both parents in their lives.
Abstinence is God’s only policy when it comes
to sex before marriage. Abstinence saves lives,
protects babies, gives intimate relations the
proper value, and, most importantly, honors
God.
www.gotquestions.org/sex-before-marriage.html
xxxx


Do you not know that the wicked will not
inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be
deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor
idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes
nor homosexual offenders nor thieves nor
the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers
nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of
God. – 1 Corinthians 6:9-10
Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by inkaboutit4u(m): 10:18pm On May 25, 2013
"Single Sex" is NOT Fornication.

Clearly NOT!!! The Bible defines the word correctly, Dictionary does NOT. Most others do NOT. They Base it on Wrong "traditions of Men".


Dictionaries explain only how people use or misuse a word at the time. It is based on the “tradition of men”. Sometimes right, and sometimes wrong. In this case it is wrong and misused and taken out of context with the whole Bible. The Bible itself defines the word Fornication correctly, the Dictionary does not. Compare 1 Cor 10:8 to Num 25: 1-9.

http://Inkaboutit4u.com
Fornication Definition Expose Wrong Definition
Expose Wrong Sex Teaching With URLs

Compare 1 Cor 10:8 to Num 25: 1-9, This clearly shows that fornication is NOT just merely “single sex” or “sex outside of “one man, one woman” marriage, but it is a lot more serious, it is a major violation of the most important first command.

Fornication is using your God given sex freedom, which God gave to all creation at creation, including humans, but NOT to worship a pagan fertility god. One of the Baal pagan gods which was worshiped all over the place in all Bible times as a major pagan religion, during all the Bible times, both OT and NT.
God is Very Pro Unclad Pro Sex I Prove It

http://Inkaboutit4u.com God is Very Pro Sex Pro Polygamy


In the worship of this fertility pagan god they would have a sex Fun to worship the pagan fertility god and they would be promised blessings from this pagan fertility god of good farm crops and lots of fertile animals giving them a lot more livestock.
Also, they themselves would also be fertile.

Also, if they got pregnant because of this sex Fun worship, and then offer that baby as a living sacrifice to this Baal fertility pagan god, they would get even more promise blessings. These Blessings would make them a lot more money.

In Corinth, Christian men, were using there God given intimate freedom, but Paul is reminding them that this God given intimate freedom is not to be used to join in with the pagans to worship their pagan fertility god, which God, got very angry when they did the same thing in the OT, in Num 25:1-9, and God had 23,000 to 24,000 killed. Because this was a very serious violation of the first commandment, “ NOT to worship any other gods other then the one creator God.’

Through out the whole Bible you see this worship of this Baal fertility god worship. Both OT and NT. Where ever the Jewish Hebrews went, all their neighbors worship this pagan fertility god. Very popular pagan fertility god. This was one of many Baal gods. Different places would call them by different names.

Remember that we are missing the letter written to Paul explaining all the detail of what is going on. We only have the return letter from Paul to the Corinth without the details of the problem.

In Corinth Paul makes a suggestion that because there are over 2000 pagan fertility temple prostitutes seducing men and women to come join them in their pagan fertility worship Fun, that the Christian single men and women just get married to help avoid the temptation to join in the pagan fertility sex SinParties worship and that both husband and wife means all the intimate need of each other daily to avoid temptation to join in the pagan fertility god Fun worship. As they did in Num 25: 1-9 and many other places in the Bible.

http://Inkaboutit4u.com

Expose Wrong Sex Teaching With URLs
Fornication or intimate Immorality is NOT Single Sex
Adultery Definition Expose Wrong Definition

Adultery Women Caught in Adultery

Affairs Good or Bad
Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by inkaboutit4u(m): 3:02am On May 26, 2013
Pre-marital sex is NOT fornication.

