MaxInDHouse:


You only need knowledge! Hosea 4:6

Jesus has always been with the Israelites as a mighty spirit person before coming as a man to be seen by everyone!

So his return in 1914 was as an invisible mighty spirit being to restructure his group but when he will come to be seen just like he did in the first century it will mean death for all unbelievers! Luke 19:27

So in 1914, he was not around as a man?
Unbelievable! So how did you guys see him?

Where does the bible claim Jesus by name was with the Israelites in spirit?

AntiChristian:

So in 1914, he was not around as a man?
Unbelievable! So how did you guys see him?

Jesus promised that when he begin his rule in heaven the earth will know through some events that has never occurred on this planet nor will it ever happen again! Matthew 24:20-22

AntiChristian:

Where does the bible claim Jesus by name was with the Israelites in spirit?

Jesus is the angel who has been protecting the Israelites right from the time they left Egypt {Exodus 14:19 compare to Matthew 23:37} he always represents Jehovah in person {Exodus 13:21} so when he said before Abraham he existed {John 8:58} he meant exactly what he said: Jesus has always been the angel standing for the salvation of God's people! Daniel 12:1

OkCornel:
1.I didn’t include anything. Peter and John made it crystal clear in their letters who will be the priests with Christ in the Kingdom. It was not only Jewish believers.

2. Unless you want to tell us the 7 churches in Asia had only Jewish believers. Furthermore, Revelation 20 clearly mentioned who is eligible for the first resurrection. Last time I checked, it’s not only Jewish believers that’ll face the great tribulation.

1.Let's pay close attention to that which is written so we truly understand these things, please. The audience for this particular letter written by John is also made clear in the ideas expressed .

4 From John, To the seven churches in the province of Asia: Grace and peace to you from the one who is, who always was, and who is coming; and from the seven spirits before his throne;
5 and from Jesus Christ. Jesus is the faithful witness. He is first among all who will be raised from death. He is the ruler of the kings of the earth. Jesus is the one who loves us and has made us free from our sins with his blood sacrifice.
6 He made us his kingdom and priests who serve God his Father. To Jesus be glory and power forever and ever! Amen. - Revelations 1 vs 4 - 6

John speaks not only to those who are in Jesus Christ but also to them who have been made free from their sins by the blood sacrifice of Jesus Christ, those who were formerly of God's Old Covenant, those who have already been redeemed from God's Law of Old.

Jesus Christ never promised priesthood to His followers, nor can that idea be assumed from any of what is written in the Gospels. Those who received the promise of priesthood from God are instead those of God's Old Covenant Law of Moses, and this is in the Nation of Israel, a Nation that is of this world and not of the Kingdom of God.

2. I didn't insert those ideas into what is written. These writings have been with us for almost 2000 years, I am simply asking we begin to pay close attention to what is written as opposed to the many assumptions that is Christianity today. Clearly, in their many epistles, the apostles made clear who their general audience was versus those assumed by Christians today.

As for what is written in Revelations 20, the first resurrection is the resurrection promised by God to those of His Old Covenant Law of Moses. The reason that believers of Jewish descent are included in that resurrection is that they
* are of the blood of the Old Covenant, the blood of Israel
* were made righteous by Old Covenant Standard when Jesus Christ died on the cross and imparted His righteousness to them in order to redeem them from the Old Law. So, in essence, they receive the promise of the Old Covenant as well.

As for what you consider the great tribulation.... that is another topic altogether.

Kobojunkie:
1.Let's pay close attention to that which is written so we truly understand these things, please. The audience for this particular letter written by John is also made clear in the ideas expressed .
John speaks not only to those who are in Jesus Christ but also to them who have been made free from their sins by the blood sacrifice of Jesus Christ, those who were formerly of God's Old Covenant, those who have already been redeemed from God's Law of Old.

Jesus Christ never promised priesthood to His followers, nor can that idea be assumed from any of what is written in the Gospels. Those who received the promise of priesthood from God are instead those of God's Old Covenant Law of Moses, and this is in the Nation of Israel, a Nation that is of this world and not of the Kingdom of God.

