dolphinheart:

you did not respond to the scriptures I quoted, maybe you think the scriptures where lying and you decided to contradict those verses by mentioning other verses.


New International Version
The poor will eat and be satisfied; those who seek the LORD will praise him-- may your hearts live forever!
1. does this say soul is immortal? no
2. does it say everyone will live forever ? no " evalasting life is only available to those who seek jehovah"

remember, the psalmist said the dead cannot praise God.

King James Version
Ps 23:6Surely goodness and mercy shall follow me all the days of my life: and I will dwell in the house of the LORD for ever.

Ps 49:7None of them can by any means redeem his brother, nor give to God a ransom for him:
Ps 49:8(For the redemption of their soul is precious, and it ceaseth for ever
Ps 49:9That he should still live for ever, and not see corruption.

1. did David just start dwelling in the house of the Lord immediately after he died?no(read what apostle peter said about david)
2. does every soul goes into the house of the Lord? no

if you had read pslams 49 :7-9 , you probably would not have made this post, cus it explains why humans cannot have evalasting life by themselves.


King James Version
Ec 12:7Then shall the dust return to the earth as it was: and the spirit shall return unto God who gave it.
1. are you a spirit? no
2. is the soul(man)a spirit? no (read again about how God created the first man and what happened to the first man when he died)


your quote have blown your theory out of the water. " multitudes who sleep in the dust of the earth will awake". This means they where sleeping before they where awoken right? right!
it is only after these resurrection has occurred that some will gain evalasting life.
what did Jesus said when he said that Lazarus was sleeping, Jesus said " Lazarus has died"
the verses did not tell you that souls live after death, but surely they will live after resurrection.


Matt 25:46: you are using what jesus said will happen when he comes to determine if souls are immortal or not. Haba.
moreover, why give evalasting life to those you already say have evalasting life?
did that verse say that those who did not follow jesus will be given evalasting life? no

King James Version
1Co 15:22For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.
Ro 6:23For the wages of sin is death; but the gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.

bro, follow the scriptures when it tells you that the soul that is sinning ,WILL DIE!



apart from the fact that you can't respond to scriptures that says souls that is sinning will die, you have now refused to differenciate two important things you talked about.

Hello! Pls are you an atheist or Muslim? I'll really wanna know your faith b4 I respond.

Medicis:
Hello! Pls are you an atheist or Muslim? I'll really wanna know your faith b4 I respond.

does my faith determine the truth? no
does my faith determines what the scriptures says? no
does my faith determine if you will tell me you view of the scriptures I quoted to you or not? I guess so it will.

so ill tell you this, I'm a follower of christ.

dolphinheart:


does my faith determine the truth? no
does my faith determines what the scriptures says? no
does my faith determine if you will tell me you view of the scriptures I quoted to you or not? I guess so it will.

so ill tell you this, I'm a follower of christ.

Follower of Christ.. Ie you believe he died on the cross and rose from the dead and that he is the son of the living God Right?

Medicis:
How can God “alone” have immortality( 1 Timothy 6:16), if the soul of man is also immortal (1 Corinthians 15:53-54)
Matthew 25:46)?

dont just quote anything, none of the verse above said soul of man is immortal, for sampling see 1 cor 15:53,54 yourself as it testify that man is MORTAL

"
will all be changed, in a moment, in the blink of an eye, during the last trumpet. For the trumpet will sound, and the dead will be raised up incorruptible, and we will be changed.
For this which is corruptible must put on incorruption, and this which is mortal must put on immortal "

the italics said nobody is changed incorruptible until they are ressurected .

the Bold provides evidence that man is mortal , waiting to be changed to put on immortality

The answer is really quite
simple: The only reason man is immortal is
because GOD GIVES MAN IMMORTALITY because he created man. God created
man differently than plants and animals; He
chose to make man “in His own image” (Genesis
1:27). Among other things, one of the great
blessings of being an image-bearer of God is
that humans have an immortal soul However, in the sense that God’s everlasting nature is immortal, God alone possesses immortality. Take for example :both God and His faithful children are pure and holy (1John 3:3; Matthew 5:8; 1 Peter 1:16). They are pure and holy, however, on different levels.
Whereas God is innately perfect (Isaiah 6:3;
James 1:13), man can only become pure and
holy through the grace of God and the blood of
Christ (Hebrews 10:22; Ephesians 1:3-14). God is
holy; man becomes holy. Likewise, God “alone
[inherently] has immortality” (1 Timothy 6:16),
but He has given it to man. The same way he alone has eternal life and decided to give us.

but how does the dribbles ànswer the op , wait o ... since God has given man immortality already, that means they cant die ?

