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Psalms 82:1 God standeth in the congregation of the mighty; he judgeth among the gods.

82:2 How long will ye judge unjustly, and accept the persons of the wicked? Selah.

82:6 I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High.

82:7 But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes.


Who are the gods? The gods in this case are men, they were judges in Israel.



What does it mean? It is figurative, they were yahweh's representatives as judges.

Jesus used this verse to justify his claim to divinity.

John 10:32 Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me?

10:33 The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.

10:34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?

10:35 If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;

10:36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?

10:37 If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not.

10:38 But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him.

The jews accused Jesus of making himself equal with God. Jesus statement that he and is father are one is one of equality.

Jesus defended himself by quoting psalm 82, if earthly men can be called gods ( figuratively) because of the word of God that came to them how much more himself that the father had sanctified.

What does Jesus mean? If earthly men could be called gods base on the word they recieved how much more does he, Jesus, has right to declare himself God because the father sanctified Jesus, so whatever Jesus said is true not blasphemy as the jews took it.

Jesus only defended his right to call himself God by citing psalm 82 which empowers some certain category of men to be figuratively called god's.

Whatever Jesus said he is, is true because the father himself attest to it

Flesh and blood has not revealed this to you but our Father in heaven.
You are chosen! Only few can say these without doubt.

Felimax:
Flesh and blood has not revealed this to you but our Father in heaven.
You are chosen! Only few can say these without doubt.

God bless you too

Good.

Steep:
Psalms 82:1 God standeth in the congregation of the mighty; he judgeth among the gods.

82:2 How long will ye judge unjustly, and accept the persons of the wicked? Selah.

82:6 I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High.

82:7 But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes.


Who are the gods? The gods in this case are men, they were judges in Israel.



What does it mean? It is figurative, they were yahweh's representatives as judges.

Jesus used this verse to justify his claim to divinity.

John 10:32 Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me?

10:33 The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.

10:34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?

10:35 If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;

10:36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?

10:37 If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not.

10:38 But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him.

The jews accused Jesus of making himself equal with God. Jesus statement that he and is father are one is one of equality.

Jesus defended himself by quoting psalm 82, if earthly men can be called gods ( figuratively) because of the word of God that came to them how much more himself that the father had sanctified.

What does Jesus mean? If earthly men could be called gods base on the word they recieved how much more does he, Jesus, has right to declare himself God because the father sanctified Jesus, so whatever Jesus said is true not blasphemy as the jews took it.

Jesus only defended his right to call himself God by citing psalm 82 which empowers some certain category of men to be figuratively called god's.

Whatever Jesus said he is, is true because the father himself attest to it

Please kindly tell us the difference between God and god because we clearly read Jesus rejecting to be God

Mark 10
18 And Jesus said to him, Why do you call Me [[m]essentially and perfectly [n]morally] good? There is no one [[o]essentially and perfectly [p]morally] good--except God alone.

Thank you


2. According to Psalm 82:6 how many Gods exist in Christianity who are the Ye.

3. Did Jesus say he was God or god show your reference.

haekymbahd:
Please kindly tell us the difference between God and god because we clearly read Jesus rejecting to be God

The English translation of the scriptures uses 'God' to differentiate the true God from false 'gods'.
Jesus never rejected his God hood but rather he affirmed it

Mark 10
18 And Jesus said to him, Why do you call Me [[m]essentially and perfectly [n]morally] good? There is no one [[o]essentially and perfectly [p]morally] good--except God alone.

Thank you

Jesus did not say he wasn't good. He called himself the good Shepherd John 10vv11, 14.
Jesus was only passing a message that humans are not inherently good. Goodness is a quality of God's nature not man, so the goodness people saw in Jesus is because he his more than just a man, He is the Son of God.

2. According to Psalm 82:6 how many Gods exist in Christianity who are the Ye.

3. Did Jesus say he was God or god show your reference.

those are figurative, they were not truly God.
Jesus said he is the "I AM" which the jews clearly and unequivocal understand as Jehovah the Almighty God.

John 8:58 Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.

Steep:
God bless you too

Amen

Steep:
The English translation of the scriptures uses 'God' to differentiate the true God from false 'gods'.
Jesus never rejected his God hood but rather he affirmed it

Jesus did not say he wasn't good. He called himself the good Shepherd John 10vv11, 14.
Jesus was only passing a message that humans are not inherently good. Goodness is a quality of God's nature not man, so the goodness people saw in Jesus is because he his more than just a man, He is the Son of God.


those are figurative, they were not truly God.
Jesus said he is the "I AM" which the jews clearly and unequivocal understand as Jehovah the Almighty God.

John 8:58 Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.

Stop deceiving yourself Jesus didn't call himself I am that I am

In old testament "I will be what I will be" was the name of God.

How does "I am" correlate with I will be what I will be or I am what I am" because it gives a different meaning entirely.


According to the bible verse Jesus was trying to say he existed before Abraham.


The moment you separate I AM from I AM WHAT I AM then you are saying something else entirely...


the word used was not English but Greek. You can twist English the way you like to suit you. Try to compare the original Greek word used in that passage with the old testament you will discover you are being dubious



I keep wondering why author of the bible used "I Am" instead of "I will be"


Before Abraham was, "I am"
Before Abraham was, I will be

That's one of the corruption of the bible.

Seems this Christians Sabi peddle falsehood!

God, gods, Lord, LORD, lord!
All this doesn't exist in the Hebrew or Greek manuscript.

When Satan is addressed god will be used. When Jesus is addressed capital G or L will be used. When humans or Angels are addressed god/lord may be used.

In Greek or Hebrew such is not found!

No be film trick be these?

haekymbahd:
Stop deceiving yourself Jesus didn't call himself I am that I am

In old testament "I will be what I will be" was the name of God.

How does "I am" correlate with I will be what I will be or I am what I am" because it gives a different meaning entirely.


According to the bible verse Jesus was trying to say he existed before Abraham.


The moment you separate I AM from I AM WHAT I AM then you are saying something else entirely...


the word used was not English but Greek. You can twist English the way you like to suit you. Try to compare the original Greek word used in that passage with the old testament you will discover you are being dubious



I keep wondering why author of the bible used "I Am" instead of "I will be"


Before Abraham was, "I am"
Before Abraham was, I will be

That's one of the corruption of the bible.

'I AM' is God's name.

Exodus 3:14 And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, "I AM" hath sent me unto you.

John 8:58 Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.


Jesus didn't say before Abraham was he was. That would have meant He simply lived before Abraham but he used the word "I AM" instead showing he is God that lives forever and ever.