Author=Anonymous
Dating= Suspected to be around 80-100C.E though it may have been composed during the mid-2nd century as 1st century and early 2nd century christian apologists make no reference or citations to it.
Source of most of its contents=Biblical Markan Gospel.

The gospel of matthew is largely regarded as an account of a zealous fictional jewish christian writer who was neither an apostle of jesus nor an eyewitness to the period of jesus's life....
The book itself begins with a contradiction..
Matthew and Luke give two contradictory
genealogies for Joseph
(Matthew 1:2-17 and Luke 3:23-38). Matthew and Luke cannot even agree on who the father of Joseph was...
This was as a result of the writers trying to explain fix the messianic Jesus into the descendants of David which was supposed to be the literal(natural) bloodline of the messiah..
The apostle Paul says that Jesus "was born of the
seed of David" (Romans 1:3). Here the word "seed" is literally in the Greek "sperma." This same Greek
word is translated in other verses as "descendant(s)" or "offspring." The point is that the Messiah had
to be a physical descendant of King David through
the male line. That Jesus had to be a physical
descendant of David means that even if Joseph had legally adopted Jesus,Jesus would still not qualify as Messiah
if he had been born of a virgin - seed from the line
of David was required...
This also proves that the apostle Paul had no idea of the acclaimed virgin birth prophecy matthew claimed was fulfiled in matthew 1:22-23:
In the original context, however,
Isaiah made this statement as a sign to Ahaz, king
of Judah, that an alliance recently formed against him by Rezin, the king of Syria, and Pekah, the king of Israel, would not succeed in defeating him. The
Lord (Yahweh), as he was prone to do in those days, had sent Isaiah to reassure Ahaz that the
alliance would not prevail. Isaiah begged Ahaz to ask for a sign that his prophecy was true
.Finally,
Isaiah said to him, "Hear now, O house of David! Is it a small thing for you to weary men, but will you
weary my God also? Therefore Yahweh Himself will
give you a sign: Behold, the virgin shall conceive,
and bear a Son, and shall call his name
Immanuel" (Isaiah 7:13-14).
The context
clearly shows that this so-called prophecy was made not to foretell the birth of Jesus some 700
years later but the birth of a child to that time and
that situation.(believed to be isaiah's wife)
How could a birth that would happen 700 years later, after Ahaz was dead and the battles
had long since been fought, have been a sign to
him that the Syrian-Israelite alliance would fail?.
"Immanuel". Since that name means
"God with us", it was supposed to show Ahaz that
God was on his side..Mary nor Joseph never called Jesus ''Immanuel''
The Hebrew word "almah" which is used in the
Isaiah verse does not mean "virgin" but "young
woman" and mean the ''young woman'' is with child/pregnant.. It is correctly translated in the Tanakh, the
Revised Standard Version, the Revised English
Bible, and the New Jerusalem Bible,and the Catholic bible..

However The Hebrew word "bethulah" means "virgin." In
the book of Isaiah, "bethulah" appears four times (23:12, 37:22, 47:1, 62:5), so its author was aware of the word;and would have used the word ''bethulah'' since that concept was totally foreign to them and would have been a remarkable event
This was most likely as a result of trying to elevate the christian mystic saviour's status to god-man/superrnatural as opposing organizations like the cult of asclepius and most christian followers at that time were gentiles who were conditioned by pagan beliefs..
OTHER FALSE PROPHECIES
Moving on..
In Matthew 2:4-6..He claims that the prophecy in Micah 5:2 was fulfiled..

.

"Bethlehem Ephrathah" is the name of the descendants of eprahtah and also the name of a person
person: Bethlehem the son (or grandson) of
Ephrathah (1 Chronicles 4:4, 2:50-51)
This prophecy could therefore refer to either a native of
the clan or to a descendent of the person. If the
latter, Jesus does not qualify since neither of his
alleged genealogies list
either Bethlehem or Ephrathah.


Moving on..

In Matthew 2:17,,Matthew claimed the fulfilment of a NON-prophecy in Hosea11:1

But..the passage Hosea 11:1 actually reads:When isreal was a child,I loved him,and out of Egypt I called my son..
However, Matthew quotes only the second half of Hosea 11:1. The first half of the verse makes it very clear that the verse refers to God
calling the Israelites out of Egypt in the exodus led
by Moses, and has nothing to do with Jesus....

Moving on..
In Matthew 2:17..Matthew claimed that Jeremiah 31:15 was fulfiled

This is a pure invention on Matthew's part. Herod
was guilty of many monstrous crimes, including the
murder of several members of his own family.
However,it is not mentioned in neither Apocrypha nor the Talmud, ancient historians such as Josephus, who
delighted in listing Herod's crimes, do not mention
what would have been Herod's greatest crime by far. It simply didn't happen.

Still moving..
In Matthew 2:23..he claimed that a prophecy that Jesus would be called a Nazarene(an inhabitant of Nazareth) was fulfiled

As a matter of fact,bible scholars have not found any statement from any old testament prophet that could be referenced to this...
The word Nazareth, as well as
Nazarene, was never even mentioned in the Old
Testament.
Even Josephus who listed out the cities in galilee made no mention of Nazareth..
Now this begs the question-Why would Yahweh,Jesus or the Holy spirit guide Matthew to make such a claim?

Moving on...

In Matthew 21:1-7..Matthew claimed Zech9:9 was fulfiled..