Satan said man will not die {immortality] , God said man will die [mortality] , who is lying ? dont forget u said God has given man immortality


again, how can Jesus save immortal beings who cant die from DEATH ? its contradictory pls explain

again, how can Jesus claim to give everlasting [ never ending] life to man, if they are immortals ?

Medicis:
TRASH!!! you sound so messed up bro.. How u atheist or Muslim?? Hope u are not a Jehova witness. If u are, I rest my case.. I don't argue with them cos they're so messed up. Hope you're not Sha?

Trash? Yet you can't refute it.
Smh for you! If you are immortal why do you still need resurrection?

Medicis:
Follower of Christ.. Ie you believe he died on the cross and rose from the dead and that he is the son of the living God Right?

dont you know you just contradict yourself again, Jesus DIED ? really ? but when he was on earth , is he not a MAN ? nd u said God has given Man immortality , abi ? oga, how could he die ?

Medicis:
Follower of Christ.. Ie you believe he died on the cross and rose from the dead and that he is the son of the living God Right?

I believe that Jesus died and was ressurected by God, yes I believe Jesus is the son of the living God.

can you now respond to the scriptures quoted and explained?

Medicis:
Hello! Pls are you an atheist or Muslim? I'll really wanna know your faith b4 I respond.

Last I checked atheist are not in the habit of using scriptures to argue their point and muslims also believe in the immortality of the soul, so it will safe to conclude that he is neither of those.

Now the Bible says the devil and his angels will be tormented in the lake of fire for ever and the same has been active since the time of Genesis till now; does that mean the devil has Eternal life? Let someone answer!

And since there are that claim that the story of Lazarus was just a symbol, let someone soundly exegesize that symbol and its meaning (backed by parallel scriptures vis a vis similar ones eg Matthew 25) once and for all.

Humans are not immortals, humans are mortal beings that is why the bible said that when christ appears this mortality will put on immortality. Those who teach that humans are immortals are physicaly and spiritually blind some are Outright idiots who have rejected the teaching of scriptures for the teachings of men. Simply because they feel comfortable with the thought that humans continue to live after death.

EMILO2STAY:
Humans are not immortals, humans are mortal beings that is why the bible said that when christ appears this mortality will put on immortality. Those who teach that humans are immortals are physicaly and spiritually blind some are Outright idiots who have rejected the teaching of scriptures for the teachings of men. Simply because they feel comfortable with the thought that humans continue to live after death.

Correct me if I am wrong, that passage refers to the corruptible , outer man, not the soul.

Scholar8200:
Now the Bible says the devil and his angels will be tormented in the lake of fire for ever and the same has been active since the time of Genesis till now; does that mean the devil has Eternal life? Let someone answer!

If the lake of fire is a symbol of destruction, why does the Bible say that in it the Devil, the wild beast, and the false prophet “will be tormented day and night forever and ever”? ( Revelation 20:10) Consider four reasons why this torment does not refer to literal torture:

1. For the Devil to be tortured eternally, he would have to be kept alive forever. However, the Bible says that he will be brought to nothing, or put out of existence.—
Hebrews 2:14 .


2. Everlasting life is a gift from God, not a punishment.— Romans 6:23 .

3. The wild beast and the false prophet are symbols and cannot experience literal torture.

4. The context of the Bible indicates that the torment of the Devil is everlasting restraint or destruction.
The word used for “torment” in the Bible can also mean “a condition of restraint.” For example, the Greek word for “tormentors” used at Matthew 18:34 is rendered as “jailers” in many translations, showing the connection between the words “torment” and “restraint.” Likewise, the parallel accounts at Matthew 8:29 and Luke 8:30, 31 equate “torment” with “the abyss,” a figurative place of complete inactivity or death. ( Romans 10:7; Revelation 20:1, 3 ) In fact, several times the book of Revelation uses the word “torment” in a symbolic sense.— Revelation 9:5; 11:10; 18:7, 10

And since there are that claim that the story of Lazarus was just a symbol, let someone soundly exegesize that symbol and its meaning (backed by parallel scriptures vis a vis similar ones eg Matthew 25) once and for all.

