The Bible And Homosexuality: What Shall We Do?

Prolegomena:
First, let me remind my readers of two things I'd wish them to constantly keep in mind while going through this writeup: (a) I'm writing from a Christian perspective and not from a politically correct or socio-culturally adopted view; (b) I know the pain of some of the people in this situation who are seeking help - and I'll try to be respectful of their dignity in my language. If anyone feels offended somewhere along this post, I'd like to tender my unreserved apology upfront in the firm belief that people are first and foremost people than anything else; which in no way suggests that my convictions are waned thereby.
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Many societies view homosexuality as a socially and/or culturally unacceptable lifestyle. It is not just a religious concern. However, when people claim that 'God made them gay' ('God' in context of the Christian faith) and press this notion as Biblically correct, a lot of issues emerge. First, we ask for a scriptural basis verifying that claim (so far, none has been forthcoming, other than mere opinions and speculations). Second, the excuse is given that the Bible neither condemns nor even remotely mentions anything on the subject of homosexuality. There is a plethora of other issues to this debate, but here's what my views are on these two suppositons:

1) Do I believe God made/created anyone as gay? No. I have requested (in other threads) that those who assert this provide the necessary Biblical texts to back up the assertion. In the absence of any biblical quotes, I have proffered a few for my own convictions. First, it is illogical that God would have had to create anyone as gay when infact He calls such a position 'abominable' in His sight (Lev.20:13). How would God make a person gay and then have to later punish such a person for being something/someone that He was directly responsible for, if that is even possible? If you strike my face and I bleed, would it be fair for you to complain about my bleeding when I did not cause it in the first place? Now, one such text that convinces me that God did not create people as gay is Eccl.7:29 - there it says that "God hath made man upright" rather than making him 'abominable' in what He detests.

2) Second, some contend that the issue of homosexuality is neither expressly condemned nor even remotely mentioned in the Bible. There are two ways to look at this. There are a few words that are not explicitly used in the Bible but are undeniably established Biblical doctrines: substitution (in Christ's sacrifice for our sins); rapture (Christians being caught up to meet the Lord at His second coming); Trinity (the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit alone being the One God eternally co-existing). So, just because 'homosexuality' is not explicitly penned down in any Bible text does not justify it as a normative or prescriptive practice any more than 'abortion' would be justified since the Bible does not expressly mention it in name.

In both the OT and NT, we find clear statements that show God's disapproval of the practice.

a) Read the story of Sodom in Gen.19. Among the various understandings that could be obtained from the chapter is a clear pointer: the men of the city had less interest in having sex with women than they did with men - that is why they rejected Lot's offer of his daughters in verse 8. There are also other reasons why Sodom fell to the judgement of God (such as are described in Ezek16:49); but it is not coincidental that God used 'sodomy' as a proverbial warning to His people in Deut.23:17 - "There shall be no whore of the daughters of Israel, nor a sodomite of the sons of Israel."

b) From the time of Abraham to the emergence of the covenant nation Israel, is it not significant that twice in Leviticus, God warned in unmistakable terms against the practice of homosexuality among His people? Just what does this involve? If we understand it simply as same-sex activity [or, for example, 'man + man = homosexuality'], then match that in any translation of the Bible to these two verses:

Lev.18:22 - "Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination."

Lev.20:13 - "If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them."

These are explicit statements that convey God's mind on the subject regardless what term we commonly use today for the activity - homosexuality, gay, buggery, down-low, msm, etc

So many have protested the OT texts on this subject as obsolete and non-applicable today. Against the backdrop of such arguments, there's just one question to ask: since when has an abominable act in the past ceased being abominable in the present? It's all well and good that the literal application of Lev.20:13 to put gays/homosexuals to death is not something the Christian pursues today; but should that in itself overthrow the implications of homosexuality and now be regarded as having been elavated as a virtuous activity?

What about the New Testament? My writeup continues shortly.

choice.A,

Thank you for your inputs. That was an eye opener the way you've presented the issue from the Biblical perspective. I've learnt so much and hope that soon I should be able to throw in my few lines of thought as well. Many thanks again. 

Those who say God made them gay and use it as an excuse, are not worthy of using God as a scapegoat because they ignore him calling them to a life of abstinance.
And no I do not discriminate against gays or hold any ill feelings towards them, I know many and have some in the family, but when they use God against himself I am appalled.