₦airaland Forum

Lucifyre:
This is laughable, all i can say is educate urself man, so much access to so much info.

Tanakh <===Septuagint ===>Vulgate etc

Krismas:
Tanakh <===Septuagint ===>Vulgate etc

Ok🤦🏽.

Krismas:
Septuagint was not a translation.
Rather it was the original scripture from which Hebrew works like Torah, Tanakh and Dead Sea scrolls were back-written.
While the religious world keep up the lie that it’s the other way around. As though Hebrew was a written language some 400BCE.

Hebrew was not a written language in 400BC? What language did David express his psalms in more than 600 years before that?

Kobojunkie:
Hebrew was not a written language in 400BC? What language did David express his psalms in more than 600 years before that?

David is a mythical character. He neither existed nor did he author any psalms.
Suppose we assume David existed for a minute, what education do u ascribe to him to facilitate writing down long psalms?
Then, if Hebrew were an established form of writing 400BCE, how manage New Testament writers wrote their work in Greek?

Krismas:
✓ David is a mythical character. He neither existed nor did he author any psalms.
Suppose we assume David existed for a minute, what education do u ascribe to him to facilitate writing down long psalms?
✓ Then, if Hebrew were an established form of writing 400BCE, how manage New Testament writers wrote their work in Greek?

Interesting claims!

We know that the sumerian language had a written form from as far back as 2000 years before the time of David whom you regard as a mythical being. And we also know that the Egyptians also had a written form to their language from about 1500 years before the character called David was introduced. So why are you convinced then that the Hebrew language of the Canaanites, next door neighbors to both these other people's could not have had a written form to their own language around 1000 years before the man or myth called David was mentioned?

Since he was born and raised in the very land of Canaan, where the Hebrew language predates his own people moving into take over, why couldn't he have been trained in the writing of the language?

2. The Septuagint was written during the time when parts, of not all of Canaan-- the nation of Judah -- was under greek occupation or has been for about 200 years, and the new testament was compiled many hundreds of years later.

Kobojunkie:
Interesting claims!

We know that the sumerian language had a written form from as far back as 2000 years before the time of David whom you regard as a mythical being. And we also know that the Egyptians also had a written form to their language from about 1500 years before the character called David was introduced. So why are you convinced then that the Hebrew language of the Canaanites, next door neighbors to both these other people's could not have had a written form to their own language around 1000 years before the man or myth called David was mentioned?

Since he was born and raised in the very land of Canaan, where the Hebrew language predates his own people moving into take over, why couldn't he have been trained in the writing of the language?

2. The Septuagint was written during the time when parts, of not all of Canaan-- the nation of Judah -- was under greek occupation or has been for about 200 years, and the new testament was compiled many hundreds of years later.

1. Speaking a language, does not guarantee one can write such language. Speaking and writing are two different skills.
2. Sumerians/Egyptians colonized Canaan at different points in antiquity. In short, Jerusalem is a Sumerian name. So, there is no guarantee Canaan spoke Hebrew far back or for any extended period of time. The place had so many colonial masters.
3. It’s a fact, that no literature older than 300BCE knew of anyone called Abraham Jacob, Moses, David or Solomon. Those men were all products of Greek literature in the Hellenistic period. The characters were unknown to worshippers of Yahu, living b4 300BCE.
4. Is not surprising to u, that a Hebrew man, will write the book of Hebrews to Hebrew audience, using Greek? What’s sense in that?

Krismas:
1. Speaking a language, does not guarantee one can write such language. Speaking and writing are two different skills.
2. Sumerians/Egyptians colonized Canaan at different points in antiquity. In short, Jerusalem is a Sumerian name. So, there is no guarantee Canaan spoke Hebrew far back or for any extended period of time. The place had so many colonial masters.
3. It’s a fact, that no literature older than 300BCE knew of anyone called Abraham Jacob, Moses, David or Solomon. The were all products of Greek literature in the Hellenistic period. Those characters were unknown to worshippers of Yahu before 300BCE.