The Jerusalem Bible, in a footnote, acknowledges that it is a “parable in story form without reference to any historical personage.”
If taken literally, it would mean that those enjoying divine favor could all fit at the bosom of one man, Abraham; that the water on one’s fingertip would not be evaporated by the fire of Hades; that a mere drop of water would bring relief to one suffering there. Does that sound reasonable to you? If it were literal, it would conflict with other parts of the Bible. If the Bible were thus contradictory, would a lover of truth use it as a basis for his faith? But the Bible does not contradict itself.

What does the parable mean? The “rich man” represented the Pharisees. (See verse 14) The beggar Lazarus represented the common Jewish people who were despised by the Pharisees but who repented and became followers of Jesus. (See Luke 18:11, john 7:49, matthew 21:31,32) Their deaths were also symbolic, representing a change in circumstances. Thus, the formerly despised ones came into a position of divine favor, and the formerly seemingly favored ones were rejected by God, while being tormented by the judgment messages delivered by the ones whom they had despised.— . Act 5:33; 7:54

Scholar8200:

Correct me if I am wrong, that passage refers to the corruptible , outer man, not the soul.

and the man is the soul

" the Man Became a living Soul " Gen 2:7, its the man that became a soul .

CANTICLES:


and the man is the soul

" the Man Became a living Soul " Gen 2:7, its the man that became a soul .

Living in a body. Adam was not a corpse before God breathed in Him! The death that occurred after the fall was that the Living soul was separated from his source of Life hence he died.

Consider this:
46 And Mary said,

“My soul magnifies and exalts the Lord,
47
And my spirit has rejoiced in God my Savior.
Luke 1:46,47

Also:
For the word of God is living and active and full of power [making it operative, energizing, and effective]. It is sharper than any two-edged [b]sword, penetrating as far as the division of the [c]soul and spirit [the completeness of a person], and of both joints and marrow [the deepest parts of our nature], exposing and judging the very thoughts and intentions of the heart
Hebrew 4:12

CANTICLES:

Scholar8200:
Now the Bible says the devil and his angels will be tormented in the lake of fire for ever and the same has been active since the time of Genesis till now; does that mean the devil has Eternal life? Let someone answer!

CANTICLES:
If the lake of fire is a symbol of destruction, why does the Bible say that in it the Devil, the wild beast, and the false prophet “will be tormented day and night forever and ever”? ( Revelation 20:10) Consider four reasons why this torment does not refer to literal torture:

1. For the Devil to be tortured eternally, he would have to be kept alive forever. However, the Bible says that he will be brought to nothing, or put out of existence.
Hebrews 2:14 .

Quote that passage for all to see.

2. Everlasting life is a gift from God, not a punishment.— Romans 6:23 .

Quite distinct from immortality. That the devil has been since the time of Genesis till now, does that mean God loaned him Eternal Life?

3. The wild beast and the false prophet are symbols and cannot experience literal torture.

Your opinion till you prove this. Remember that Revelations is not the only place where the antichrist is mentioned. Consider the following:

26 Then after the sixty-two weeks [of years] the Anointed One will be cut off [and denied His Messianic kingdom] and have nothing [and no one to defend Him], and the people of the [other] prince who is to come will destroy the city and the sanctuary. Its end will come with a flood; even to the end there will be war; desolations are determined. 27 And he will enter into a binding and irrevocable covenant with the many for one week (seven years), but in the middle of the week he will stop the sacrifice and grain offering [for the remaining [size=14pt]three and one-half years][/b[/size]]; and on the wing of abominations will come one who makes desolate, even until the complete destruction, one that is decreed, is poured out on the one who causes the horror.
Daniel 9:26,27

Who is that other prince? Take particular notice of his period of operation and compare with:

And when the dragon saw that he was thrown down to the earth, he persecuted the woman who had given birth to the male Child. 14 But the two wings of the great eagle were given to the woman, so that she could fly into the wilderness to her place, where she was nourished for a [b]time and times and half a time (three and one-half years), away from the presence of the serpent (Satan).
Revelation 12:13,14



Talking of how Israel would be preserved from the antics of that other prince/antichrist/beast for 3.5yrs. Now the Bible further speaks of the proxy that the devil/dragon/serpent will use:



3 Let no one in any way deceive or entrap you, for that day will not come unless the [c]apostasy comes first [that is, the great rebellion, the abandonment of the faith by professed Christians], and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction [the Antichrist, the one who is destined to be destroyed],

4 who opposes and exalts himself [so proudly and so insolently] above [d]every so-called god or object of worship, so that he [actually enters and] takes his seat in the temple of God, publicly proclaiming that he himself is God.

