₦airaland Forum

AntiChristian:
Throughout the Bible "the Lord our God is one" has always been emphasized. There's no three in one Gods anywhere!

That's just it, God is one and not plural Gods.

Word and Spirit are in father that can't be separated from the father!

Emusan:
The best illustration is the story of Adam & Eve.

Note: the name EVE didn't come onboard until the fall.

So, let's take it this way

In the garden was the woman, and the woman was with Man and the woman was Man

What comes to your mind here?

According to the Bible, Adam was alone hence God created Eve from Adam.

So when God felt He was alone, He created the son to be part of Himself. Maybe later created the spirit likewise. But He should have continue to create more to relieve the loneliness!

In the garden, the man first was around without the woman, then later the woman came about!
So we can also say, there was a time when Jesus and the spirit do not exist just like Eve!
No! Just one but you'll understand this better if you understand the above illustration.

Holy Spirit is God. Reason why John used God and not the Father.

So whenever John used God he meant the father and the Spirit. So "the word was with God" meant "the word was with the father and Spirit" right?

Kobojunkie:
1🤣🤣🤣

So, Allah of Islam has like Billions of previously created Ruh/souls sitting around with him since the beginning of creation? Are you for real? 🤔

Yeah! Octodecillion or uncountable as He wills! Animals too have soul though not similar to ours.

2. Quran of Allah shares eternal(divine) essence of Allah of Islam and exists eternally with Allah of Islam in his version of heaven at the same time existing here on earth in the form of words transmitted by word of mouth and then eventually penned downed many years after Mohammed. And Islamist all believe that violating the copy of the Quran here on earth is tantamount to abusing the Quran that lives someone is Islamist heaven with their Allah of Islam. 🤔

Not many years after Muhammad. Less than two years! Get your facts right. This is not the Bible that was written up to 80 years after Jesus in parts and compiled centuries later! Don't be a liar! Lies are bad you know!

Emusan:
The best illustration is the story of Adam & Eve.

Note: the name EVE didn't come onboard until the fall.

So, let's take it this way

In the garden was the woman, and the woman was with Man and the woman was Man

What comes to your mind here?

According to the Bible, Adam was alone hence God created Eve from Adam.

So when God felt He was alone, He created the son to be part of Himself. Maybe later created the spirit likewise. But He should have continue to create more to relieve the loneliness!

In the garden, the man first was around without the woman, then later the woman came about!
So we can also say, there was a time when Jesus and the spirit do not exist just like Eve!
No! Just one but you'll understand this better if you understand the above illustration.

Holy Spirit is God. Reason why John used God and not the Father.

So whenever John used God he meant the father and the Spirit. So "the word was with God" meant "the word was with the father and Spirit" right?

Kobojunkie:
Huh? What are you high on? 🥱

The book was written before 70AD, likely before Paul was shipped off to Rome, and also before the book of Revelation was written. And we all know that Jesus Christ of Israel died around 31AD. So, where did you get this 6-8 decades after Jesus Christ of Israel nonsense from? 🥱

O! My bad! That's Revelation of John that was written close to 100 CE.

Paul's Books were already in circulation even before the Synoptic Gospels! So no doubt those books were already doctored to conform to Pauline Christianity!

AntiChristian:
According to the Bible, Adam was alone hence God created Eve from Adam.

So when God felt He was alone, He created the son to be part of Himself. Maybe later created the spirit likewise. But He should have continue to create more to relieve the loneliness!

In the garden, the man first was around without the woman, then later the woman came about!

The point isn't if Adam was first lonely or not.

The point is according to the Bible both Adam and His wife were called MAN.

Reason for that illustration.

So, God be with God should be cleared here.

This is the basis of your thread.

So we can also say, there was a time when Jesus and the spirit do not exist just like Eve!
No! Just one but you'll understand this better if you understand the above illustration.

That's not the point from Genesis.

See above

So whenever John used God he meant the father and the Spirit. So "the word was with God" meant "the word was with the father and Spirit" right?

John didn't say the Father but God.

At least that's clear.

So, that answered your question of where is the Holy Spirit?

Kobojunkie:
1. The literal Scriptures that was circulated and read across synagogues and in administrative halls at the time, the Septuigant, was written in Greek. What in the world are you harping on about? 🥱🥱

The Septuagint (LXX) is an ancient Greek translation of the Hebrew Scriptures made by Jewish scholars in the 3rd to 2nd centuries BCE for Greek-speaking Jews in Alexandria. It was widely used and read in synagogues and official settings during the time of Jesus and the early church, meaning many Scriptures at that time were circulated in Greek rather than Hebrew.