What Fornication is NOT,
What Adultery is NOT.

http://inkaboutit4u.com/?p=Fornication_Definition_Expose_Wrong_Definition
http://inkaboutit4u.com/?p=Fornication_Defined_by_Paul_Sides
http://inkaboutit4u.com/?p=Adultery_Definition_Expose_Wrong_Definition

God gave all creation sex freedom at creation to all creation including humans.

http://inkaboutit4u.com/?p=God_is_Very_Pro_Nudity_Pro_Sex_I_Prove_It
http://inkaboutit4u.com/?p=What_Fornication_is_NOT_What_Adultery_is_NOT

Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is NOT Fornication by BenSays: 7:30pm On Nov 24, 2009

Exodus 22:16-17

16 "If a man seduces a virgin who is NOT pledged to be married and sleeps with her, he must pay the bride-price, and she shall be his wife. 17 If her father absolutely refuses to give her to him, he must still pay the bride-price for virgins."

Inkaboutit4u.com reply:

This clearly shows he is NOT called a fornicator here at all. The least he has to do is pay the “bride price”. The most is to pay the bride price and marry her. He could marry her and many others if he wanted.
But this would be a violation of the father’s authority over his daughter. A man Should NOT have sex with any women under the father’s authority unless the father gives permission.


Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is NOT Fornication by BenSays: 7:30pm On Nov 24, 2009

“Fornication is defined as sex between two unmarried persons. This definition is from an ordinary everyday dictionary so most definitely up for debate!”

Inkaboutit4u.com reply:

The Dictionary is man made and only reflexes how people are using the word. This is based on wrong, “tradition of men” teaching. Dictionary has the wrong definition. The Bible itself defines the word fornication correctly, compare 1 Cor 10:8 and Nu 25:1-9.

Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is NOT Fornication by BenSays: 7:30pm On Nov 24, 2009
“Promiscuous sex without intention to marry is definitely identified as a sin in the Bible.”

Inkaboutit4u.com reply:

NOT true.

Samson

had sex with a prostitute (probably many times, nothing wrong with it) and it was NOT Fornication, NOT a sin. Sex with a non pagan worshiping prostitute was NOT fornication and NOT a sin. .

But today per the wrong , misused man made dictionary definition he would have had adultery many times and fornication many times Because, they are using the wrong definitions for fornication and adultery.

Samson was full of the Holy Spirit before and after he had unprotected sex with a non-temple prostitute. The Holy Spirit left him after he disobeyed God by cutting his long hair. His problem was NOT sex but marrying an enemy, ungodly idol worshipping women and letting her cut his hair.

Judges 16:1 NLT “One day Samson went to the Philistine city of Gaza and spent the night with a prostitute.”

Judah

had sex and a baby with a prostitute (his daughter in law) and that was NOT a sin at all. NOT fornication, NOT adultery.
But today, per the wrong , misused dictionary definition Judah would have had done fornication. But he did NOT. Because, they are using the wrong definitions for fornication and adultery.

Judah had regular unprotected sex with prostitutes. He did NOT think it was a sin. He feels he did sin by NOT giving Tamara to his third son to have sex with her.

http://inkaboutit4u.com/?p=Sexual_Freedoms_From_Bible_Examples

King David

had sex with many women, (over 25), outside the “one man, one women” marriage and it was NOT fornication and NOT a sin and NOT adultery, accept the one time and only one time he did do adultery, having sex with another man’s wife with that man’s permission.

But today per the wrong , misused dictionary definition King David would have had adultery over 25 times and fornication over 25 times, but neither is true. Because, they are using the wrong definitions for fornication and adultery.

2 Samuel 12:8 NLT I gave you his house and his wives and the kingdoms of Israel and Judah. And if that had NOT been enough, I would have given you much, much more. (unlimited sex partners over a life time give to all creation at creation.)

So per 2 sam 12:8 God disagrees with the wrong man made definition of Fornication and Adultery. This shows they have the wrong definitions.

http://inkaboutit4u.com/?p=God_is_Very_Pro_Sex_Pro_Polygamy
http://inkaboutit4u.com/?p=Polygamy_Bible_King_David_King_Solomon

King Solomon

had sex outside the “one man, one women” marriage with over 1000 women. This was NOT fornication and NOT adultery and NOT a sin. But today per the dictionary definition he would have had adultery 1000 times and fornication 1000 time but neither is true. Because, they are using the wrong definitions for fornication and adultery.