5 Do you not remember that when I was still with you, I was telling you these things?

6 And you know what restrains him now [from being revealed]; it is so that he will be revealed at his own [appointed] time.

9 The coming of the [Antichrist, the lawless] one is through the activity of Satan, [attended] with great power [all kinds of counterfeit miracles] and [deceptive] signs and false wonders [all of them lies],
2 Thessalonians 2

Yes Revelation uses symbols in SOME places (not ALL), but this one is clear enough!

4. The context of the Bible indicates that the torment of the Devil is everlasting restraint or destruction.
The word used for “torment” in the Bible can also mean “a condition of restraint.” For example, the Greek word for “tormentors” used at Matthew 18:34 is rendered as “jailers” in many translations, showing the connection between the words “torment” and “restraint.”

No sir, the contexts are not the same, the word used is explained here http://biblehub.com/strongs/greek/928.htm!

The incarceration of the devil in the bottomlesss pit for a thousand years uses the word bind(more like restrain) but the Lake of fire and torment means what just it says otherwise, what differentiates the bottomless pit from the lake of fire Revelations 20:2-4?

Likewise, the parallel accounts at Matthew 8:29 and Luke 8:30, 31 equate “torment” with “the abyss,” a figurative place of complete inactivity or death. ( Romans 10:7; Revelation 20:1, 3 ) In fact, several times the book of Revelation uses the word “torment” in a symbolic sense.— Revelation 9:5; 11:10; 18:7, 10

http://biblehub.com/strongs/greek/928.htm shows what was intended when the word was used. Besides, what purpose does the use of the word torment figuratively serve?

Scholar:
And since there are that claim that the story of Lazarus was just a symbol, let someone soundly exegesize that symbol and its meaning (backed by parallel scriptures vis a vis similar ones eg Matthew 25) once and for all.
CANTICLES:
The Jerusalem Bible, in a footnote, acknowledges that it is a “parable in story form without reference to any historical personage.”

That does not preclude the existence of the places mentioned! Why would Jesus make such far examples in a parable? What is a parable?

If taken literally, it would mean that those enjoying divine favor could all fit at the bosom of one man, Abraham; that the water on one’s fingertip would not be evaporated by the fire of Hades; that a mere drop of water would bring relief to one suffering there. Does that sound reasonable to you? If it were literal, it would conflict with other parts of the Bible. If the Bible were thus contradictory, would a lover of truth use it as a basis for his faith? But the Bible does not contradict itself.

Abraham's bosom is a place sir, that is why the parable talks of a big gulf fixed between both places!!!

What does the parable mean? The “rich man” represented the Pharisees. (See verse 14) The beggar Lazarus represented the common Jewish people who were despised by the Pharisees but who repented and became followers of Jesus. (See Luke 18:11, john 7:49, matthew 21:31,32) Their deaths were also symbolic, representing a change in circumstances. Thus, the formerly despised ones came into a position of divine favor, and the formerly seemingly favored ones were rejected by God, while being tormented by the judgment messages delivered by the ones whom they had despised.— . Act 5:33; 7:54

The fact that:

1. Both men died refutes your interpretation. Else what does that death symbolise?
2. the Rich man had brothers refutes this interpretation. Else, who are those brothers?
3. Lazarus was not sent to the brother of the rich man refutes this interpretation. Else, who are those to speak to those brothers?
4. there is no proof that the fire represents messages refutes this interpretation. Else, why the reference to Moses and the prophets literally?
5. Lazarus was not sent to either the rich man or his brothers refutes this interpretation. Else, what messages was tormenting the rich man? After all Lazarus (whom you claim delivered messages) NEVER spoke to the rich man!
6. Jesus referred to both sides immediately after death underscores the immortality of the soul. Else why use a false example for parabolic purposes? Is that not confusing?
7. Stephen at the point of his demise cried ,"Lord Jesus receive my SPIRIT" shows indeed this is not just a symbol but reality! Jesus also said something similar.