2. I didn't insert those ideas into what is written. These writings have been with us for almost 2000 years, I am simply asking we begin to pay close attention to what is written as opposed to the many assumptions that is Christianity today. Clearly, in their many epistles, the apostles made clear who their general audience was versus those assumed by Christians today.

As for what is written in Revelations 20, the first resurrection is the resurrection promised by God to those of His Old Covenant Law of Moses. The reason that believers of Jewish descent are included in that resurrection is that they
* are of the blood of the Old Covenant, the blood of Israel
* were made righteous by Old Covenant Standard when Jesus Christ died on the cross and imparted His righteousness to them in order to redeem them from the Old Law. So, in essence, they receive the promise of the Old Covenant as well.

As for what you consider the great tribulation.... that is another topic altogether.

It’s pretty simple, are the 7 churches in Asia Minor whom Apostle John clearly referred to believers there as priests that serve God made up of only Jewish believers only?

OkCornel:
It’s pretty simple, are the 7 churches in Asia Minor whom Apostle John clearly referred to believers there as priests that serve God made up of only Jewish believers only?

What do we know of the churches apart from that written in John's letters of them?

Did John somehow have authority, against God, to declare Priests, those whom He has not permitted as such?

Thiaoouba:
What do you think about below:

In Revelation 1:7, the Bible also says, “Behold, he is coming with the clouds, and every eye will see him, even those who pierced him, and all tribes of the earth will wail on account of him. Even so. Amen.”

In this paragraph, it is clear that when Jesus comes again, it will be a global event in which all people on Earth will witness it because “every eye will see him.” Realistically speaking, it would not be possible for every eye to see Jesus on Earth if he comes again because Earth is a sphere, and if Jesus appears in the sky of Asia, people in South America would not be able to see him. Therefore, if all people on Earth are to witness the event, the “second coming of Jesus” must be a figurative description, not to be taken literally.

It might be captured live on TV and it might be all over the internet. Just saying.

Kobojunkie:
What do we know of the churches apart from that written in John's letters of them?

Did John somehow have authority, against God, to declare Priests, those whom He has not permitted as such?

Ephesus is one of the churches, and Paul wrote an epistle to the Ephesians.

Obviously, the church at Ephesus was not made up of Jewish believers only from what we can see in Paul’s letters.

If John was in error to include the gentile believers as priests, why was he not corrected by Jesus throughout the visions he had in revelation?

Why didn’t the Holy Spirit also bring this error to his attention, hmmm?

OkCornel:
1. Ephesus is one of the churches, and Paul wrote an epistle to the Ephesians. Obviously, the church at Ephesus was not made up of Jewish believers only from what we can see in Paul’s letters.

2. If John was in error to include the gentile believers as priests, why was he not corrected by Jesus throughout the visions he had in revelation?

3. Why didn’t the Holy Spirit also bring this error to his attention, hmmm?

1. Paul's letter to the Ephesians clearly indicates his audience to be of Jewish descent. You think the letters are directed to all those in the church, but if you carefully examine the letter itself, you will find the message instead constructed in such a way that it targets the Jewish members rather than all members regardless of descent. In chapter one, Paul made clear that his intent was to primarily address the Jewish members of the congregation.

2. But John didn't include the Gentile believers as priests as we already showed. His address was to those who were already redeemed by the blood sacrifice of Jesus Christ, those of Jewish descent who were also believers in Jesus Christ - those two things must apply. So the assumption that John's address was to all including Gentiles is all you, and not John.

3. John isn't the one needing correcting here. We, who for some reason assume the epistles are directed at everyone including all gentiles are the ones needing correcting here. We are the ones who made the mistake to assume that the epistles written by these men, were directed at us when the men made clear their intentions from as far back as 2000 years ago.

Kobojunkie:
1. Paul's letter to the Ephesians clearly indicates his audience to be of Jewish descent. You think the letters are directed to all those in the church, but if you carefully examine the letter itself, you will find the message instead constructed in such a way that it targets the Jewish members rather than all members regardless of descent. In chapter one, Paul made clear that his intent was to primarily address the Jewish members of the congregation.