2. Stop making stuff up and use your brains a bit more than not. He read the scriptures to the people in the Greek language and probably conversed among those in the t
Synagogues and temples in Greek. That He came from a town where the people likely spoke Aramaic DOES NOT mean he went around speaking Aramaic to all he encountered. 🥱🥱Do you speak your village language to everyone you meet when you are out and about? 🥱

Jesus most likely read Hebrew Scriptures in Hebrew or Aramaic in synagogues but may have been familiar with and occasionally used the Greek Septuagint, especially when addressing Greek-speaking people. The primary synagogue language was Hebrew, but Greek was also significant in the broader cultural context. I do speak my village language most of the time even at work!

2. Wrong! Communication with foreigners likely also means communication with anyone outside of those who were born in his birth village including some among his disciples. 🥱

Traditionally Jesus spoke Hebrew and Aramaic. There exist no evidence he spoke Greek in Israel. This can be seen also in phrases like "Thalita kum" and "Shalom Alaikem" all still preserved in the Bible!

3. Wrong! Jesus Christ of Israel was not a religionist; as a matter of fact he railed against those who abandoned the Law of the land to pursue religion. The Scriptures that existed even at his time was regarded as the book of the Law and the Prophet and it was circulated in the Greek language. 🥱

During Jesus' time, the Jewish people had access to Scriptures in Hebrew and Aramaic, and Greek was also influential in the region but not like you are making it.

Emusan:
The point isn't if Adam was first lonely or not.

The point is according to the Bible both Adam and His wife were called MAN.

Reason for that illustration.

So, God be with God should be cleared here.

This is the basis of your thread.

Your Premise is false again. An Individual is called man not two! Just as your Gods are three (as you are ashamed and called them three persons) but one! Adam was never together with Eve as a person! Eve was made from Adam.

I can also say your kids were with you as sperm cells/Ova. Then you can be interpreted in the same way. It doesn't make any sense!

That's not the point from Genesis.

See above

John didn't say the Father but God.

At least that's clear.

So, that answered your question of where is the Holy Spirit?

The Holy Spirit doesn't exist at all in that verse! And also that your theory is false.

Now this is eternal life: that they know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent. John 17:3

Who is John calling the ONLY TRUE GOD in the above verse?

AntiChristian:
Your Premise is false again. An Individual is called man not two! Just as your Gods are three (as you are ashamed and called them three persons) but one! Adam was never together with Eve as a person! Eve was made from Adam.

I can also say your kids were with you as sperm cells/Ova. Then you can be interpreted in the same way. It doesn't make any sense!

You have started convulsing.

Don't forget the title of the thread is "How many Gods are there?"

I came with an illustration of MAN being in the garden, which is best fit yet you couldn't grab it.

It was MAN who are in the garden and not MEN!

Do you get it?

The Holy Spirit doesn't exist at all in that verse! And also that your theory is false.

Which means, you are saying God exists but His Spirit doesn't Exist.

Continue.

Now this is eternal life: that they know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent. John 17:3

Who is John calling the ONLY TRUE GOD in the above verse?

Yahweh!

Emusan:
You have started convulsing.

Don't forget the title of the thread is "How many Gods are there?"

I came with an illustration of MAN being in the garden, which is best fit yet you couldn't grab it.

It was MAN who are in the garden and not MEN!

Do you get it?

Since you know the title of the thread is about "God" why bring a likeness of man into it? Is that your own way of convulsion?

Which means, you are saying God exists but His Spirit doesn't Exist.

Continue.

God is Spirit according to the Bible. God that is Spirit then has another Spirit. Then the word is with God. But again Emusion said God = father and Holy Spirit. So, are we not confused?

Yahweh!

More Problem! The more a trinitarian talks about his "Gods" the more complicated the discussion gets!

Jesus talked about two people viz: the Only true God and himself.

And you said the only true God is Yahweh!

So Jesus was talking about Yahweh and himself.

This means Jesus is not Yahweh and also not the true God!

Make we leave the Holy Spirit in another place for now!

AntiChristian:
➜O! My bad! That's Revelation of John that was written close to 100 CE.
➜ Paul's Books were already in circulation even before the Synoptic Gospels! So no doubt those books were already doctored to conform to Pauline Christianity!