etc Care to clarify further?

dolphinheart:

I believe that Jesus died and was ressurected by God, yes I believe Jesus is the son of the living God.

can you now respond to the scriptures quoted and explained?

it means;(1)the soul that continues in sin, without repentance towards God, and faith in Christ, shall surely die the second death; shall be separated from the presence of God, and endure his wrath to all eternity: (2).or the meaning in the context of that bible verse is that a person that is guilty of gross sins, and continues inthem, shall personally suffer; he shall endure one calamity or another, as the famine, sword, pestilence, or be carried into captivity, which is the death all along spoken of in this chapter; the Lord will exercise no patience towards him, or defer punishment to a future generation, his offspring; but shall immediately execute it upon himself. Matt 10:28 "Do not be afraid of those
who kill the body but cannot kill the soul. This verse shows that the body can be killed and the soul can still exist separately.

Jessicha:


dont you know you just contradict yourself again, Jesus DIED ? really ? but when he was on earth , is he not a MAN ? nd u said God has given Man immortality , abi ? oga, how could he die ?

Stop confusing yourself. Even if said God gave man immortality, you should know I'm talking about the soul.

Medicis:
Matt 10:28 "Do not be afraid of those
who kill the body but cannot kill the soul. This verse shows that the body can be killed and the soul can still exist separately.

This settles it. Nothing symbolic here!!!

Medicis:
it means;(1)the soul that continues in sin, without repentance towards God, and faith in Christ, shall surely die the second death; shall be separated from the presence of God, and endure his wrath to all eternity: (2).or the meaning in the context of that bible verse is that a person that is guilty of gross sins, and continues inthem, shall personally suffer; he shall endure one calamity or another, as the famine, sword, pestilence, or be carried into captivity, which is the death all along spoken of in this chapter; the Lord will exercise no patience towards him, or defer punishment to a future generation, his offspring; but shall immediately execute it upon himself. Matt 10:28 "Do not be afraid of those
who kill the body but cannot kill the soul. This verse shows that the body can be killed and the soul can still exist separately.

you can see that you had to add a lot of your personal views to make your explanation of that verse semi credible, the verse says, the soul that is sinning will die. In a short it explicitely tells us souls can die.

I believe you are a Christian too, so pls make use of the scriptures when making these additions.

you quoted part of matt 10: 28, but subtly omitted the second part of what happens to the soul and body in gehenna. that is not how we are supposed to discuss bro.

We are discussing immortality of the soul, so I wunt digress by asking you how come the body and soul goes to the same place at death!, cus I thought you said they seperate.

pls add your views of gen 2:7 to your reply when responding.
you can also add gen 3:19 if you feel ok with it

Scholar8200:
Quote that passage for all to see.

" therefore, since the young children are sharers of blood and flesh, he also similarly shared in the same things , so that through his death he might bring to nothing the one having the means to cause death, that is, the Devil " Heb 2:14

scripture clearly showed , Satan will be brought to nothing, reduced to non existence .

Quite distinct from immortality. That the devil has been since the time of Genesis till now, does that mean God loaned him Eternal Life?

Heb 2:14 tells u satans end is destruction, he will be brought to nothing just as death the last enemy will be brought to nothing ' 1cor 15:26

Your opinion till you prove this. Remember that Revelations is not the only place where the antichrist is mentioned. Consider the following:

26 Then after the sixty-two weeks [of years] the Anointed One will be cut off [and denied His Messianic kingdom] and have nothing [and no one to defend Him], and the people of the [other] prince who is to come will destroy the city and the sanctuary. Its end will come with a flood; even to the end there will be war; desolations are determined. 27 And he will enter into a binding and irrevocable covenant with the many for one week (seven years), but in the middle of the week he will stop the sacrifice and grain offering [for the remaining [size=14pt]three and one-half years][/b[/size]]; and on the wing of abominations will come one who makes desolate, even until the complete destruction, one that is decreed, is poured out on the one who causes the horror.
Daniel 9:26,27

Who is that other prince? Take particular notice of his period of operation and compare with:

And when the dragon saw that he was thrown down to the earth, he persecuted the woman who had given birth to the male Child. 14 But the two wings of the great eagle were given to the woman, so that she could fly into the wilderness to her place, where she was nourished for a [b]time and times and half a time (three and one-half years), away from the presence of the serpent (Satan).
Revelation 12:13,14