No event was too trival for matthew to see prophecy fulfilment in it
There are two conspicuous points of difference in
Matthew's version of this event and Mark's and
Luke's: (1) Matthew had Jesus riding BOTH a
donkey and her colt;(Circus style;stunt rider)
Mark and Luke had Jesus
riding only a colt, and (2) Matthew saw it as
fulfillment of a prophecy; Mark and Luke said nothing at all about prophecy fulfillment being
involved...This on matthew's part is as a result of misunderstanding
hebrew poetry...as this is a case of parallel emphasis
Examples of parallel emphasis in the bible include Zech 7:1,,Zech 12:6,,Deut 4:13 etc...
Lets move on..
In Matthew 27:9...Matthew falsely claimed that Jeremiah made a prophecy about the purchase of the potters field

There is NO Place in Jeremiah that this statement is made...
Biblical scholars suggested that Matthew was quoting "loosely" a
statement that was actually written by Zechariah
(11:12-13) rather than Jeremiah. If this is true, then
one can only wonder why a divinely inspired writer, being guided by the omniscient Holy Spirit,
would have said Jeremiah instead of Zechariah.
Why would Yahweh,Jesus or the Holy spirit guide Matthew to make such a claim?
looking closely at the suggested zech11:12-13...it stresses largely on the word ''ME''
Also,,Many versions (RSV, NRSV, JB, NAB, REB, GNB, NWT translate this passage to read ''Treasury''



Matthew, in his zeal to prove that Jesus was the
Messiah, searched the Old Testament for passages
(sometimes just phrases) that could be construed
as messianic prophecies and then created or
modified events in Jesus' life to fulfill those
"prophecies.''...he was however,,also a fictional writer and an inventor..
E.g The massacre of kids by herod...
The invasion of Jerusalem by zombies(matt 27:52-53),,The instant withering of the fig tree...which creates a contradictory account to mark's own account(mark may have been symbolic#the destruction of the temple in Jerusalem in 70AD though God was with them)

[color=blue]CONTRADICTIONS IN MATTHEW IN RELATION TO THE OTHER GOSPELS
The status of the fig tree...
The number of blind men on the road to jericho...
Where Jesus met his disciples before converting them...
The colour of Jesus's robe...
Contradictions on Jesus's utterances at pilate's hearing..
Conflicting arrest accounts..
Conflicting resurrection stories but to mention a few...


can this gospel account really be divinely inspired?..or its just another heretic account?

Cc: Cloudgoddess johnydon22 CAPSLOCKED 4kings kevoh hopefullandlord EyehateGod valentinemary oglalasioux sirWere
felixomor anas09 kingebukasblog naijadeyhia image123 malvisguy212 honourhim jman05 oubenji winner01

Summary: can this gospel account really be divinely inspired?..or its just another heretic account?

[size=16pt]PAGANISM
REBRANDED[/size]

Why do these people say the same thing over and over? We have addressed this issues severally. Are y'all out of accusations?

I honestly dont think atheists are going to be bringing new arguments against christianity anytime soon.

EyeHateGod:
[b]PEGANISM
REBRANDED [/size]

You do realize that peganism is totally different from paganism

@op. Divine inspiration doesn't not entail a word for word dictation but an inspiration to write. Matthew clearly wrote only what he remembered and copied part of Mark's gospel.
Matthew was evidently old as at the time he wrote his account and most of the prophecies quoted from the old testament only came in later copies of the gospel and were not found in the oldest copies, so Matthew never quoted any old testament text to suit his account but copyists did so. As for the genealogy account, Matthew was tracing Jesus' lineage through the legal father but Luke was tracing Jesus' lineage according to the flesh since Joseph wasn't responsible for Mary's conception.

raphieMontella:

In Matthew 27:9...Matthew falsely claimed that Jeremiah made a prophecy about the purchase of the potters field

There is NO Place in Jeremiah that this statement is made...
Biblical scholars suggested that Matthew was quoting "loosely" a
statement that was actually written by Zechariah
(11:12-13) rather than Jeremiah. If this is true, then
one can only wonder why a divinely inspired writer, being guided by the omniscient Holy Spirit,
would have said Jeremiah instead of Zechariah.
?[/b]

I don't know were to start from bro, but you are sooo wrong. The other verses you quote are NOT prophecy, matthew is not trying to say jesus fulfilled the prophecies in the verses you quote, matthew is only COMPARING the MINISTRY of jesus and the history of israel, for example when hariod kill the new born babies matthew chapter 2, matthew compare The tragedy with EXILE of the jews. I will only address the potter field. Alright.

Matthew 27:9 says this
prophesy was "SPOKEN by Jeremy...

Some prophecies were spoken and not written. Some others were not spoken but only written, while some others were both spoken and written. When we read a Prophecy in the bible that say " IT IS WRITTEN". Then for sure we can find it in scripture, since it is guarantee in the scripture that it was WRITTEN. But when it say it was SPOKEN, we may not find it written or we may find it. BUT it may not guarantee that it was WRITTEN. What is guarantee is that is was spoken.

KingEbukasBlog:


You do realize that peganism is totally different from paganism

@modified

raphieMontella:
Author=Anonymous
Dating=
[b]In Matthew 2:23..he claimed that a prophecy that Jesus would be called a Nazarene(an inhabitant of Nazareth) was fulfiled

As a matter of fact,bible scholars have not found any statement from any old testament prophet that could be referenced to this...
The word Nazareth, as well as
Nazarene, was never even mentioned in the Old
Testament?[/b]

Are you sure you are a christian before converting to atheist ? A Nazarene, is he also a nazereth ?
Matthew 2:23
And he went and lived in a city called Nazareth,
so that what was SPOKEN by the prophets might
be fulfilled, that he would be called a Nazarene.

The prophecy was SPOKEN so is was not necessarily written. First, you must understand that a "Nazarene" is not a "Nazarite." There's the Nazerite vow (Numbers 6:13), Samson was a Nazarite (Judges 13:5,24), but a "Nazarene" simply means a citizen of Nazarite. There are
passages in the Old Testament which say Jesus would be called a Nazarene, but it's a matter of what is meant by the term "Nazarene." A
"Nazarene" came to be a synonym for one who is contemptible or despised (John 1:46). We see similar terms today dealing with racism and nationalism. But notice that the
previous two prophesies in Matthew 2; verse 15 says "the prophet, saying..." (singular) then he quotes directly from the scripture; verse 17
says "Jeremiah the prophet, saying..." (singular) then he quotes directly from Jeremiah. But notice how verse 23 is worded, "which was
spoken by the prophets,..." (plural) and there's no word "saying" indicating a direct quote, "He shall be called a Nazarene." Notice the difference? It's because Matthew is using a summation statement. He's using something that the people of his time would be familiar with which would state the same thing that the
prophets stated in Isaiah 49:7; 53:3, Psalm 22:6, that he would be despised.

winner01:
Why do these people say the same thing over and over? We have addressed this issues severally. Are y'all out of accusations?

I honestly dont think atheists are going to be bringing new arguments against christianity anytime soon.