2. But John didn't include the Gentile believers as priests as we already showed. His address was to those who were already redeemed by the blood sacrifice of Jesus Christ, those of Jewish descent who were also believers in Jesus Christ - those two things must apply. So the assumption that John's address was to all including Gentiles is all you, and not John.

3. John isn't the one needing correcting here. We, who for some reason assume the epistles are directed at everyone including all gentiles are the ones needing correcting here. We are the ones who made the mistake to assume that the epistles written by these men, were directed at us when the men made clear their intentions from as far back as 2000 years ago.

So Tychicus in Ephesians 6 v 21 is a Jew right?

Why did Paul address the Ephesians as gentiles and uncircumcised in flesh in Ephesians 2 v 11?;

11. Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands;

Where are the scriptural references supporting your position that Paul was addressing a Jewish audience in his letter to the Ephesians?

OkCornel:
So Tychicus in Ephesians 6 v 21 is a Jew right?

You do understand that the part of the letter addressing Tychicus means that Tychicus is the audience of that part and not everyone else in the church, right? Also, that doesn't change the primary audience of the letter in any way or form, right?

Speaking of the primary audience, Paul begins even chapter 6 by addressing those of Jewish descent by recalling a law that God gave to the children of Israel...

1. Children, obey your parents the way the Lord wants, because this is the right thing to do.
2 The command says, “You must respect your father and mother.” This is the first command that has a promise with it.
3 And this is the promise: “Then all will go well with you, and you will have a long life on the earth.” - Ephesians 6 vs 1 - 3

.. in the New Covenant, the command is instead that those who wish to be followers of Jesus Christ hate father and mother in order to be worthy of Jesus Christ.

Kobojunkie:
You do understand that the part of the letter addressing Tychicus means that Tychicus is the audience of that part and not everyone else in the church, right? Also, that doesn't change the primary audience of the letter in any way or form, right?

Speaking of the primary audience, Paul begins even chapter 6 by addressing those of Jewish descent by recalling a law that God gave to the children of Israel...
.. in the New Covenant, the command is instead that those who wish to be followers of Jesus Christ hate father and mother in order to be worthy of Jesus Christ.

Is Tychicus a Jew or Gentile?

Kindly read Ephesians 1 v 1. Was Paul addressing only Jews here?

Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, to the saints which are at Ephesus, and to the faithful in Christ Jesus:

Kobojunkie:
You do understand that the part of the letter addressing Tychicus means that Tychicus is the audience of that part and not everyone else in the church, right? Also, that doesn't change the primary audience of the letter in any way or form, right?

Speaking of the primary audience, Paul begins even chapter 6 by addressing those of Jewish descent by recalling a law that God gave to the children of Israel...
.. in the New Covenant, the command is instead that those who wish to be followers of Jesus Christ hate father and mother in order to be worthy of Jesus Christ.

Why did Paul address the Ephesians as gentiles and uncircumcised in flesh in Ephesians 2 v 11?;

11. Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands;

12 That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world

OkCornel:
1. Is Tychicus a Jew or Gentile?

2. Kindly read Ephesians 1 v 1. Was Paul addressing only Jews here? Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, to the saints which are at Ephesus, and to the faithful in Christ Jesus:

1. I don't know and I don't care since it does not matter.

2. In the entire passage of Ephesians 1 vs 4 - 12, Paul reveals that the primary audience of his letter to the church in Ephesus as those chosen in love to be Christ's holy people, those made free by the blood sacrifice of Jesus Christ through which they were granted forgiveness of sins because of God's rich grace. Then in verses 11-12, Paul formerly indicates that he and those in his audience are those chosen in Jesus Christ to be God's people, all of Jewish heritage.