Song of Solomon 6:8 BBE There are sixty queens, and eighty servant-wives, and young girls without number. (unlimited sex partners over a life time give to all creation at creation.)

So per SOS 6:8 God disagrees with the wrong man made definition of Fornication and Adultery. This shows they have the wrong definitions.

http://inkaboutit4u.com/?p=God_is_Very_Pro_Sex_Pro_Polygamy
http://inkaboutit4u.com/?p=Polygamy_Bible_King_David_King_Solomon

Abraham

would be put in jail and kicked out of church and divorce 4-5 times for having sex with at least 4 concubines and a handmaiden. Outside the “one man, one women” marriage Also he married his sister, Inbreeding, (NOT a sin) and in marriage gave his wife to 2 different Kings so they could sex with her. This was NOT fornication. NOT adultery.

But today per the wrong , misused dictionary definition, Jacob, would have had adultery many times and fornication many times, Because, they are using the wrong definitions for fornication and adultery. Also with the wrong definition, it would have forced Jacob to divorce many times and force him NOT to be polygamy (NOT a sin) and put him in Jail. Put him in Jail for Inbreeding.

Jacob

had sex with another women (NOT the women he married) on his wedding night and a week later got his wife so he had sex with two women and those 2 wives gave their single unmarried handmaidens to him to have sex with them. NOT fornication and NOT adultery. One time the first wife paid the second wife so she could have a turn to have sex with Jacob. He did NOT sin at all. NOT fornication and NOT adultery.

But today per the wrong , misused dictionary definitions, Jacob, would have had adultery many times and fornication many times, Because, they are using the wrong definitions for fornication and adultery. Also with the wrong definition it would have force Jacob to divorce many times and force him NOT to be polygamist and put him in Jail.

Ruth

basic jumped in bed with Boaz. After she spend the night in his bed with him he decide he wanted to marry her. This was NOT fornication and NO sin at all. . But today per the wrong , misused dictionary definition Ruth would have had fornication, Because, they are using the wrong definitions for fornication.

Boaz had sex with Ruth before marriage. NOT a sin. NOT fornication. But today per the wrong , misused dictionary definition, Jacob, would have had fornication, Because, they are using the wrong definitions for fornication.

Matthew 1:5 NLT
Salmon was the father of Boaz (his mother was Rahab). Boaz was the father of Obed (his mother was Ruth). Obed was the father of Jesse.

Rahab

was a prostitute and had sex many times with many men including the 2 spies and this was NOT fornication. She is in the Heb. 11 Faith Hall of Fame. But today, per the wrong , misused dictionary definition Rahab would have had adultery many times and fornication many times. Because, they are using the wrong definitions for fornication and adultery.

The two spies

spend days at the prostitutes house Rahab , and many church people probably think they only were talking to her for days, but Jewish people would know they would have enjoy her sexually and she liked them so much she saved their lives and the 2 spies liked her so much they saved her whole family. They were NOT hung up sexually, they just enjoyed themselves. Of course, today, they would go to jail and maybe kicked out of the church and maybe divorced, if they had wives.

But today per the wrong , misused dictionary definition the 2 spies would have had and fornication many times, Because, they are using the wrong definitions for fornication and adultery.

Joshua 2:1 NLT
Then Joshua secretly sent out two spies from the Israelite camp at Acacia. He instructed them, "Spy out the land on the other side of the Jordan River, especially around Jericho." So the two men set out and came to the house of a prostitute named Rahab and stayed there that night.

Joshua 6:17 NLT
The city and everything in it must be completely destroyed as an offering to the LORD. Only Rahab the prostitute and the others in her house will be spared, for she protected our spies.

Joshua 6:25 NLT
So Joshua spared Rahab the prostitute and her relatives who were with her in the house, because she had hidden the spies Joshua sent to Jericho. And she lives among the Israelites to this day.

Hebrews 11:31 NLT
It was by faith that Rahab the prostitute did NOT die with all the others in her city who refused to obey God. For she had given a friendly welcome to the spies.