My brother I just tire.

From rain to water to vapour to rain

Their whole argument life is just like a water cycle.

Mscheww

winner01:
Why do these people say the same thing over and over? We have addressed this issues severally. Are y'all out of accusations?

I honestly dont think atheists are going to be bringing new arguments against christianity anytime soon.

aint seen it before....
Can u answer?

lordnicklaus:
@op. Divine inspiration doesn't not entail a word for word dictation but an inspiration to write. Matthew clearly wrote only what he remembered and copied part of Mark's gospel.
Matthew was evidently old as at the time he wrote his account and most of the prophecies quoted from the old testament only came in later copies of the gospel and were not found in the oldest copies, so Matthew never quoted any old testament text to suit his account but copyists did so. As for the genealogy account, Matthew was tracing Jesus' lineage through the legal father but Luke was tracing Jesus' lineage according to the flesh since Joseph wasn't responsible for Mary's conception.

Luke says explicitly that it is Joseph's genealogy
(Luke 3:23).
So?

malvisguy212:
Are you sure you are a christian before converting to atheist ? A Nazarene, is he also a nazereth ?
Matthew 2:23
And he went and lived in a city called Nazareth,
so that what was SPOKEN by the prophets might
be fulfilled, that he would be called a Nazarene.

The prophecy was SPOKEN so is was not necessarily written. First, you must understand that a "Nazarene" is not a "Nazarite." There's the Nazerite vow (Numbers 6:13), Samson was a Nazarite (Judges 13:5,24), but a "Nazarene" simply means a citizen of Nazarite. There are
passages in the Old Testament which say Jesus would be called a Nazarene, but it's a matter of what is meant by the term "Nazarene." A
"Nazarene" came to be a synonym for one who is contemptible or despised (John 1:46). We see similar terms today dealing with racism and nationalism. But notice that the
previous two prophesies in Matthew 2; verse 15 says "the prophet, saying..." (singular) then he quotes directly from the scripture; verse 17
says "Jeremiah the prophet, saying..." (singular) then he quotes directly from Jeremiah. But notice how verse 23 is worded, "which was
spoken by the prophets,..." (plural) and there's no word "saying" indicating a direct quote, "He shall be called a Nazarene." Notice the difference? It's because Matthew is using a summation statement. He's using something that the people of his time would be familiar with which would state the same thing that the
prophets stated in Isaiah 49:7; 53:3, Psalm 22:6, that he would be despised.

The verse in judges describes an angel speaking to the mother of
Samson, telling her that her son "shall be a
Nazirite." This is not only not a messianic prophecy,
it can't be what Matthew is referring to.
A Nazirite is different from a Nazarene. A Nazarene is an
inhabitant of Nazareth, but a Nazirite is a Jew who has taken special vows to abstain from all wine and
grapes, not to cut his hair, and to perform special
sacrifices (see Leviticus 6:1-21). Jesus drank wine (Matthew 26:29, Mark 14:25, Luke 22:18), and so could not have been a Nazirite....
And ''Nazara'' means truth..
Nazareth is gotten from ''Neser/Nester''

psalm 53 is even considered by jewish scholars to be the sufferings of israel...not a messianic prophecy...no even was too trival for matthew..why?


What of the other prophecies?

malvisguy212:
I don't know were to start from bro, but you are sooo wrong. The other verses you quote are NOT prophecy, matthew is not trying to say jesus fulfilled the prophecies in the verses you quote, matthew is only COMPARING the MINISTRY of jesus and the history of israel, for example when hariod kill the new born babies matthew chapter 2, matthew compare The tragedy with EXILE of the jews.

check ur bible...matthew claimed jesus's life was a fulfilment of those prophecies/non-prophecies

I will only address the potter field. Alright.

Matthew 27:9 says this
prophesy was "SPOKEN by Jeremy...

Some prophecies were spoken and not written. Some others were not spoken but only written, while some others were both spoken and written.

.This is at best a far-fetched quibble that fails to take note of the fact that Matthew routinely introduced
written "prophecies" by saying that they had been spoken by so-and-so.
E.g Matt 2:17-18,,Matt 1:22,,Matt4:14,,Matt 12:17..that was matthew's style of writing..

When we read a Prophecy in the bible that say " IT IS WRITTEN". Then for sure we can find it in scripture, since it is guarantee in the scripture that it was WRITTEN. But when it say it was SPOKEN, we may not find it written or we may find it. BUT it may not guarantee that it was WRITTEN. What is guarantee is that is was spoken.

so can u produce where Jer said it?

felixomor:

My brother I just tire.
From rain to water to vapour to rain
Their whole argument life is just like a water cycle.
Mscheww

no answer ?

raphieMontella:

no answer ?

U cant read?

felixomor:

U cant read?

k..you cant help matthew..

raphieMontella:

k..you cant help matthew..

Lol, who put him in trouble, u?

raphieMontella:

check ur bible...matthew claimed jesus's life was a fulfilment of those prophecies/non-prophecies

.This is at best a far-fetched quibble that fails to take note of the fact that Matthew routinely introduced
written "prophecies" by saying that they had been spoken by so-and-so.
E.g Matt 2:17-18,,Matt 1:22,,Matt4:14,,Matt 12:17..that was matthew's style of writing..

so can u produce where Jer said it?

Read my post again, The prophecy were FIRST Spoken by jeremiah but NOT written, then Zechariah wrote The prophesy down. In fact Zechariah did not mention potter field, why ? Because jeremiah has already made reference to that. Jeremiah 32:9–12

raphieMontella:

Luke says explicitly that it is Joseph's genealogy
(Luke 3:23).
So?

Luke, calls Joseph the son of Heli following a Jewish custom of calling a son-in-law, his father-in-law's son. Heli was actually Mary's father but Luke attributed sonship to Joseph. So, there is actually no discrepancy.

malvisguy212:
Read my post again, The prophecy were FIRST Spoken by jeremiah but NOT written, then Zechariah wrote The prophesy down. In fact Zechariah did not mention potter field, why ? Because jeremiah has already made reference to that. Jeremiah 32:9–12

9 “I bought the field that was at Anathoth from Hanamel my uncle’s son, and weighed out the
money for him, seventeen shekels of silver . 10 I signed the deed and sealed it, and called in
witnesses, and weighed out the money on the
scales. ..