1. The support for the claim that the book was written in 100CE is tremendously weak, as those who put forward this claim also insist that John was a prisoner on the island of Patmos at the same time, claiming he wrote of events to come, for which there is no evidence. I mean, especially since most of the events he wrote of happened several decades before 100CE.

2. The evidence for this is also tremendously weak. It is more likely that some of the books of the Gospels were already in circulation before or around the same time that Paul's letters were also gaining traction in other areas. Saying that since Paul did not quote from any of the Gospels implies Paul's letters must have been in circulation long before the Gospels is annoyingly simple-minded. The folks back then did not have a publisher distribution network as we do today. These men were not big shots as some would like to pretend. The Gospels may have been in the works while Paul himself was busy doing his own writing, and may have been circulating among people in different regions while Paul's letters were in others.

What we know is that Jesus Christ of Israel likely died in 31 CE, and the events that include the destruction of the Temple and then Amaggadon happened beginning 70 AD, after which many of the disciples must have also died, as there is no record of any of them in fact surviving the purge. This puts the Gospels and also the letters of Paul into the 40 years after Jesus Christ of Israel's death.

Kobojunkie:
1. The support for the claim that the book was written in 100CE is tremendously weak, as those who put forward this claim also insist that John was a prisoner on the island of Patmos at the same time, claiming he wrote of events to come, for which there is no evidence. I mean, especially since most of the events he wrote of happened several decades before 100CE.

What evidence do you even have that any John or even which John is which wrote any book in the Bible?

2. The evidence for this is also tremendously weak. It is more likely that some of the books of the Gospels were already in circulation before or around the same time that Paul's letters were also gaining traction in other areas. Saying that since Paul did not quote from any of the Gospels implies Paul's letters must have been in circulation long before the Gospels is annoyingly simple-minded. The folks back then did not have a publisher distribution network as we do today. These men were not big shots as some would like to pretend. The Gospels may have been in the works while Paul himself was busy doing his own writing, and may have been circulating among people in different regions while Paul's letters were in others.

Which evidence is strong and who are the ones doing the classification?

What we know is that Jesus Christ of Israel likely died in 31 CE, and the events that include the destruction of the Temple and then Amaggadon happened beginning 70 AD, after which many of the disciples must have also died, as there is no record of any of them in fact surviving the purge. This puts the Gospels and also the letters of Paul into the 40 years after Jesus Christ of Israel's death.

Even if it is 40 years after Jesus, a lot of additions and subtractions would have happened by then!

AntiChristian:
➜ What evidence do you even have that any John or even which John is which wrote any book in the Bible?
➜ Which evidence is strong and who are the ones doing the classification?
➜ Even if it is 40 years after Jesus, a lot of additions and subtractions would have happened by then!

1. Jesus Christ of Israel had at least 120 disciples at the time of His ascension(this is not adding all of the crowds who were healed or impacted in other ways by the same man during the time He walked the planet, according to the Gospel stories). The particular identity of the person or the John that wrote the Gospel from among His followers, given that the Gospels were written, not about any one of His followers, but rather of Him.

2. Strong evidence is that which connects to what is written and known, verifiable, and objectively sound.

3. According to whom? Why would a lot of additions have happened over a period where all of the accounts were taken from mostly eyewitnesses, of which there were plenty?

AntiChristian:
Since you know the title of the thread is about "God" why bring a likeness of man into it? Is that your own way of convulsion?

Your education failed you about the meaning of ILLUSTRATION.

You've used style to shift from your own POV.

In a nutshell, John 1:1 is One God and not GODS.

That's clear for now.

Unto the next.

God is Spirit according to the Bible. God that is Spirit then has another Spirit. Then the word is with God. But again Emusion said God = father and Holy Spirit. So, are we not confused?

I'm glad you know The same God who is a spirit also has A SPIRIT.

So, was the Spirit of God with God in John 1:1?

That's the point.

More Problem! The more a trinitarian talks about his "Gods" the more complicated the discussion gets!

Jesus talked about two people viz: the Only true God and himself.

And you said the only true God is Yahweh!

So Jesus was talking about Yahweh and himself.

This means Jesus is not Yahweh and also not the true God!

Make we leave the Holy Spirit in another place for now!

Yahweh is the ONLY TRUE GOD!

Not Allah.

Yahweh is a name for all the Three Persons of the Holy Trinity.

