Now this is just some mental jogging and its not meant to undermine any belief. Just analysis. So dont come here with d atheist what not! I was comparing the bible verse of Romans 6:23 to the death and resurrection of Jesus. According to the verse, the wages of sin is Death.....etc. Now we are told death in dis sense connotes eternal damnation in Hell. We are also made to understand that on d cross, Jesus bore the sins of humanity, and in the process, he became so sinful that God had to turn his face away. That ain't trivial! So I ask, what happened to those sins between death and resurrection? How come He ended up @the right hand of God? The supreme penalty is eternal punishment in Hell for the sinners. So if He bore our sins, how did He escape our punishments? Who washed his own sins and with what? Your opinions please.

Understand it like this:

The Law of GOD was broken. That Law is as sacred as GOD Himself, and only the life of GOD can atone for the transgression of that Law. Jesus, who is GOD(Heb. 1:8 ), took on flesh, because in His Divine state nothing could take His life. As a righteous human being, He gave up His life, agreeing to bear upon Himself the penalty of the transgression of the Law which the people of GOD, by faith, transferred to Him.

Jesus, the righteous, sinless man was resurrected because Satan killed Him unjustly. The wages of sin is death, but what of the one who committed no sin? Should the result of sin apply to Him too? NO. To Adam was given the the promise of eternal life if he lived in obedience to GOD. The Second Adam has obtained eternal life because He lived in obedience to GOD.

GOD(Jesus) indeed gave up His life. Before His incarnation, He didn't have the body He now has. Jesus will now live forever in a body that bears the marks of the cruel nails, as testimony of His Love.

DoctorAlien:
Understand it like this:

The Law of GOD was broken. That Law is as sacred as GOD Himself, and only the life of GOD can atone for the transgression of that Law. Jesus, who is GOD(Heb. 1:8 ), took on flesh, because in His Divine state nothing could take His life. As a righteous human being, He gave up His life, agreeing to bear upon Himself the penalty of the transgression of the Law which the people of GOD, by faith, transferred to Him.

Jesus, the righteous, sinless man was resurrected because Satan killed Him unjustly. The wages of sin is death, but what of the one who committed no sin? Should the result of sin apply to Him too? NO. To Adam was given the the promise of eternal life if he lived in obedience to GOD. The Second Adam has obtained eternal life because He lived in obedience to GOD.

GOD(Jesus) indeed gave up His life. Before His incarnation, He didn't have the body He now has. Jesus will now live forever in a body that bears the marks of the cruel nails, as testimony of His Love.

That's a good one... But then, if he ressurected because Satan killed him unjustly, how would his dying be an atonement for the one who was actually guilty? Also, the death on the cross was the first death, while the penalty for sin is what we know today as d second death. Jesus also did not die as God per say, he died as man, shedding Blood and water.

princeSammyz:
That's a good one... But then, if he ressurected because Satan killed him unjustly, how would his dying be an atonement for the one who was actually guilty? Also, the death on the cross was the first death, while the penalty for sin is what we know today as d second death. Jesus also did not die as God per say, he died as man, shedding Blood and water.

Mind you, even the first death was the wage of sin. Jesus knew that when He comes to this earth, He will be killed. But then He accepted the plan that his death will be the atonement for sin(trangression of the law). He could have died, and yet His life would not be an atonement for the sins of man, you know. He had His father place the weight and the penalty for sin on Him as He hung on the cross, and that crushed out His life within three hours(crucified criminals normally stay up to a week on the cross.) In His pre-incarnation state, He could not die. That was why He had to take on flesh.

DoctorAlien:


Mind you, even the first death was the wage of sin. Jesus knew that when He comes to this earth, He will be killed. But then He accepted the plan that his death will be the atonement for sin(trangression of the law). He could have died, and yet His life would not be an atonement for the sins of man, you know. He had His father place the weight and the penalty for sin on Him as He hung on the cross, and that crushed out His life within three hours(crucified criminals normally stay up to a week on the cross.) In His pre-incarnation state, He could not die. That was why He had to take on flesh.

Its like am engaging an authority or student of theology here @DocAlien. Lol.. But here is my confusion: he had the father put the weight of sin on him according to U; at that point he became sin, and d people became free. He was buried as d sin bearer, then after three days the same God dt turned his face away from sin rose him up from d dead as righteous. Both the guilty and d sacrificial lamb (ransom) stand free. Like there is a missing link to me

princeSammyz:
Its like am engaging an authority or student of theology here @DocAlien. Lol.. But here is my confusion: he had the father put the weight of sin on him according to U; at that point he became sin, and d people became free. He was buried as d sin bearer, then after three days the same God dt turned his face away from sin rose him up from d dead as righteous. Both the guilty and d sacrificial lamb (ransom) stand free. Like there is a missing link to me

Well, the contentious clause in your post is "He was buried as the sin bearer" which is not true. Understand that His life as GOD is the ransom. Though sinless, He was dealt with as if He was a collection of all the sinners. Immediately His life was snuffed out, the demands of the Law was met. Indeed, He proclaimed "It is finished" before He died. He was resurrected because He was sinless. He gave up His glorious pre-incarnate life, and now lives, not in His pre-incarnate state, but with a body(Heb. 10:5).

DoctorAlien:


Well, the contentious clause in your post is "He was buried as the sin bearer" which is not true. Understand that His life as GOD is the ransom. Though sinless, He was dealt with as if He was a collection of all the sinners. Immediately His life was snuffed out, the demands of the Law was met. Indeed, He proclaimed "It is finished" before He died. He was resurrected because He was sinless. He gave up His glorious pre-incarnate life, and now lives, not in His pre-incarnate state, but with a body(Heb. 10:5).

If the life was the prize required to fulfil the requirement of d law, resurrection would mean re-breaching the law. Its like the tradition of placing all sins on a lamb and letting it go, and then going behind to get it again. Also, if giving up the pre-incarnate state was d prize, then death was not necessary.

princeSammyz:
If the life was the prize required to fulfil the requirement of d law, resurrection would mean re-breaching the law. Its like the tradition of placing all sins on a lamb and letting it go, and then going behind to get it again. Also, if giving up the pre-incarnate state was d prize, then death was not necessary.

You can understand it as His life as the pre-incarnate Lawgiver. The Law has stated a treatment to be meted out to its transgressor(which is death). Only two entities can receive this treatment: the sinner or the Lawgiver in place of the sinner. The treatment was meted out to Jesus(the Lawgiver). But then Jesus died without committing any sin. Therefore GOD raised Him from the dead. Indeed the glorious, pre-incarnate Son of GOD, who is GOD, died, and what we have now is Jesus Christ our Lord, who will exist forever now in His glorious body, bearing the marks of the nails.