There are three things wrong with this:
a. There were no "pieces of silver" used as currency
in Jesus' time - they had gone out of circulation
about 300 years before.
b. In Jesus' time, minted coins were used - currency
was not "weighed out.
c.Matthew said 30 pieces not 70
"By using phrases that made sense in Zechariah's
time but not in Jesus' time Matthew once again
gives away the fact that he creates events in his
gospel to match "prophecies" he finds in the Old
Testament.

lordnicklaus:


Luke, calls Joseph the son of Heli following a Jewish custom of calling a son-in-law, his father-in-law's son. Heli was actually Mary's father but Luke attributed sonship to Joseph. So, there is actually no discrepancy.

then they still trace back to david..
Who's lying? Matthew or Luke?

raphieMontella:
then they still trace back to david.. Who's lying? Matthew or Luke?

None. Jesus is a descendant of David through both lineages.

raphieMontella:

9 “I bought the field that was at Anathoth from Hanamel my uncle’s son, and weighed out the
money for him, seventeen shekels of silver . 10 I signed the deed and sealed it, and called in
witnesses, and weighed out the money on the
scales. ..



There are three things wrong with this:
a. There were no "pieces of silver" used as currency
in Jesus' time - they had gone out of circulation
about 300 years before.
b. In Jesus' time, minted coins were used - currency
was not "weighed out.
c.Matthew said 30 pieces not 70
"By using phrases that made sense in Zechariah's
time but not in Jesus' time Matthew once again
gives away the fact that he creates events in his
gospel to match "prophecies" he finds in the Old
Testament.

In Matthew, the chief priests
took the money returned by Judas; in Zechariah, Zechariah requested wages from the people. In Matthew, Judas threw the money on the ground before the chief priests; in Zechariah, Zechariah was told to throw the money “to the potter,” which was achieved by throwing it into the house of the Lord for the potter. Matthew’s greatest emphasis is on the acquisition of a potter’s field. Zechariah says NOTHING about a field.

raphieMontella:
Author=Anonymous
Dating= Suspected to be around 80-100C.E though it may have been composed during the mid-2nd century as 1st century and early 2nd century christian apologists make no reference or citations to it.
Source of most of its contents=Biblical Markan Gospel.

ATHEISTS NEVER MENTION THAT GOSPEL WRITERS WERE IN DANGER OF THEIR LIVES.

The people acclaimed as "CHRISTIAN APOLOGISTS" were standards of WHAT, exactly?

The gospel of matthew is largely regarded as an account of a zealous fictional jewish christian writer who was neither an apostle of jesus nor an eyewitness to the period of jesus's life....

. MATTHEW 9:9.

9. And as Jesus passed forth from thence,
he saw a man, named Matthew,
sitting at the receipt of custom:
and he saith unto him,
“Follow me.”
And he arose, and followed him.

. MATTHEW 10:1-4.

AND when he had called unto him his twelve Disciples,
he gave them power against unclean spirits, to cast them out,
and to heal all manner of sickness and all manner of disease.
2. Now the names of the twelve Apostles are these;
The first, Simon, who is called Peter, and Andrew his brother;
James the son of Zebedee, and John his brother;
3. Philip, and Bartholomew;
Thomas, and Matthew the publican;
James the son of Alphaeus,
and Lebbaeus, whose surname was Thaddaeus;
4. Simon the Canaanite, and Judas Iscariot,
who also betrayed him.

WHEN YOU CONSULT BIBLE CRITICS, INSTEAD OF THE BIBLE...

The book itself begins with a contradiction..
Matthew and Luke give two contradictory
genealogies for Joseph
(Matthew 1:2-17 and Luke 3:23-38). Matthew and Luke cannot even agree on who the father of Joseph was...

. MATTHEW 1:15-17.

15. And Eliud begat Eleazar; and Eleazar begat Matthan;
and Matthan begat Jacob;
16. And Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary,
of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ.
17. So all the Generations
from Abraham to David are fourteen Generations;
and from David until the carrying away into Babylon
are fourteen Generations;
and from the carrying away into Babylon
unto Christ are fourteen Generations.

. LUKE 2:4-5.

4. And Joseph also went up from Galilee,
out of the city of Nazareth,
into Judaea, unto the city of David,
which is called Bethlehem;
[because he was of the house and lineage of David:]
5. To be taxed with Mary his espoused wife,
being great with child.

. LUKE 3:23-24.

23. And Jesus himself began to be about thirty years of age,
being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph,
which was (the son) of Heli,
24. Which was (the son) of Matthat, which was (the son) of Levi,
which was (the son) of Melchi, which was (the son) of Janna,
which was (the son) of Joseph,

IN THE KING JAMES VERSION PROTESTANT BIBLE, THE TRANSLATORS WENT TO GREAT PAINS TO ITALICIZE WORDS THAT THEY ADDED TO THEIR TRANSLATION THAT WERE NOT IN THE ORIGINAL TEXT, IN ORDER TO RENDER WHAT THEY THOUGHT THE WRITERS WERE SAYING, IN THEIR OYINBO BARBARIAN LANGUAGE.

Organized Atheism knows this, of course- but you are playing on the ignorance of the average local Christian, who not only does not know why words are italicized in The King James Version Bible, but they do not even care.

The Bible never said that Joseph was "THE SON OF HELI", but that he was "OF HELI."

HELI, that is "ELI" being the father of MARY, Yahshua's mother.

The point being to show that Yahshua had lineage to DAVID and JUDAH through his MOTHER.

This was as a result of the writers trying to explain fix the messianic Jesus into the descendants of David which was supposed to be the literal(natural) bloodline of the messiah..

Which they did a great job of.

All the Ancient Hebrews could trace their lineages back to Adam and Eve.

This was important, if they had to prove that they weren't some Gentile spy, or illegitimate.

The apostle Paul says that Jesus "was born of the
seed of David" (Romans 1:3). Here the word "seed" is literally in the Greek "sperma." This same Greek
word is translated in other verses as "descendant(s)" or "offspring." The point is that the Messiah had
to be a physical descendant of King David through
the male line. That Jesus had to be a physical
descendant of David means that even if Joseph had legally adopted Jesus,Jesus would still not qualify as Messiah
if he had been born of a virgin - seed from the line
of David was required...

