When a man is castrated, does he lose all senses of the urge to have sex? Or, is it that he loses all ejaculation, but the urges are still there?

I tried to learn something from the arguement we made yesterday night.. When a man's testes is gone he shdnt ve that testesterone juice any more...

Well, i think the urge will be there but the expulsion will be gone.
As long as Konji wont catch him, which is the expulsion, the urge
will just come and go!

People with better understanding can comment!

Am waiting for responses

we can learn from lower animal now I.e. dogs
The answer is Yes

Leavetrashforlawma

When a man _ejaculates, what you see is actually the seminal fluid; a mixture of the_semen, the pre-ejaculate_ and the spermatozoa.

The pre-ejaculate_ is what lubricates the urethra for _ejaculation.
The_semen is what provides the nutrients for the sperm, while the spermatozoa is the reproductive cells that are stored in the testis.

The pre-ejaculate_ is produced in the Cowpers glands while the_Semen is produced in the Seminal glands. When a man is castrated and he has his testis removed, this doesn't affect the glands I mentioned. So they still keep on functioning.

Sexual attraction is both hormonal and psychological. The hormones that play their part in arousal are still active. He can still have a sex drive.
So what this means is that a man who has his testis cut off can still_ejaculate, but what would come out of his_penis would not contain sperm, but just the_semen and the_pre-ejaculate. And he can still have an orgasm.

*******
Seun should stop censoring these words. Can't people discuss medical terms anymore? What's the essence of having a health section, when you choose to censor medical terms?

Decker:
There is a difference between the_semen and sperm. When a man _ejaculates, what you see is actually a mixture of the_semen, the pre-ejaculate_ and the spermatozoa.

The pre-ejaculate_ is what lubricates the urethra for _ejaculation.
The_semen is what provides the nutrients for the sperm, while the spermatozoa is the reproductive cells that are stored in the testis.

The pre-ejaculate_ is produced in the Cowpers glands while the_Semen is produced in the seminal glands. When a man is castrated and he has his testis removed, this doesn't affect the glands I mentioned. So they still keep on functioning.

Sexual attraction is both hormonal and psychological. The hormones that play their part in arousal are still active. What this means is that a man who has his testis cut off can still_ejaculate, but what would come out of his penis would not contain sperm, but just the_semen and the pre-ejaculate. And he can still have an orgasm.

*******
Seun should stop censoring these words. Can't people discuss medical terms anymore?

. Nice.

Maybe?

Op, who castrated you?

Why not castrate yourself and find out.

OP, as a medical student, I want to explain this to you clearly.

Castration as in removal of the testes.

Testes is responsible for the production of testosterone, a hormone response for growth of sexual organs, puberty as we know it, and partly libido.

When you remove the testes after puberty, there is a sharp decrease in the testosterone levels, and the man cares less for sex than a normal man. But actually he can have sex fully without problem. The only thing in question is he won't be able to produce sperm.

You see..what males release during sperm is called Seminal fluid. Seminal fluid contaings 10% sperm, 55% of fluid from seminal vesicles and about 35% of fluid from your prostates. So when you remove the testes, you would still ejaculate, but there won't be sperm.

Before you would not be able to achieve erection, there would be a problem with your brain (psychological) or your spinal cord especially the sacral part. Hope this helps!

I'm coming let me go and ask a castrated man

op, were u castrated