1. We both know that; this is about the writing of the language and not just the speaking anyway.

2. That too is known. So no need repeating this.

3. My question was not regarding the names of individuals but the written form of the Hebrew language, right?

Kobojunkie:
1. We both know that; this is about the writing of the language and not just the speaking anyway.

2. That too is known. So no need repeating this.

3. My question was not regarding the names of individuals but the written form of the Hebrew language, right?

You've got energy to deal with someone been purposefully obtuse. Why bother.

Kobojunkie:
1. We both know that; this is about the writing of the language and not just the speaking anyway.

2. That too is known. So no need repeating this.

3. My question was not regarding the names of individuals but the written form of the Hebrew language, right?

1. My point here, is that illiterate, is not someone who can not speak a language, but one who cannot write it. Somewhere in the Bible, Moses was said to write the book of law. In what language would that be? What education did David possess to enable him author his psalms?
3. To be very direct, language studies have really advanced. Experts can tell if a writeup is a translation or not. Septuagint was written in a high level language. It cannot be a translation of a low level language like Hebrew. It’s full of Greek thoughts and idioms that doesn’t exist in Hebrew, words that have no equivalent in Hebrew, etc. To understand what am saying better, try and translate an English article on missile technology in space program into Yoruba, then pretend the English article was a translation from the Yoruba writeup u just concluded

Krismas:
■ 1. My point here, is that illiterate, is not someone who can not speak a language, but one who cannot write it. Somewhere in the Bible, Moses was said to write the book of law. In what language would that be? What education did David possess to enable him author his psalms?
3. To be very direct, language studies have really advanced. Experts can tell if a writeup is a translation or not. Septuagint was written in a high level language. It cannot be a translation of a low level language like Hebrew. It’s full of Greek thoughts and idioms that doesn’t exist in Hebrew, words that have no equivalent in Hebrew, etc. To understand what am saying better, try and translate an English article on missile technology in space program into Yoruba, then pretend the English article was a translation from the Yoruba writeup u just concluded

This is a useless point here since my question was not of the speaking but of the writing of the language.

2. You do realize you are still not answering my actual question at all? You claimed the Hebrew language and I asked you of that language, not of the Septuagint.

The

Kobojunkie:
This is a useless point here since my question was not of the speaking but of the writing of the language.

2. You do realize you are still not answering my actual question at all? You claimed the Hebrew language and I asked you of that language, not of the Septuagint.

1. What school did David attend to prepare him to write psalms?
2. Septuagint is an original source and not a translation. Hebrew vocabularies is not more than 8,000 total. While that of Greek is about 5million! No language is as superb as Greek in this world. Did all this religious cranks like Lucifyre think we will fail to spot original from fake?
3. Thanks and bye

Krismas:
1. What school did David attend to prepare him to write psalms?
2. Septuagint is an original source and not a translation. Hebrew vocabularies is not more than 8,000 total. While that of Greek is about 5million! No language is as superb as Greek in this world. Did all this religious cranks like Lucifyre think we will fail to spot original from fake?
3. Thanks and bye

Focus already! Leave the mythical creature called David and the Greek Septuagint out of this. I asked you regarding the Hebrew language.

Why are you convinced that the language was not in written form as far back as 1000 BC?

Kobojunkie:
Focus already! Leave the mythical creature called David and the Greek Septuagint out of this. I asked you regarding the Hebrew language.

Why are you convinced that the language was not in written form as far back as 1000 BC?

There was actually one point I raised, which u missed.

4. If Hebrew was an established language, why den will an Hebrew man write the book of Hebrews to Hebrew audience in Greek?

I want u to answer this question.

Krismas:
There was actually one point I raised, which u missed.
4. If Hebrew was an established language, why den will an Hebrew man write the book of Hebrews to Hebrew audience in Greek?
I want u to answer this question.