WHAT PAUL SAYS IS UNIMPORTANT, AS HIS PURPOSE WAS, FROM THE BEGINNING, TO DESTROY THE GOSPEL.

Which he did, both from the inside and the outside.

Finally, he deliberately sacrificed his own life, in order to begin the TEN ROMAN EMPEROR PERSECUTION.

[See my Blog: PAUL: THE FALSE APOSTLE.]

This also proves that the apostle Paul had no idea of the acclaimed virgin birth prophecy matthew claimed was fulfiled in matthew 1:22-23:

PAUL WAS MAKING YAHSHUA OBNOXIOUS TO ANY JEWS WHO MIGHT BE DRAWN TO HIM THROUGH HIS PREACHING.

Therefore, he said, for instance that YAHSHUA thought it not robbery to be equal with God.

. PHILIPPIANS 2:5-8.

5. Let this mind be in you,
which was also in Christ Jesus:
6. Who, being in the form of God,
thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
7. But made himself of no reputation,
and took upon him the form of a servant,
and was made in the likeness of men:
8. And being found in fashion as a man,
he humbled himself,
and became obedient unto death,
even the death of the cross.

. JOHN 5:16-18.

16. And therefore did the Jews
persecute Jesus,
and sought to slay him,
because he had done these things
on the Sabbath Day.
17. But Jesus answered them,
“My Father worketh hitherto, and I work.”
18. Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him,
because he not only had broken the Sabbath,
but said also that God was his Father,
making himself equal with God.

THIS WAS THE PHARISEE ALLEGATION AGAINST HIM- THAT SAYING THAT HE WAS THE SON OF GOD MEANT THAT HE WAS SAYING THAT HE WAS EQUAL WITH GOD- THAT WAS THE PRETEXT FOR HIS EXECUTION.

. MARK 14:61-64.

61. But he held his peace, and answered nothing.
Again the High Priest asked him, and said unto him,
“Art thou the Christ, the Son of the Blessed?”
62. And Jesus said,
“I am: and ye shall see the Son of Man
sitting on the Right Hand of Power,
and Coming in the Clouds of Heaven.”
63. Then the High Priest rent his clothes, and saith,
“What need we any further witnesses?
64. “Ye have heard the Blasphemy: what think ye?”
And they all condemned him to be guilty of death.

. JOHN 14:28.

28. "Ye have heard how I said unto you,

'I GO AWAY, AND COME AGAIN UNTO YOU.'

If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said,

'I GO UNTO THE FATHER:'

for my Father is greater than I."

PAUL DELIBERATELY DISTORTED THE GOSPEL, IN ORDER TO SHUT CHRISTIANITY DOWN.

In the original context, however,
Isaiah made this statement as a sign to Ahaz, king
of Judah, that an alliance recently formed against him by Rezin, the king of Syria, and Pekah, the king of Israel, would not succeed in defeating him. The
Lord (Yahweh), as he was prone to do in those days, had sent Isaiah to reassure Ahaz that the
alliance would not prevail. Isaiah begged Ahaz to ask for a sign that his prophecy was true
.Finally,
Isaiah said to him, "Hear now, O house of David! Is it a small thing for you to weary men, but will you
weary my God also? Therefore Yahweh Himself will
give you a sign: Behold, the virgin shall conceive,
and bear a Son, and shall call his name
Immanuel" (Isaiah 7:13-14).
The context
clearly shows that this so-called prophecy was made not to foretell the birth of Jesus some 700
years later but the birth of a child to that time and
that situation.(believed to be isaiah's wife)
How could a birth that would happen 700 years later, after Ahaz was dead and the battles
had long since been fought, have been a sign to
him that the Syrian-Israelite alliance would fail?.
"Immanuel". Since that name means
"God with us", it was supposed to show Ahaz that
God was on his side..Mary nor Joseph never called Jesus ''Immanuel''
The Hebrew word "almah" which is used in the
Isaiah verse does not mean "virgin" but "young
woman" and mean the ''young woman'' is with child/pregnant.. It is correctly translated in the Tanakh, the
Revised Standard Version, the Revised English
Bible, and the New Jerusalem Bible,and the Catholic bible..

"OOH! YOU KNOW WHAT THE TERM "TANAKH" IS- YOU MUST KNOW WHAT YOU ARE TALKING ABOUT, THEN!"

If the term did not mean "VIRGIN," Matthew would not have used it.

That would be completely absurd.

People were laying down their lives for these Teachings; they were not going to follow some stupid contrived nonsense that did not make any sense.

[b]IF THE TERM ONLY MEANT "YOUNG WOMAN," THAT WOULD NOT BE A "SIGN!"

However The Hebrew word "bethulah" means "virgin." In
the book of Isaiah, "bethulah" appears four times (23:12, 37:22, 47:1, 62:5), so its author was aware of the word;and would have used the word ''bethulah'' since that concept was totally foreign to them and would have been a remarkable event[/b]
This was most likely as a result of trying to elevate the christian mystic saviour's status to god-man/superrnatural as opposing organizations like the cult of asclepius and most christian followers at that time were gentiles who were conditioned by pagan beliefs..


OTHER FALSE PROPHECIES

This objection by ANTICHRISTS is not new.

. ISAIAH 55:6-11.

6. Seek ye The LORD while He may be found,
call ye upon Him while he is near:
7. Let the Wicked forsake his Way,
and the Unrighteous man his Thoughts:
and let him return unto The LORD,
and He will have Mercy upon him;
and to our God,
for He will abundantly Pardon.

8. "FOR MY THOUGHTS ARE NOT YOUR THOUGHTS,
NEITHER ARE YOUR WAYS MY WAYS," SAITH THE LORD.
9. "FOR AS THE HEAVENS ARE HIGHER THAN THE EARTH,
SO ARE MY WAYS HIGHER THAN YOUR WAYS,
AND MY THOUGHTS THAN YOUR THOUGHTS.
10. "FOR AS THE RAIN COMETH DOWN,
AND THE SNOW FROM HEAVEN,
AND RETURNETH NOT THITHER,
BUT WATERETH THE EARTH,
AND MAKETH IT BRING FORTH AND BUD,
THAT IT MAY GIVE SEED TO THE SOWER,
AND BREAD TO THE EATER:
11. "SO SHALL MY WORD BE
THAT GOETH FORTH OUT OF MY MOUTH:
IT SHALL NOT RETURN UNTO ME VOID,
BUT IT SHALL ACCOMPLISH
THAT WHICH I PLEASE,
AND IT SHALL PROSPER
IN THE THING WHERETO I SENT IT."

