@KunleOshob,
Thanx Kunle. I’m just getting the opportunity today to reply. Firstly, I'm not a pastor but an "ordinary" christian like you who feels one should prove all things and hold fast that which is true (nothing wrong with being a pastor despite the fact that some have tried to drag that calling into the mud by being fake and deceiving people). Anything I hear, I judge by asking God and studying His Word because I know I'm personally responsible to God for my actions.
You are soo wrong hebrews 7 :11-18 states clearly and categorically that the levitical law of tithes must change because, Jesus christ is not a levite it further went on the describe tithing as a weak and useless law, please find highlighted below the relevant scriptures
Passage Hebrews 7:11-18:
11If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
12For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.
13For he of whom these things are spoken pertaineth to another tribe, of which no man gave attendance at the altar. 14For it is evident that our Lord sprang out of Juda; of which tribe Moses spake nothing concerning priesthood.
15And it is yet far more evident: for that after the similitude of Melchisedec there ariseth another priest,
16Who is made, not after the law of a carnal commandment, but after the power of an endless life.
17For he testifieth, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec.
18For there is verily a disannulling of the commandment going before for the weakness and unprofitableness thereof.
The commandent / law that was being spoken about in this passage is the law of tithes this can be established if you go back to verse 5 of that passage which says
5And verily they that are of the sons of Levi, who receive the office of the priesthood, have a commandment to take tithes of the people according to the law, that is, of their brethren, though they come out of the loins of Abraham:
Concerning the points you made I think you are the one that has it all wrong.
What this place is talking about is THE LAW OF MOSES as a whole and not tithing alone in itself.
The word "law" here is the Greek word "nomos" which generally means regulation and specifically means the law of Moses. I don't think it could be more specific because he keeps saying "THE" law (definitive article - "the").
If we're to look @ the whole chapter in context, (as a matter of fact from Heb chapter 5 – chapter 10), the crux of the discussion is the change of priesthood from the Levitical Order to that of the Order of Melchisedek of which Jesus is the High Priest. And the logical sequence to a change of priesthood is a change of the law that established it
Heb 8:1 “Now of the things which we have spoken THIS IS THE SUM: We have such a high priest, who is set on the right hand of the throne of the Majesty in the heavens”
Heb 7:12 “For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.”
Definitely you will agree that it wasn't just tithing that established the priesthood of the Levites, it was the whole law of Moses that established it; so it wasn't just tithing that was the issue but the whole law.
Heb 7:19 “For the law made nothing perfect, but the bringing in of a better hope did; by the which we draw nigh unto God.”
If he was talking only about tithes when he said law, then this verse would have a meaning to presuppose that there was a possibility of only tithes making someone perfect. It would have read -
" For the law(of tithes) made nothing perfect, but the bringing in of a better hope did, "
But we know it is not even remotely possible to suggest this, that only the law of tithes was what was put forth in the O.T. for an attempt at perfection. No. It was the WHOLE LAW OF MOSES. And that is the reason the whole law had to change because it could not bring about a perfection unlike Jesus did.
Heb 10:14 “For by one offering he hath perfected forever them that are sanctified.”
I don't know why pastors always stop at Hebrews 7:8 when they are talking about tithes when if you read the chapter to the end it actually abolishes the practise of tithing but they would cleverly and mischiviously stop at when melchizedek is compared to christ. Is that not deliberate manipulation of the scripture??
Like I said earlier, if we took the whole discourse in context from Heb chapter 5 to chapter 10 it is supporting rather than abolishing the practice of tithing within the framework of the High Priestly role of Jesus.
Heb 8:6-7 “But now hath he obtained a more excellent ministry, by how much also he is the mediator of a better covenant, which was established upon better promises.
For if that first covenant had been faultless, then should no place have been sought for the second.”
Now then there is a new priesthood with a better covenant based on better promises. The old one has been replaced. But the question is , "why is the new High Priest still patterned after the Order of Melchisedek?" The same Melchisedek that - ( yeah, you got it )- COLLECTED TITHES !!! The way I see it he's trying to buttress the fact that this issue of tithing still exists. Or why didn’t God create a new order entirely if He wanted a departure from the tithe-collecting Melchisedek. But he keeps saying “ after the order of Melchisedek” with this same phrase repeated 7 times between Heb 5 and Heb 7.
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Another question is this in Heb 7:8 “And here men that die receive tithes; but there he RECEIVES them, of whom it is witnessed that he lives.”
Where is “there”? – In the heavenly tabernacle.
Who is “he”? – Our Lord Jesus Christ, High Priest after the Order of Melchisedek.
Why use present tense and say Jesus “RECEIVES” if tithes have been done away with?
Because we’re still to GIVE if He RECEIVES!!!