4 In Christ, he chose us before the world was made. He chose us in love to be his holy people—people who could stand before him without any fault.
5 And before the world was made, God decided to make us his own children through Jesus Christ. This was what God wanted, and it pleased him to do it.
6 And this brings praise to God because of his wonderful grace. God gave that grace to us freely. He gave us that grace in Christ, the one he loves.
7 In Christ we are made free by his blood sacrifice. We have forgiveness of sins because of God’s rich grace.
8 God gave us that grace fully and freely. With full wisdom and understanding
9 he let us know his secret plan. This was what God wanted, and he planned to do it through Christ.
10 God’s goal was to finish his plan when the right time came. He planned that all things in heaven and on earth be joined together with Christ as the head.
11 In Christ we were chosen to be God’s people. God had already planned for us to be his people, because that is what he wanted. And he is the one who makes everything agree with what he decides and wants.
12 We Jews were the first to hope in Christ. And we were chosen so that we would bring praise to God in all his glory. - Ephesians 1 vs 4 - 12

Kobojunkie:
1. I don't know and I don't care since it does not matter.

2. In the entire passage of Ephesians 1 vs 4 - 12, Paul reveals that the primary audience of his letter to the church in Ephesus as those chosen in love to be Christ's holy people, those made free by the blood sacrifice of Jesus Christ through which they were granted forgiveness of sins because of God's rich grace. Then in verses 11-12, Paul now indicates that he and those in his audience are those chosen to be God's people, all of Jewish heritage.

Ephesians 1 v 11 Did you miss the part where Paul wrote IN CHRIST (not Abraham) we were chosen to be God’s holy people?

How are God’s holy people Israelites only? Since it’s through Christ now, rather than being a blood descendant of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob?

Furthermore, explain Ephesians 3 v 6;
6. That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel


Summary of the matter, Paul’s letter was addressed to Jews and Gentiles in the Ephesus church. One of the 7 churches Apostle John wrote to in Revelation.

OkCornel:
1. Why did Paul address the Ephesians as gentiles and uncircumcised in flesh in Ephesians 2 v 11?;

11. Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands;

12 That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world

1.You do understand that in addition to the main audience, a letter can also be tailored to address others in addition to the main, right? At this point, I feel I need to ask as it seems you are having trouble grasping the fact that these letters were indeed addressed to a primarily Jewish audience for reasons unknown to me.

Paul himself had to clearly indicate that the point he was making was not in regards to the jews but to the gentiles in the case below... Had that letter been a general letter, that applied as far as every believer, you can clearly see why paul would not have had to do all that he did even here, right?

11 You were not born as Jews. You are the people the Jews call “uncircumcised.[b]” Those Jews who call you “uncircumcised” call themselves “circumcised.” (Their circumcision is only something they themselves do to their bodies.)
12 Remember that in the past you were without Christ. You were not citizens of Israel, and you did not know about the agreements[c] with the promises that God made to his people. You had no hope, and you did not know God.
13 Yes, at one time you were far away from God, but now in Christ Jesus, you are brought near to him. You are brought near to God through the blood sacrifice of Christ. - Ephesians 2 vs 11 - 13

Kobojunkie:
1.You do understand that in addition to the main audience, a letter can also be tailored to address others in addition to the main, right? At this point, I feel I need to ask as it seems you are having trouble grasping the fact that these letters were indeed addressed to a primarily Jewish audience for reasons unknown to me.

Paul himself had to clearly indicate that the point he was making was not in regards to the jews but to the gentiles in the case below... Had that letter been a general letter, that applied as far as every believer, you can clearly see why paul would not have had to do all that he did even here, right?

Paul was addressing the Jews and Gentiles in the Ephesus church.

If it was a Jewish audience only, why did Paul refer to the Ephesus believers as Gentiles and uncircumcised in times past?

As aliens and strangers to the commonwealth of Israel? Hmmm?

And I can see you’ve decided not to investigate further on Tychicus who was an indigene of Ephesus.

Kobojunkie, Apostle Paul was called by Christ to minister to the Gentiles.

How then is the letter to the Ephesians just for a Jewish audience only? Hmmm?

Ephesians 3 v 1;
For this cause I Paul, the prisoner of Jesus Christ for you Gentiles

OkCornel:
1. Ephesians 1 v 11 Did you miss the part where Paul wrote IN CHRIST (not Abraham) we were chosen to be God’s holy people?