ANY MIRACLE GOD DID ONCE CAN BE REPEATED.

The Word that ISAIAH Prophesied became a GATEWAY through which the same manifestation could occur.

In Spiritual Power Systems, "COINCIDENCES" happen, caused by the same Spiritual Power manifesting the same way.

[See: JOURNEY TO IXTLAN, by Carlos Castaneda.
THE SECOND RING OF POWER, by Carlos Castaneda.
THE CELESTINE PROPHECY, by James Redfield.]

Moving on..
In Matthew 2:4-6..He claims that the prophecy in Micah 5:2 was fulfiled..

"Bethlehem Ephrathah" is the name of the descendants of eprahtah and also the name of a person
person: Bethlehem the son (or grandson) of
Ephrathah (1 Chronicles 4:4, 2:50-51)
This prophecy could therefore refer to either a native of
the clan or to a descendent of the person. If the
latter, Jesus does not qualify since neither of his
alleged genealogies list
either Bethlehem or Ephrathah.

I thought that your brain was slow, but it seems that it is actually in reverse gear...!

. MICAH 5:2.

2. But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah,
though thou be little among the thousands of Judah,
yet out of thee shall he come forth unto Me
that is to be Ruler in Israel;
whose goings forth have been from of old,
from Everlasting.

. MATTHEW 5:1-6.

NOW when Jesus was born
in Bethlehem of Judaea
in the days of Herod the king,
behold, there came Wise Men
from the East to Jerusalem,
2. Saying,
"Where is he that is born King of the Jews?
for we have seen his Star in the East,
and are come to worship him."
3. When Herod the king had heard these things,
he was troubled, and all Jerusalem with him.
4. And when he had gathered
all the Chief Priests and Scribes of the people together,
he demanded of them where Christ should be born.
5. And they said unto him,
"In Bethlehem of Judaea:
for thus it is written by the Prophet,

6. AND THOU BETHLEHEM,
IN THE LAND OF JUDA,
ART NOT THE LEAST
AMONG THE PRINCES OF JUDA:
FOR OUT OF THEE
SHALL COME A GOVERNOR,
THAT SHALL RULE
MY PEOPLE ISRAEL."

HEROD asked his Scripture Experts where it was prophesied that The Messiah should be born, and they all said, "BETHLEHEM: BECAUSE OF MICAH 5:2!"

All your stupid theories about what EPHRATAH, PARANTA, BANANA, or WHATEVER, are totally irrelevant!

The Prophecy plainly says that the Messiah would be born in BETHLEHEM.

There is NO SANE WAY to misinterpret that!

BERTRAND RUSSELL, who is, like, the patron saint of Atheism, said that he wanted governments to teach schoolchildren that "SNOW IS BLACK," and that any schoolchild who rejected this lie should be regarded as their mates as CRAZY (sic)!

[See: THE IMPACT OF SCIENCE ON SOCIETY, by Bertrand Russell.]

Moving on..

In Matthew 2:17,,Matthew claimed the fulfilment of a NON-prophecy in Hosea11:1

But..the passage Hosea 11:1 actually reads:When isreal was a child,I loved him,and out of Egypt I called my son..
However, Matthew quotes only the second half of Hosea 11:1. The first half of the verse makes it very clear that the verse refers to God
calling the Israelites out of Egypt in the exodus led
by Moses, and has nothing to do with Jesus....

REALLY?

. EXODUS 4:21-23.

21. And The LORD said unto Moses,
"When thou goest to return into Egypt,
see that thou do all those Wonders before Pharaoh,
which I have put in thine hand:
but I will harden his heart,
that he shall not let the People go.
22. "And thou shalt say unto Pharaoh,

'THUS SAITH THE LORD,

"ISRAEL IS MY SON,
EVEN MY FIRSTBORN:
23. "AND I SAY UNTO THEE,

'LET MY SON GO,
THAT HE MAY SERVE ME:'

AND IF THOU REFUSE TO LET HIM GO,
BEHOLD, I WILL SLAY THY SON,
EVEN THY FIRSTBORN.' “

. HOSEA 11:1.

WHEN Israel was a child,
then I loved him,
and called My Son out of Egypt.

. MATTHEW 2:15.

15. And was there until the death of Herod:
that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord
by the Prophet, saying,

"OUT OF EGYPT HAVE I CALLED MY SON."

WHATEVER GOD (OR ANY SPIRIT BEING) DOES IS A SPIRITUAL LAW.

This Law can be executed indefinitely.

You do not get to say:

"THAT LAW WAS FULFILLED ONCE- THAT IS THE END OF THE POWER OF GOD- IT CANNOT BE EXECUTED AGAIN!"

Where did you learn Spiritual Law?

Have you ever used a Spiritual Law before?

Have you ever consciously performed a Miracle, or deliberately received a Miracle?

What gives you the arrogance to tell Worshippers of God what is, and what is not a Prophecy of our God?

Are you Worshippers of our God also?

IF A SON OF GOD IS IN AN EGYPT-LIKE BONDAGE OR LOCATION, GOD CALLS HIM OUT.

Is that difficult for you to understand?

[You know- Vitamin B-Complex is said to do wonders for Brain Function!

You should also refrain from combining ASPARTAME and MONOSODIUM GLUTAMATE: together, they cause Brain Damage.]

Moving on..
In Matthew 2:17..Matthew claimed that Jeremiah 31:15 was fulfiled

. JEREMIAH 31:15.

15. Thus saith The LORD;
“A Voice was heard in Ramah,
lamentation, (and) bitter weeping;
Rahel weeping for her children
refused to be comforted for her children,
because they (were) not.”

. MATTHEW 2:16-18.

