I am writing this in an attempt to reason with OR correct the views held by (I hope, my friend) Toks2008.

He holds the view that "a woman is permitted to divorce a man only due to DESERTION(abandonment) and he made attempt to quote 1 Cor 7:15 to buttress his point...

I rather will advise that to understand Paul in his message to the churches in corinthian, one may have to read that portion of the bible from verse 1.

When you do, you will see when Paul referred to God and when he stressed that he was speaking of his own and not from God...from vs 12 -15 (he said that it was his own statement and not from God)
This portion actually was trying to explain the 2nd reason for divorce which is ABANDONMENT or DESERTION by an UNBELIEVER. And it was meant for both men and women.

Matt 5:32 has Jesus confirming the law of Moses again in Matt 19:9...This doesn't mean that the law was meant for only men here rather it is by extension also binding to women...(reason being that in the kingdom of God, there is no man and no woman).
AND REMEMBER
Jesus was responding to the question raised by the Jews who specifically asked due to their selfish and domineering laws over women (Matt 19:1 - 9)...

However, the bible says in Mal 2:16 that God hates divorce...this means that even though there are two grounds for divorce to be acceptable (Matt 19:9 & 1 Cor 7:15), it should be used be as a final resort...barring failure in every attempt for reconciliation...

Stoicbaba:
I am writing this in an attempt to reason with OR correct the views held by (I hope, my friend) Toks2008.

He holds the view that "a woman is permitted to divorce a man only due to DESERTION(abandonment) and he made attempt to quote 1 Cor 7:15 to buttress his point...

I rather will advise that to understand Paul in his message to the churches in corinthian, one may have to read that portion of the bible from verse 1.

When you do, you will see when Paul referred to God and when he stressed that he was speaking of his own and not from God...from vs 12 -15 (he said that it was his own statement and not from God)
This portion actually was trying to explain the 2nd reason for divorce which is ABANDONMENT or DESERTION by an UNBELIEVER. And it was meant for both men and women.

Matt 5:32 has Jesus confirming the law of Moses again in Matt 19:9...This doesn't mean that the law was meant for only men here rather it is by extension also binding to women...(reason being that in the kingdom of God, there is no man and no woman).
AND REMEMBER
Jesus was responding to the question raised by the Jews who specifically asked due to their selfish and domineering laws over women (Matt 19:1 - 9)...

However, the bible says in Mal 2:16 that God hates divorce...this means that even though there are two grounds for divorce to be acceptable (Matt 19:9 & 1 Cor 7:15), it should be used be as a final resort...barring failure in every attempt for reconciliation...

I am still trying hard to see where you countered my stand view cos from all I see here....you are only reiterating my point.

The mosaic law concerning divorce was never and I repeat NEVER meant for both gender cos polygamy was a norm back then and men are only punished by paying 50sheckels of silver if they lie with an unmarried woman and even in adultery it is the woman that bears the brunt.

And lastly...I still maintain that when it comes to specific marital instructions,the Bible is very very gender specific and not the "he" type but the careful use of man woman husband wife.

Please try harder.

Toks2008:


I am still trying hard to see where you countered my stand view cos from all I see here....you are only reiterating my point.

The mosaic law concerning divorce was never and I repeat NEVER meant for both gender cos polygamy was a norm back then and men are only punished by paying 50sheckels of silver if they lie with an unmarried woman and even in adultery it is the woman that bears the brunt.

And lastly...I still maintain that when it comes to specific marital instructions,the Bible is very very gender specific and not the "he" type but the careful use of man woman husband wife.

Please try harder.

I won't try too hard to explain that...
1 - When it comes to Christianity. ..everyone is the same in God's eyes. No man...no woman. ..
2 - Your point of specificity in gender as it relates to marital instruction doesn't suffice...Just like we won't conclude that when the bible said "children honour thy parent in the Lord" meant only our biological parent.

However, I will allow you to have your view as I don't claim mine to be superior...

just don't see it as a debate dear "friend"

The bible frowns at divorce and condemns it totally except on the cases of infidelity

Gkemz:
The bible frowns at divorce and condemns it totally except on the cases of infidelity

Yes...however, in 1 Cor 7:15, Paul advise that if an unbeliever husband or wife leaves, he should be allowed to leave...He didn't conclude of the spouse can now remarry or not...

so, what should one do in that case, if you where still very young and of a marriageable age?