2. How are God’s holy people Israelites only? Since it’s through Christ now, rather than being a blood descendant of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob?

3, Furthermore, explain Ephesians 3 v 6;
6. That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel

But it is only those elect, who were chosen in Jesus Christ, of the stock of Israel, that are God's Holy people, so?

2. The promise was made by God to the people of isreal.

6. You will be a special nation—a kingdom of priests.’ Moses, you must tell the Israelites what I have said.” - Exodus 19:6

God's Holy People refers to the Priests God promised to make of His people Israel.

This promise was never made to those who are of the Kingdom of God, but instead to those who are of Jewish blood, and was instead fulfilled via Jesus Christ.

3. We, gentiles, are fellow heirs with the Jewish Christians in the Kingdom of God, not the land of Israel. Israelites are God's people but those of us who are in Jesus Christ are heirs of God's Kingdom aka Sons of God

Kobojunkie:
But it is only those elect, who were chosen in Jesus Christ, of the stock of Israel, that are God's Holy people, so?

2. The promise was made by God to the people of isreal. God's Holy People refers to the Priests God promised to make of His people Israel.

This promise was never made to those who are of the Kingdom of God, but instead to those who are of Jewish blood, and was instead fulfilled via Jesus Christ.

Ephesians 3 v 6 makes it abundantly clear that through Christ, Gentiles can also partake of the promise, and are also co-heirs with the Israelites. That’s the update you missed.

Ephesians 3 v 6;
6. That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel

OkCornel:
1. Paul was addressing the Jews and Gentiles in the Ephesus church.

2. If it was a Jewish audience only, why did Paul refer to the Ephesus believers as Gentiles and uncircumcised in times past?

As aliens and strangers to the commonwealth of Israel? Hmmm?

3. And I can see you’ve decided not to investigate further on Tychicus who was an indigene of Ephesus.

1. Again, the primary audience of Paul's letters is to Jewish believers as evidenced by the contents of each and every one of his letters. That some parts of the letter also address some gentile concerns does not change the overarching fact.

2. See, you have not been paying attention at all. Again, what I have been insisting on since the beginning of this conversation is that Paul's primary audience, along with that of the other epistles, are the Jewish believers at every one of the churches. Meaning that when digesting the contents of the letter, one has to pay particular attention to this fact so as not to confuse what meant for the Jews as being also for the Gentiles. In the same way, it would be silly to confuse that meant specifically for say Titus or Timothy with that meant for Christians today.

3. Unless we can get ourselves a copy of Tychichus's birth records today, we cannot answer the question you asked of him. So what exactly are you harping on him for?

Kobojunkie:
But it is only those elect, who were chosen in Jesus Christ, of the stock of Israel, that are God's Holy people, so?

2. The promise was made by God to the people of isreal. God's Holy People refers to the Priests God promised to make of His people Israel.

This promise was never made to those who are of the Kingdom of God, but instead to those who are of Jewish blood, and was instead fulfilled via Jesus Christ.

3. We, gentiles, are fellow heirs with the Jewish Christians in the Kingdom of God, not the land of Israel. Israelites are God's people but those of us who are in Jesus Christ are heirs of God's Kingdom aka Sons of God

Your viewpoint clearly contradicts Ephesians 3 v 6. Gentiles are now FELLOWHEIRS and PARTAKERS of the promise initially meant for the Israelites only. This is made possible through Christ.

Kobojunkie:
1. Again, the primary audience of Paul's letters is to Jewish believers as evidenced by the contents of each and every one of his letters. That some parts of the letter also address some gentile concerns does not change the overarching fact.

2. See, you have not been paying attention at all. Again, what I have been insisting on since the beginning of this conversation is that Paul's primary audience, along with that of the other epistles, are the Jewish believers at every one of the churches. Meaning that when digesting the contents of the letter, one has to pay particular attention to this fact so as not to confuse what meant for the Jews as being also for the Gentiles. In the same way, it would be silly to confuse that meant specifically for say Titus or Timothy with that meant for Christians today.