Talking of how Israel would be preserved from the antics of that other prince/antichrist/beast for 3.5yrs. Now the Bible further speaks of the proxy that the devil/dragon/serpent will use:



3 Let no one in any way deceive or entrap you, for that day will not come unless the [c]apostasy comes first [that is, the great rebellion, the abandonment of the faith by professed Christians], and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction [the Antichrist, the one who is destined to be destroyed],

4 who opposes and exalts himself [so proudly and so insolently] above [d]every so-called god or object of worship, so that he [actually enters and] takes his seat in the temple of God, publicly proclaiming that he himself is God.

5 Do you not remember that when I was still with you, I was telling you these things?

6 And you know what restrains him now [from being revealed]; it is so that he will be revealed at his own [appointed] time.

9 The coming of the [Antichrist, the lawless] one is through the activity of Satan, [attended] with great power [all kinds of counterfeit miracles] and [deceptive] signs and false wonders [all of them lies],
2 Thessalonians 2

Yes Revelation uses symbols in SOME places (not ALL), but this one is clear enough!

are you saying, The BEAST and false prophet SYMBOLIZE the Antichrist ?

then, what does the lake of fire to which they are thrown represents ?

No sir, the contexts are not the same, the word used is explained here http://biblehub.com/strongs/greek/928.htm!

The incarceration of the devil in the bottomlesss pit for a thousand years uses the word bind(more like restrain) but the Lake of fire and torment means what just it says otherwise, what differentiates the bottomless pit from the lake of fire Revelations 20:2-4?

the Lake of fire symbolize second death! anything said to be in the lake of fire will be no more

Rev 20:14 said death is thrown into the lake of fire ? does it mean death ( a condition of been dead) will be literally burning forever ? not at all

scripture explains it means " Death will be no more" Rev 21:4

not literal torment .

http://biblehub.com/strongs/greek/928.htm shows what was intended when the word was used. Besides, what purpose does the use of the word torment figuratively serve?

destruction

"they will stand at a distance because of their fear of her [ babylon the great] TORment and say: Too bad, too bad, you great city, Babylon you strong city, because in one hour your judgement has arrived! " - Revelation 18:10


here babylon the great is said to experience TORMENT , yet its symbolic of her Destruction to non existence, how do we know ?

" And a strong angel lifted up a stone like a great millstone and hurled it into the sea, saying: " Thus with a swift pitch wikl Babylon the great city be hurled down, ,AND SHE WILL NEVER BE FOUND AGAIN " Rev18:21

That does not preclude the existence of the places mentioned! Why would Jesus make such far examples in a parable? What is a parable?

[size=25] Abraham's bosom is a place sir,[/size] that is why the parable talks of a big gulf fixed between both places!!!



The fact that:

1. Both men died refutes your interpretation. Else what does that death symbolise?
2. the Rich man had brothers refutes this interpretation. Else, who are those brothers?
3. Lazarus was not sent to the brother of the rich man refutes this interpretation. Else, who are those to speak to those brothers?
4. there is no proof that the fire represents messages refutes this interpretation. Else, why the reference to Moses and the prophets literally?
5. Lazarus was not sent to either the rich man or his brothers refutes this interpretation. Else, what messages was tormenting the rich man? After all Lazarus (whom you claim delivered messages) NEVER spoke to the rich man!
6. Jesus referred to both sides immediately after death underscores the immortality of the soul. Else why use a false example for parabolic purposes? Is that not confusing?
7. Stephen at the point of his demise cried ,"Lord Jesus receive my SPIRIT" shows indeed this is not just a symbol but reality! Jesus also said something similar.

etc Care to clarify further?

firstly , how can Abaraham bossom be a place if u insist the parable is literal ?

my bossom is my chest position literally, why change the meaning of bossom to mean a PLACE ?

Scholar8200:
Living in a body. Adam was not a corpse before God breathed in Him! The death that occurred after the fall was that the Living soul was separated from his source of Life hence he died.

