₦airaland Forum

MuttleyLaff:
Personally and IMHO, John 11:33 and Rom 8:26 arent verses that support Jesus spoke in tongues

John 11:33 is a combination of groaning and display of empathy
and not a proof that Jesus spoke in tongues

Rom 8:26, is not speaking in tongue
It is, to some degree similar to John 11:33 above, (e.g. moaning or groaning expression coming from within induced the spiriit)
and so equally like John 11:33, Rom 8:26 too, doesnt qualify to serve as proof, that Jesus actually spoke in tongue

Moaning or any other sounds made during or in the heat of passion
and groaning done to convey pain, despair, pleasure etcetera
or any other sounds made when cornered and backed against a concrete wall isnt speaking in tongues

The three recorded evidences of speaking in tongues in the bible, occurred for a purpose and/or to serve that purpose

Each instance of the three recorded speaking in tongues happened with articulated utterances
that were coherent enough to other present audiences admitting and understanding the spoken tongues
(e.g. refer to Acts 2:8, Acts 10:46 and Acts 19:6)

For Jews demand miraculous signs (i.e. ask for signs)
and Greeks ask for wisdom (i.e. philiosophy)
- 1 Corinthians 1:22

So you see that speaking in tongues is a sign, not for believers, but for unbelievers.
Prophecy, however, is for the benefit of believers, not unbelievers.
- 1 Corinthians 14:22

For any that might have been misinformed, it is a well documented truth as seen in 1 Corinthians 14:22 above
that speaking in tongues is not for believers, rather it is used as a sign for unbelievers (i.e. 1 Corinthians 1:22a)

I like this

mhm we need to understand things clearly, before following dogmatically, even the bible ask to seek wisdom, knowledge and understanding.

Speaking in tongues is actually good, but it's not for everybody. Or else it becomes a child's play thing.

A lot of preachers make it sound as if it is the only proof that you are in the spirit. That's a NoNoNo, I call it dogma.