3. Unless we can get ourselves a copy of Tychichus's birth records today, we cannot answer the question you asked of him. So what exactly are you harping on him for?

Why would Paul’s primary audience be the Jewish believers at Ephesus only when Paul was called to minister to the Gentiles hmmm?

Scholars have researched and concluded Tychicus was an indigene of Ephesus.

OkCornel:
1. Apostle Paul was called by Christ to minister to the Gentiles.

2. How then is the letter to the Ephesians just for a Jewish audience only? Hmmm?

Ephesians 3 v 1;
For this cause I Paul, the prisoner of Jesus Christ for you Gentiles

1. Every single follower of Jesus Christ is called by Jesus Christ to teach the Gospel to the world... both Jews and Gentiles alike. So that soundbite you have up there makes no sense at all.

Also, Paul's letters contain less than 1% of the message that is the Gospel that Jesus Christ sends His followers out to teach, so I am not certain why you wish to argue this now.

2. Again, the letter addresses a primarily Jewish audience and it is not meant by Paul as some sort of replacement to what is the Gospel, so I am not certain why you attempt to confuse the two in this. It does not even serve as a guide to the gospel as many like to pretend since more than 99% of what is Paul's epistle does not even address Jesus Christ's actual teaching which constitutes the Gospel of the Kingdom of God.

OkCornel:
Your viewpoint clearly contradicts Ephesians 3 v 6. Gentiles are now FELLOWHEIRS and PARTAKERS of the promise initially meant for the Israelites only. This is made possible through Christ.

Examine what Paul said there in context please to understand how this does not contradict Jesus Christ.

1. So I, Paul, am a prisoner because I serve Christ Jesus for you who are not Jews.
2 Surely you know that God gave me this work through his grace to help you.
3 God let me know his secret plan by showing it to me. I have already written a little about this.
4 And if you read what I wrote, you can see that I understand the secret truth about Christ.
5 People who lived in other times were not told that secret truth. But now, through the Spirit, God has made it known to his holy apostles and prophets.
6 And this is the secret truth: that by hearing the Good News, those who are not Jews will share with the Jews in the blessings God has for his people. They are part of the same body, and they share in the promise God made through Christ Jesus. - Ephesians 3 vs 1 - 6

Paul's statement is in reference to God's promise to those who are of the Kingdom of God, Jesus Christ -- absolutely nothing to do with your claim made of Israel.

Kobojunkie:
1. Every single follower of Jesus Christ is called by Jesus Christ to teach the Gospel to the world... both Jews and Gentiles alike. So that soundbite you have up there makes no sense at all.

Also, Paul's letters contain less than 1% of the message that is the Gospel that Jesus Christ sends His followers out to teach, so I am not certain why you wish to argue this now.

2. Again, the letter addresses a primarily Jewish audience and it is not meant by Paul as some sort of replacement to what is the Gospel, so I am not certain why you attempt to confuse the two in this. It does not even serve as a guide to the gospel as many like to pretend since more than 99% of what is Paul's epistle does not even address Jesus Christ's actual teaching which constitutes the Gospel of the Kingdom of God.

So Paul’s letter to Ephesus addresses a Jewish audience that were strangers to the covenant and commonwealth of Israel right?

Anyways, we have established the church in Ephesus was made up of Jews and Gentiles.

Apostle John made it abundantly clear to believers in the 7 churches of Asia in Revelation 1 v 6 that they’ll be priests to serve God forever.

Kobojunkie:
Examine what Paul said there in context please to understand how this does not contradict Jesus Christ.
Paul's statement is in reference to God's promise to those who are of the Kingdom of God, Jesus Christ -- absolutely nothing to do with your claim made of Israel.

What are Gentiles going to be “FELLOW-HEIRS” with the Israelites hmmm? What were the promises of the covenant they are now FELLOWHEIRS with the Israelites?

OkCornel:
1. Why would Paul’s primary audience be the Jewish believers at Ephesus only when Paul was called to minister to the Gentiles hmmm?