16. Then Herod, when he saw
that he was mocked of the wise men,
was exceeding wroth,
and sent forth, and slew all
the children that were in Bethlehem,
and in all the coasts thereof,
from two years old and under,
according to the time
which he had diligently enquired
of the wise men.
17. Then was fulfilled
that which was spoken
by Jeremy the Prophet, saying,

18. “IN RAMA WAS THERE A VOICE HEARD,
LAMENTATION, AND WEEPING, AND GREAT MOURNING,
RACHEL WEEPING FOR HER CHILDREN,
AND WOULD NOT BE COMFORTED,
BECAUSE THEY ARE NOT.”

This is a pure invention on Matthew's part. Herod
was guilty of many monstrous crimes, including the
murder of several members of his own family.

IF YOU REALLY KNOW THIS FOR A FACT, WHY DON'T YOU LIST THEM FOR US?

Why don't you list these crimes, and name the people whom Herod murdered?

JOHN THE BAPTIST called the second Herod out for Adultery, and got jailed and kept as a pet Advisor.

Finally, he was killed on a whim.

People who wrote about Yahshua were summarily executed, and their writings destroyed.

The four Gospels we have were merely survivors of that purge.

However,it is not mentioned in neither Apocrypha nor the Talmud, ancient historians such as Josephus, who
delighted in listing Herod's crimes, do not mention
what would have been Herod's greatest crime by far. It simply didn't happen.

Which SURVIVING APOCRYPHA should have reported that?

Anybody carrying that would be a marked person!

Why should THE TALMUD contain such a report?

THE CHIEF PRIESTS AND SCRIBES CAUSED THAT MASSACRE.

Why should they have recorded that, and, not only lent authentication to Yahshua's existence and importance, but also provide grounds for their family lines to be excluded from leadership roles in the future?

Still moving..
In Matthew 2:23..he claimed that a prophecy that Jesus would be called a Nazarene(an inhabitant of Nazareth) was fulfiled

As a matter of fact,bible scholars have not found any statement from any old testament prophet that could be referenced to this...
The word Nazareth, as well as
Nazarene, was never even mentioned in the Old
Testament.

. NUMBERS 6:1-8.

AND the LORD spake unto Moses, saying,
2. "Speak unto The Children of Israel, and say unto them,
'When either man or woman shall separate themselves
to vow a vow of a Nazarite,
to separate themselves unto the LORD:
3. "He shall separate himself from wine and strong drink,
and shall drink no vinegar of wine, or vinegar of strong drink,
neither shall he drink any liquor of grapes,
nor eat moist grapes, or dried.
4. "All the days of his separation shall he eat
nothing that is made of the vine tree,
from the kernels even to the husk.
5. "All the days of the Vow of his Separation
there shall no razor come upon his head:
until the days be fulfilled,
in the which he separateth himself
unto the LORD, he shall be holy,
and shall let the locks of the hair of his head grow.
6. "All the days that he separateth himself unto the LORD
he shall come at no dead body.
7. "He shall not make himself unclean for his father,
or for his mother, for his brother, or for his sister,
when they die: because the Consecration of his God
is upon his head.
8. "All the days of his separation
he is holy unto the LORD."

I BELIEVE THAT EVERY CHRISTIAN BIBLE COMMENTATOR WILL BE FOUND TO HAVE TIED THAT REFERENCE TO THIS PASSAGE.

The "NAZARITE" was a class of HOLY MAN.

Matthew pointed out the SYNCRONICITY of The Messiah even being a "NAZARETH" resident.

Even Josephus who listed out the cities in galilee made no mention of Nazareth..

REALLY?

Why don't YOU give us his list?

What is stopping YOU from passing on this information?

Does it give you a BIG feeling, to tell us that information exists, then not pass this information on?

IF YOU CAN'T TALK ABOUT IT- AND NOBODY IS HOLDING A SWORD TO YOUR NECK- WHY SHOULD THE ANCIENTS, WHO WERE IN FEAR FOR THEIR LIVES?

Why should he list the cities in Galilee?

You put a LOT of stock in this JOSEPHUS guy- are you a JOSEPHITE, or something?

Didn't JOSEPHUS supposedly authenticate Yahshua's Existence- then your Scholars all said that it was a forgery?

Why should a NON-CHRISTIAN be a reliable Source for information of Yahshua?

Now this begs the question-Why would Yahweh,Jesus or the Holy spirit guide Matthew to make such a claim?

Gee... I dunno- maybe because IT WAS THE TRUTH?

Moving on...

In Matthew 21:1-7..Matthew claimed Zech9:9 was fulfiled..

No event was too trival for matthew to see prophecy fulfilment in it
There are two conspicuous points of difference in
Matthew's version of this event and Mark's and
Luke's: (1) Matthew had Jesus riding BOTH a
donkey and her colt;(Circus style;stunt rider)
Mark and Luke had Jesus
riding only a colt, and (2) Matthew saw it as
fulfillment of a prophecy; Mark and Luke said nothing at all about prophecy fulfillment being
involved...This on matthew's part is as a result of misunderstanding
hebrew poetry...as this is a case of parallel emphasis
Examples of parallel emphasis in the bible include Zech 7:1,,Zech 12:6,,Deut 4:13 etc...
Lets move on..
In Matthew 27:9...Matthew falsely claimed that Jeremiah made a prophecy about the purchase of the potters field

There is NO Place in Jeremiah that this statement is made...
Biblical scholars suggested that Matthew was quoting "loosely" a
statement that was actually written by Zechariah
(11:12-13) rather than Jeremiah. If this is true, then
one can only wonder why a divinely inspired writer, being guided by the omniscient Holy Spirit,
would have said Jeremiah instead of Zechariah.
Why would Yahweh,Jesus or the Holy spirit guide Matthew to make such a claim?
looking closely at the suggested zech11:12-13...it stresses largely on the word ''ME''
Also,,Many versions (RSV, NRSV, JB, NAB, REB, GNB, NWT translate this passage to read ''Treasury''



Matthew, in his zeal to prove that Jesus was the
Messiah, searched the Old Testament for passages
(sometimes just phrases) that could be construed
as messianic prophecies and then created or
modified events in Jesus' life to fulfill those
"prophecies.''...he was however,,also a fictional writer and an inventor..
E.g The massacre of kids by herod...
The invasion of Jerusalem by zombies(matt 27:52-53),,The instant withering of the fig tree...which creates a contradictory account to mark's own account(mark may have been symbolic#the destruction of the temple in Jerusalem in 70AD though God was with them)

[color=blue]CONTRADICTIONS IN MATTHEW IN RELATION TO THE OTHER GOSPELS
The status of the fig tree...
The number of blind men on the road to jericho...
Where Jesus met his disciples before converting them...
The colour of Jesus's robe...
Contradictions on Jesus's utterances at pilate's hearing..
Conflicting arrest accounts..
Conflicting resurrection stories but to mention a few...


can this gospel account really be divinely inspired?..or its just another heretic account?