There is actually a very good reason for that.

Quick question. How many 3rd or 4th generation Hausa Americans or Yorubas or Igbos living all of their lives in America do you know of who write their thoughts or use idioms that are of their native language in all of their writings?

Kobojunkie:
There is actually a very good reason for that.

Quick question. How many 3rd or 4th generation Hausa Americans or Yorubas or Igbos living all of their lives in America do you know of who write their thoughts or use idioms that are of their native language in all of their writings?

Hausa, Yoruba and Igbo are not languages of scriptures or religion like Hebrew. Do you suppose an Arabic man will write a letter of religious nature, to an Arabic audience in English?

Krismas:
✓ Hausa, Yoruba and Igbo are not languages of scriptures or religion like Hebrew.
✓ Do you suppose an Arabic man will write a letter of religious nature, to an Arabic audience in English?

Languages of Scripture? Again,you avoided answering the questions.

2. Is the Hebrew language a religious language? Why is Hebrew a language of Scripture by the way? Who made Hebrew a language of Scripture or religion?

Kobojunkie:
Focus already! Leave the mythical creature called David and the Greek Septuagint out of this. I asked you regarding the Hebrew language.

Why are you convinced that the language was not in written form as far back as 1000 BC?

Yahu worshippers in Elephantine that came out from Judaea, wrote letters to Jerusalem in 5th century BCE in Aramaic. Not Hebrew. They didn’t know Solomon or David, Abraham or Moses. Just by the way.
So if Hebrew scripture were back written from Septuagint, then Hebrew writing must not be much older than 400BCE

Krismas:
✓ Yahu worshippers in Elephantine that came out from Judaea, wrote letters to Jerusalem in 5th century BCE in Aramaic. Not Hebrew. They didn’t know Solomon or David, Abraham or Moses. Just by the way.
So if Hebrew scripture were back written from Septuagint, then Hebrew writing must not be much older than 400BCE

Am I to take this to mean that you are not able to answer any of the questions I have asked up until this point? 👉

Kobojunkie:
Languages of Scripture? Again,you avoided answering the questions.

2. Is the Hebrew language a religious language? Why is Hebrew a language of Scripture by the way? Who made Hebrew a language of Scripture or religion?

U not asking intelligent questions.
We are assuming Hebrew Scriptures were already preexisting b4 the New Testament.
So, why will a Hebrew religious instructor, write religious letters to Hebrew audience in Greek? It only shows Hebrew was not an established language of religious instruction.
The New Testament further buttress my point that Hebrew Scriptures were back written from Greek Scriptures.

Kobojunkie:
Am I to take this to mean that you are not able to answer any of the questions I have asked up until this point? 👉

u are to believe what u like.
The Elephantine people were Jews. If I may use that word. But you can see, they wrote in Aramaic and not Hebrew 500BCE. So if that does not answer your question, I don’t know what else will

Krismas:
✓ U not asking intelligent questions. We are assuming Hebrew Scriptures were already preexisting b4 the New Testament.
So, why will a Hebrew religious instructor, write religious letters to Hebrew audience in Greek? It only shows Hebrew was not an established language of religious instruction.
The New Testament further buttress my point that Hebrew Scriptures were back written from Greek Scriptures.

Again, I made clear that I am not interested in anything you have to say of Scripture or Greek but the Hebrew language alone, and I have asked several questions up till now which you continue to dodge.

Krismas:
u are to believe what u like.
The Elephantine people were Jews. If I may use that word. But you can see, they wrote in Aramaic and not Hebrew 500BCE. So if that does not answer your question, I don’t know what else will

Record has it that some Israelites ran off to Egypt begining around 700BC; Also, about 200 years after, some from the nation of Judah -- Jewish sects of Israel --- equally escaped to Egypt.

That again is by the side, my focus remains on claims you have made of the Hebrew language.

cococandy
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