2. Scholars have researched and concluded Tychicus was an indigene of Ephesus.

1. Again, every believer in Jesus Christ is sent out by Jesus Christ to teach the Gospel(not other doctrines) to all those who are in the world. So, paul's claim is just that, his claim. Every single person who believes in Jesus Christ is meant to take the Gospel of Jesus Christ to Gentiles as well.

2. Good for them then!

OkCornel:
1. What are Gentiles going to be “FELLOW-HEIRS” with the Israelites hmmm?
2. What were the promises of the covenant they are now FELLOWHEIRS with the Israelites?

1. Paul makes the answers clear for you to see in Ephesians 3 vs 1 - 6 there. So that statement of his does not contradict Jesus Christ or God's Old Covenant.
2. The promises of the New Covenant are made clear in the Gospels - Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John.

Revelation 1 v 4-6;

To the seven churches in the province of Asia:

4 Grace and peace to you from him who is, and who was, and who is to come, and from the seven spirits before his throne,

5 and from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, the firstborn from the dead, and the ruler of the kings of the earth.
To him who loves us and has freed us from our sins by his blood,

6 and has made us to be a kingdom and priests to serve his God and Father—to him be glory and power for ever and ever! Amen.


Kobojunkie;

1. Is the church at Ephesus (one of the 7 churches in Asia Minor) made up of Jewish believers only?

2. Did Jesus free only Jewish believers of their sins through his blood?

3. Where did Apostle John mention only Jewish believers were made to be a kingdom and serve as Priests of God forever?

4. Does “us” in Revelation 1 v 6 apply to Jewish believers only in the context of the passage?

OkCornel:
1. So Paul’s letter to Ephesus addresses a Jewish audience that were strangers to the covenant and commonwealth of Israel right? Anyways, we have established the church in Ephesus was made up of Jews and Gentiles.

2. Apostle John made it abundantly clear to believers in the 7 churches of Asia in Revelation 1 v 6 that they’ll be priests to serve God forever.

1. Pay attention! What is in contention is not the makeup of the churches themselves but the primary audience of the letters addressed to the churches - two different things entirely here.

2. John's message to the churches made clear who the messages were intended for over 2000 years ago. But you seem to confuse the makeup of the church with the audience of the message.... an error on your part and not Johns.

Kobojunkie:
1. Pay attention! What is in contention is not the makeup of the churches themselves but the primary audience of the letters addressed to the churches - two different things entirely here.

2. John's message to the churches made clear who the messages were intended for over 2000 years ago. But you seem to confuse the makeup of the church with the audience of the message.... an error on your part and not Johns.

Then you missed the point altogether. Was the 7 churches in Asia Minor made up of Jews only?

Why did John call all faithful believers in these churches to be Priests in Revelation 1 v 6?

OkCornel:
1. Is the church at Ephesus (one of the 7 churches in Asia Minor) made up of Jewish believers only?
2. Did Jesus free only Jewish believers of their sins through his blood?
3. Where did Apostle John mention only Jewish believers were made to be a kingdom and serve as Priests of God forever?
4. Does “us” in Revelation 1 v 6 apply to Jewish believers only in the context of the passage?

1. Again, the actual makeup of the church itself is not of importance. What is instead of importance is the audience of the message from John to the church and that audience happens to be a Jewish one going by the content of his letter from almost 2000 years ago.

2. YES! Jesus Christ's blood paid the sin debt they owed to God's Old Law, and as such they were redeemed from the Old Law by the blood of Jesus Christ - Matthew 26 vs 28 - 30. Those of us in the New Covenant have to stand faithful until the end before we can experience redemption in Jesus Christ, God's New Covenant Law - Matthew 24 vs 12- 13 & Mark 13 vs 13

3. God Himself made the Promise of priesthood only to those who were born Israelites in Exodus 19 vs 6. He never changed nor revoked that promise which He made only to those of the blood of israel.

4. Clearly "us" applies to those who were made free from sin by the blood of Jesus Christ, those who were redeemed/bought by His blood - the Jewish Christians.