THE DOCTRINE OF THE "DIVINE INSPIRATION" OF THE WHOLE BIBLE IS WICKED MYSTERY BABYLON ROMAN CATHOLIC DOCTRINE, AND NOT RELEVANT TO PROTESTANT CHRISTIANITY.

The usefulness of The Bible is not based on the accuracy of its authors.

. JOHN 16:12-15.

12. "I have yet many things to say unto you,
but ye cannot bear them now.
13. "Howbeit when He,
the Spirit of Truth, is come,
He will guide you into all Truth:
for He shall not speak of Himself;
but whatsoever He shall hear,
that shall He speak:
and He will shew you things to come.
14. "He shall glorify me:
for He shall receive of mine,
and shall shew It unto you.
15. "All things that the Father hath are mine:
therefore said I,

'THAT HE SHALL TAKE OF MINE,
AND SHALL SHEW IT UNTO YOU.' "

THE DISCIPLE OF YAHSHUA IS SUPPOSED TO RECEIVE THE HOLY GHOST FOR HIMSELF, AND SEE WITH HIS OWN SENSES, WHAT ACTUALLY HAPPENED DURING THE BIBLE EVENTS.

. JOHN 5:19-20.

19. Then answered Jesus and said unto them,
"Verily, verily, I say unto you,

'THE SON CAN DO
NOTHING OF HIMSELF,
BUT WHAT HE SEETH
THE FATHER DO:'

for what things soever he doeth,
these also doeth the Son likewise.
20. "For the Father loveth the Son,
and sheweth him all things that Himself doeth:
and he will shew him greater works than these,
that ye may marvel."

. JOHN 14:12.

12. "Verily, verily, I say unto you,

'HE THAT BELIEVETH ON ME,
THE WORKS THAT I DO SHALL HE DO ALSO;'

and greater works than these shall he do;
because I go unto my Father."

A SERIOUS PERSON IS INTERESTED IN YAHSHUA- NOT IN PEOPLE TALKING ABOUT YAHSHUA.

"WHEN THE WISE MAN POINTS AT THE MOON,
THE FOOL LOOKS AT HIS FINGER!" - Confucius.

I don't care what Confucius looked like, what his lineage was, what clothes he wore, or didn't wear.

His WISDOM is important.

We know that THE ILLUMINATI Zionists, Luciferans, Roman Catholics, Freemasons, and other fools just want THE BIBLE gone.

We know that you are our Enemies.

You are not here to help reveal The power of God, but to cover it from Public View.

We need to listen to you, WHY?

lordnicklaus:


None. Jesus is a descendant of David through both lineages.

jesus does not qualify as a descendant of david...because to the supposd ''virgin'' birth..
They were tryna fix jesus into it...
And how do u know luke was talking of mary??
Neither luke nor matthew listed bethlehem/ephratath which is a significant point for the messiah...

malvisguy212:
In Matthew, the chief priests
took the money returned by Judas; in Zechariah, Zechariah requested wages from the people. In Matthew, Judas threw the money on the ground before the chief priests; in Zechariah, Zechariah was told to throw the money “to the potter,” which was achieved by throwing it into the house of the Lord for the potter. Matthew’s greatest emphasis is on the acquisition of a potter’s field. Zechariah says NOTHING about a field.

and in matthew he still said the prophet jeremiah said 30 shekels of silver....jeremiah said 70...

So??

raphieMontella:

jesus does not qualify as a descendant of david...because to the supposd ''virgin'' birth..
They were tryna fix jesus into it...
And how do u know luke was talking of mary??
Neither luke nor matthew listed bethlehem/ephratath which is a significant point for the messiah...

Mary was a descendant of David through Nathan. A gospel mentions Bethlehem Ephrathah which is in Judah. There were two towns named Bethlehem, one in Judah and the other just north. Bethlehem of Judah is Bethlehem Ephrathah. Luke traced Jesus' lineage according to the flesh while Matthew was tracing according to adoption. And I told you on the onset of my replies that the oldest text for Matthew doesn't have any Old Testament quotation and that the quotes came in late copies.

lordnicklaus:


Mary was a descendant of David through Nathan. A gospel mentions Bethlehem Ephrathah which is in Judah. There were two towns named Bethlehem, one in Judah and the other just north.
Luke traced Jesus' lineage according to the flesh while Matthew was tracing according to adoption.

David was from Judah. Elisabeth, the
priest's wife, was from Levi. Mary was the
cousin of Elisabeth, so she should have been from Levi rather than Judah. If so, Jesus could not
have claimed Davidic descent from Mary..

Bethlehem of Judah is Bethlehem Ephrathah.

betlehem ephrathah is a clan..not a town...and that is not judah...

And I told you on the onset of my replies that the oldest text for Matthew doesn't have any Old Testament quotation and that the quotes came in late copies.

IOW..the bible is errant?

Wait wait m lost here...u're saying jesus was not supernaturally implanted by God?

---

Also there are dire issues in the genealohy

There were 40 / 42 / 55 generations from
Abraham to Jesus
matt listed forty and still claimed it to be 42...while luke twas 55
(Matt1:2-16,17...luke 3)

---

the number of generations from david to jesus..matt said 28..luke said 42...

There were two / five generations between Joram and Jotham.(matt 1:8..1chr 3 :10-13
etc

raphieMontella:


can this gospel account really be divinely inspired?..or its just another heretic account?

Yes it was, you wouldn't know if it was would you? It's like a blind man asking me how there's green colour in the Nigerian flag.