Consider this:
46 And Mary said,

“My soul magnifies and exalts the Lord,
47
And my spirit has rejoiced in God my Savior.
Luke 1:46,47

Also:
For the word of God is living and active and full of power [making it operative, energizing, and effective]. It is sharper than any two-edged [b]sword, penetrating as far as the division of the [c]soul and spirit [the completeness of a person], and of both joints and marrow [the deepest parts of our nature], exposing and judging the very thoughts and intentions of the heart
Hebrew 4:12

there is a Living soul .. nephesh , that breathes

nd there is a DEAD soul .. scripture rightly call a corpse a "dead soul" Numbers 6:6. dead soul, plain and simple . nothing imortal here

Medicis:
Stop confusing yourself. Even if said God gave man immortality, you should know I'm talking about the soul.

wow, so the soul of Jesus is immortal ? the real man is the soul ryt ? so the real man called Jesus did not die for anyone. u are just ridiculous

moreover, Isaiah 53:12 said the Christ will pour out his soul to death , my brother how can an immortal soul be poured to death ? pls tell me

Jesus Christ is in Heaven as Son of God and Heir to The Throne of Grace. He keeps a Book where all the names of Saints are written. The saints are those already promised eternal life 'cos they believe in Christ Jesus. If you believe in Jesus Christ, when you die to sin, you become immortal saints by the order of Jesus Christ.

The doctrine that the human soul is immortal is a terrible lie! There is absolutely no text in the Bible that supports that lie. When a man dies, he is in a complete and total state of rest. The notion that he merely leaves his physical body and goes elsewhere is a terrible lie which has no foundation in the Bible. This lie found its way into the Church in the middle ages when apostasy began creeping into the church and false doctrines such as spiritism, immortality of the soul (which are purely pagan beliefs) began gaining wide acceptance in the church.

Nevertheless, we are not left unguided. The Bible is there to guide us.

Now, consider this Bible text in clear contrast with the immortality of the soul:
"...the soul that sinneth shall die" Ezek.18:4

Suffice it to say that the Bible definition of "soul" is not the popular definition of the soul. Majority hold the view that the soul is a separate entity from the body, although a part of being, which is immortal. This is not Biblical.

According to the Bible, only one person has immortality:
“King of kings, and Lord of lords; Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen” 1 Tim 6:15, 16.

Nobody, apart from GOD, has immortality.

Now, the Bible definition of the soul?

“And the Lord God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul” Genesis 2:7

After GOD formed man, he was just a lifeless structure made of dust. Then GOD breathed into his nostrils, "and man became a living soul". It is now clear that the body plus the breath of life makes up the soul.

Notice also these two words in Gen. 2:7 - "living soul". If there is a living soul, there can also be a dead soul. This is in stark contrast to the popular teaching that the soul cannot die.

The soul, therefore, is not an immortal entity, neither is the soul separate from the body.

CANTICLES:


there is a Living soul .. nephesh , that breathes

nd there is a DEAD soul .. scripture rightly call a corpse a "dead soul" Numbers 6:6. dead soul, plain and simple . nothing imortal here

That passage reads dead body. Besides, Adam was alive and breathing before God breathed into him. Death was when he lost that Divine Inspiration and his soul was separate from God but he was still physically alive. That is the death of a soul - existence outside God.

CANTICLES:


" therefore, since the young children are sharers of blood and flesh, he also similarly shared in the same things , so that through his death he might bring to nothing the one having the means to cause death, that is, the Devil " Heb 2:14

Choosing one out of a number of synonyms is questionable! Especially when the view given by such choice clearly contradicts the Whole Picture as given by the Word. Besides, when will this destruction take place since the devil is still very active today.

scripture clearly showed , Satan will be brought to nothing, reduced to non existence .

Rather, I would say the synonym ( you chose out of many) suggests that even though we all know spirits do not die.

Heb 2:14 tells u satans end is destruction, he will be brought to nothing just as death the last enemy will be brought to nothing ' 1cor 15:26

Explain this in the light of your claim:
Then these [unbelieving people] will go away into eternal (unending) punishment, but those who are righteous and in right standing with God [will go, by His remarkable grace] into eternal (unending) life.”
Matthew 25:46

are you saying, The BEAST and false prophet SYMBOLIZE the Antichrist ?

then, what does the lake of fire to which they are thrown represents ?