King's sexy Queen

head to show off her intimate beauty to the visiting men so they could admirer her sexy body. The queen was busy with her women's meeting and did NOT come, so she was dethroned as queen. Then, to find another new queen to take her place, they gathered up all the virgins and gave them all beauty treatments for a year, as well as prepare them for a night of sex play and great sex with the king. The King's enuches were castrated so they would NOT get the wives of the king pregnant. They would prepare and teach the virgins sexually how to please the king. The most beautiful and sexiest in bed with the king became the new queen.

Esther

won the position as the new queen. She won the beauty and sex contest. She was the sexiest women in bed with the king. Kings took great pride in showing off his beautiful sexy wives with little or no cloth, to other men that visited them.

Most all the Godly people of the OT would be kicked out of the local Church.

Esther

would have had great guilt trip put on her for be intimate trained by different men and for winning the sex contest. She was sexually trained by the king’s men. She would have had sex with them in the training. NOT a sin. NOT fornication. Because she won the sex contest, sex out side of marriage, (NOT fornication,) she later on became queen and later on, saved all the Jews from death. God designed it for her to win this sex contest. As a King queen she would have sex with anyone the King desired. (NOT adultery, NOT fornication.

But today per the wrong , misused dictionary definition, Esther, would have had fornication many times Because, they are using the wrong definitions for fornication.

Polygamy

was always popular when ever the Jews ruled over themselves. In the NT they were being ruled by the Romans and had to live under some Roman restrictions. But there were still polygamy in the NT and there is NOThing in the OT or the NT saying that it is wrong and a statement that God, himself, gave Dave all the wives he wanted. In the NT in one church the elders had to have just one wife because they were too busy taking care of the welfare program that they did NOT have time to take care of many wives and many children. It was NOT a sin, just a job requirement for that special job. Just another Bible verse taken out of context. .

But today per the wrong , misused dictionary definition all polygamists would have had adultery many times and fornication many times, Because, they are using the wrong definitions for fornication and adultery.

Adultery

against God was the worshipping of aNOTher "deity" and turning your back away from God. Fornication was the sexually using your body in the worship of another deity. The Cultic Temple prostitutes would seduce the men to come into the temple to worship a fertility god, deity and they would then get the promise of good farm crops. Some times, some would get pregnant and they give the human baby as a human sacrifice to the deity, god. (1Cor10:8 Num. 25:1-9). Adulterous nation is a nation that turned their backs on God. nothing to do with sexuality.

Adultery,

It was a sin against the man NOT God, a married women should NOT have unprotected sex with aNOTher man with out permission from her husband or master, because this may cause an offense to him or unprotected sex may cause a baby and could NOT keep the blood line or birth line clear. Genealogies were very important in the OT. Jealousy of the other man because maybe he would try to steal his wife away from him. Women were property owned by the master or owner. In the OT, masters did give wives to there servants for 7 years and if the servant got their freedom on the 7th year then the master would give the wife to someone else.

God is very pro-sex by being pro-polygamy

God creation build in instinct for 98% including humans, to have many sex partners. Most Godly men had sex with many women. King David the man after God’s own heart had 25 to 100 wives and God would have give him as many (unlimited) sex partner as he wanted.

2 Samuel 12:8
I gave your master's house to you, and your master's wives into your arms. I gave you the house of Israel and Judah. And if all this had been too little, I would have given you even more.

King David

only real sin was taking aNOTher man’s wife with out his permission. God gave David all his many wives and would have given him as many (unlimited) as he wanted.

King Solomon

had over 1000 wives and concubines and unlimited amount of virgin available to him. The bad thing he did was to let some of his pagan wives worship there pagan gods.

Song of Solomon 6:8There may be sixty wives, all queens, and eighty concubines and unnumbered virgins available to me.
God attitude is the same for today also.

When ever Hebrews rule over themselves they always had polygamy and legal non-cultic pagan temple prostitutes.

In the NT and other time they were ruled over by Non-Hebrews they had to follow ungodly rules. Both Pagan Egyptians and Pagan Roman did NOT want the Hebrews to populate too much in fear they would get too many and over power them. God is pro-polygamy because God wanted them to out number the pagans.

God made law that at times would force polygamy even if people did NOT want it. If they when to war and a man had 7 bothers and all 7 died in battle, then he would be forced into polygamy and marry all 7 wives.