The false prophet is not the antichrist, the beast is. The Lake of Fire is literally:

8 But as for the cowards and unbelieving and abominable [who are devoid of character and personal integrity and practice or tolerate immorality], and murderers, and sorcerers [with intoxicating drugs], and idolaters and occultists [who practice and teach false religions], and all the liars [who knowingly deceive and twist truth], their part will be in the lake that blazes with fire and brimstone, which is the second death.”
Revelation 21:8

the Lake of fire symbolize second death! anything said to be in the lake of fire will be no more

Rev 20:14 said death is thrown into the lake of fire ? does it mean death ( a condition of been dead) will be literally burning forever ? not at all

scripture explains it means " Death will be no more" Rev 21:4

not literal torment .

Explain that passage in Matthew 25:46 at least that one is not in Revelations and it says the same thing as regards a continual state of torment! Contrary to your rather aloof stance of annihilation!

"they will stand at a distance because of their fear of her [ babylon the great] TORment and say: Too bad, too bad, you great city, Babylon you strong city, because in one hour your judgement has arrived! " - Revelation 18:10 here babylon the great is said to experience TORMENT , yet its symbolic of her Destruction to non existence, how do we know ?

" And a strong angel lifted up a stone like a great millstone and hurled it into the sea, saying: " Thus with a swift pitch wikl Babylon the great city be hurled down, ,AND SHE WILL NEVER BE FOUND AGAIN " Rev18:21

Babylon is not a personality that's wrong application!

firstly , how can Abaraham bossom be a place if u insist the parable is literal ?

my bossom is my chest position literally, why change the meaning of bossom to mean a PLACE ?

If we will be true to the passage in question, you wont need to ask this. Already I said there was a great gulf fixed between both places. Besides, http://biblehub.com/strongs/greek/2859.htm shows that the word bosom has a synonym and usage that supports place. Reason! How would angels carry a man to another man's chest!!! The place can be rendered Abraham's bay just as we have a place in the Temple then called Solomon's porch.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=jcck-CGbMzo&feature=youtube_gdata_player

Scholar8200:


Explain this in the light of your claim:
Then these [unbelieving people] will go away into eternal (unending) punishment, but those who are righteous and in right standing with God [will go, by His remarkable grace] into eternal (unending) life.” Matthew 25:46

Using this to support your claim of the immortality of the soul is wrong! Now, consider this verse: "Even as Sodom and Gomorrah, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth as an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire" Jude 7.

It is quite obvious that Sodom is not still burning today. The Dead Sea rolls over the place where those ancient cities once stood. Yet the Bible says that Sodom burned with an "eternal" fire. What does that mean?

Eternal fire, as applied to Sodom above, refers to a fire that cannot be quenched till it has accomplished it's purpose of complete destruction.

DoctorAlien:


Using this to support your claim of the immortality of the soul is wrong! Now, consider this verse: "Even as Sodom and Gomorrah, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth as an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire" Jude 7.

It is quite obvious that Sodom is not still burning today. The Dead Sea rolls over the place where those ancient cities once stood. Yet the Bible says that Sodom burned with an "eternal" fire. What does that mean?

Eternal fire, as applied to Sodom above, refers to a fire that cannot be quenched till it has accomplished it's purpose of complete destruction.

That passage speaks not of the place where once stood Sodom and Gomorrah but the people, God did not judge the place and properties but the people:

just as Sodom and Gomorrah and the adjacent cities, since they in the same way as these angels indulged in gross immoral freedom and unnatural vice and sensual perversity. They are exhibited [in plain sight] as an example in undergoing the punishment of everlasting fire

Jude 7

In fact this passage underscores the immortality of the soul since it speaks of the people so destroyed as currently undergoing judgement.

Scholar8200:
Explain that passage in Matthew 25:46 at least that one is not in Revelations and it says the same thing as regards a continual state of torment! Contrary to your rather aloof stance of annihilation!

The "Continual state of torment" doctrine is completely unbiblical. The word "eternal" as Jesus uses it there means that the punishment which sinners will suffer will be their final, total and complete end. (See Jude 7). It doesn't mean that sinners will be alive forever in hell burning.

Meanwhile, if sinners will be in hell be alive forever in hell burning, doesn't that negate the Bible teaching that only the righteous ones will live forever? If sinners are alive forever burning, that means they have eternal life too, just that they spend theirs in a place different from where the righteous people spend theirs. But the Bible is clear that only the righteous ones will live forever with GOD.

So, the "unending torment" doctrine is totally unbiblical.