Gen 38 That was God’s law. God is very pro-sex with many partners, pro-polygamy. By God’s creation and by God made laws. NOT adultery. NOT fornication.

In Ex 21:4 one boss man lets another servant man borrow one of his wives to have sex with as an employee benefit.
The first man always is the owner of the wife and the second man is never the owner of the master’s wife but has lots of sex with his wife, even it is ok to get the masters wife pregnant. But the owner of the his wife keeps both his wife and his wife’s children when the second man leaves the boss’s employment.

This is NOT Adultery nor any sin at all. NOT Fornication.

But today, per the wrong , misused dictionary definition, They would have had fornication many times, Because, they are using the wrong definitions for fornication and Adultery.

Exodus 21:3, 4
If he comes alone, he is to go free alone; but if he has a wife when he comes, she is to go with him. If his master gives him a wife and she bears him sons or daughters, the woman and her children shall belong to her master, and only the man shall go free.
Many Concubines was God’s reward to Hebrews that fight good in battle. The more wives you had the greater honor.
God reward both soldiers and priests with concubines or many sex partners. God’s reward. God is pro-sex with many sex partners as a reward from God.
Numbers 31:25 The Lord said to Moses, 26 "You and Eleazar the priest and the family heads of the community are to count all the women and animals that were captured. 27 Divide the spoils equally between the soldiers who took part in the battle and the rest of the community. 28 From the soldiers who fought in the battle,….. 31 So Moses and Eleazar the priest did as the Lord commanded Moses. 32 The plunder remaining from the spoils that the soldiers took was 675,000 sheep, 33 72,000 cattle, 34 61,000 donkeys 35 and 32,000 women who had never slept with a man. (they used sex to worship their pagan sex god. God wanted all women that did NOT worship the pagan sex god.)

NOT Fornication. NOT Adultery.

But today, per the wrong , misused dictionary definition, They would have had fornication many times, Because, they are using the wrong definitions for fornication and Adultery.

God attitude is same today.

Very pro-Unclothedness and very pro-sex. Many religious leaders take many Bible text out of proper context to mislead you about God’s attitude about Unclothedness and sexuality. The Bible can be taken out of context but God’s creation is very clear. God is very pro-Unclothedness and pro-sex proven by his creation and that is clear.

They take 1 Cor 6 & 7 out of the proper context. Paul is just suggesting that because the men are tempted to have sex with the pagan temple prostitutes they should have at least one wive to help meet their intimate needs instead of being tempted to join in worshipping the fertility sex page god with the pagan prostitutes. Men had intimate freedom in both OT and NT to have sex with single girls, but NOT to join them in sex SinParties to worship their pagan sex gods. Compare Number 25: 1-9 and 1Cor 10:8. It is NOT against man intimate freedom but against join sex worship with pagan prostitutes (there was over 2000 pagan prostitutes in Corinth alone.)

1 Cor 10:8
Neither let us commit fornication, as some of them committed, and fell in one day three and twenty thousand.
Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by flourishG(m): 5:46am On May 26, 2013
^ Don't let the holier than thous catch you with the above. They once almost crucified a brother on dis same topic few months again.
Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by Peterayuba(m): 10:23pm On Jul 28, 2013
Pre-marital sex is a sin,why and how?.simple.first the word pre-marital sex means sex befor marriage which is group under fornication. Second God in his word(holy bible) condem it both in the time of law and the time of grace(mathew 5:27-28,mark 7:21-23,roman 1:29-32,1corithians 6:9).so don't be deceive by any man or woman, God cannot be mock, your body is the temple of God.even if you want to marry an individual,wait patiently till after getting married,REMEMBER MARRIAGE IS HONORABLE IN ALL,AND BED UNDEFILED:BUT WHOREMOMGERS(FORNICATORS) AND ADULTERES GOD WILL JUDGE.(hebrew 13:4). For contact-08171686843
Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by ARareGem(f): 11:27pm On Oct 31, 2013
...
Re: Pre-Marital Sex Is Not Fornication by tpia5: 3:55am On Nov 01, 2013
people doing it doesnt really make it right.

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