AntiChristian:
Greek was common among Jews in the time of Jesus, especially outside of strictly Jewish religious contexts.
Jesus likely spoke Aramaic primarily but probably had some knowledge of Greek.
The extent of Jesus' fluency in Greek is uncertain but likely sufficient for basic communication.
Communication with foreigners means Jesus communicating with the Romans! Was Jesus speaking Greek to his disciples, the Sadducees and Pharisees or those thousands he met on the way?

And you can't use Nigeria as a point of reference as traditional religion still retains their language! An Ifa man will always render the incantations in Yoruba and never English!

The people that used Greek in Judea were the Romans but the vernacular of the area was Aramaic

AntiChristian:
Throughout the Bible "the Lord our God is one" has always been emphasized. There's no three in one Gods anywhere!

I have told you several times that father, son and holy spirit are not Gods anywhere in Bible. Our God is One and not your imagination plural Gods!

IslamVIRGINS:
I have told you several times that father, son and holy spirit are not Gods anywhere in Bible. Our God is One and not your imagination plural Gods!

But you claim your Gods are three persons; Where is that also written?

lawani:
The people that used Greek in Judea were the Romans but the vernacular of the area was Aramaic

Kobojunkie was arguing Jesus spoke Greek and read the scriptures in Greek!

Emusan:
Your education failed you about the meaning of ILLUSTRATION.

You've used style to shift from your own POV.

In a nutshell, John 1:1 is One God and not GODS.

That's clear for now.

Into the next.

I don't do illustrations comparing God to man which happens to be the specialty of Christians. God always becoming man; a Super man!
John 1:1-2 = The word was with God and the word was God clearly states two Gods were with each other! John even continued that through him all things were made.

I'm glad you know The same God who is a spirit also has A SPIRIT.

So, was the Spirit of God with God in John 1:1?

That's the point.[/quote]Just regurgitating your thought process. The word was with God. The word was God. God then has a Spirit. Then the Spirit is God too. All are co-equal and Co-eternal. Yet, not three Gods but one!

Yahweh is the ONLY TRUE GOD!

Not Allah.

Yahweh is a name for all the Three Persons of the Holy Trinity.

So Yahweh sent his Son which is actually a part of Himself right?

Yahweh is the Only true God who send Jesus who happens to be a part of himself to die for the sins of other people he created right?

AntiChristian:
✓ was arguing Jesus spoke Greek and read the scriptures in Greek!

I was not arguing it but stating facts revealed in the Gospels themselves.

Jesus Christ of Israel read from the Septuigant, Greek language texts, to a temple and synagogue audience of fellow Israelites who listened and clearly understood every word and teaching of his. They all marvelled at his teachings, we are told. How could they have been able to do that without clear concise comprehension of the Greek language? 🤔

He debated priests and Pharisees, as well as non-Israelites,all of whom were learned and not from his village,🤔

AntiChristian:
Kobojunkie was arguing Jesus spoke Greek and read the scriptures in Greek!

He would have been able to speak Greek considering it was the official language of the Romans in the area

AntiChristian:
But you claim your Gods are three persons; Where is that also written?

I have lectured you this on the topic you created and abandoned!


https://www.nairaland.com/8687704/where-exactly-did-jesus-teach/3#139728120


We don't have Gods, I am very sure you did singular and plural in primary school to be able to differentiate between God and Gods?

AntiChristian:
I don't do illustrations comparing God to man which happens to be the specialty of Christians.

Who is comparing God to man?

You still don't know the simple meaning of illustration.

In the garden was the woman, and the woman was with man, and the woman was man?

This is perfect for John 1:1 scenario.

So, according to your won thread. It's not GODS but God.

God always becoming man; a Super man!

Not ALWAYS! He did it once for your salvation.

John 1:1-2 = The word was with God and the word was God clearly states two Gods were with each other! John even continued that through him all things were made.

You the word was GOD and was with God.

Now, do you agree that the woman was man and was with man?

I'm glad you know The same God who is a spirit also has A SPIRIT.

So, was the Spirit of God with God in John 1:1?

God and His Spirit are in separable.

Do you object to that?

That's the point. Just regurgitating your thought process. The word was with God. The word was God. God then has a Spirit. Then the Spirit is God too. All are co-equal and Co-eternal. Yet, not three Gods but one!

Not three Gods because John would have said so if they are THREE GODS.

Like I said above.

"The woman was with man and the woman was man" from the same Bible.

Do you agree?

So Yahweh sent his Son which is actually a part of Himself right?

Yahweh is the Only true God who send Jesus who happens to be a part of himself to die for the sins of other people he created right?

So, if you think this way. Do you agree that ANY PART of God is God or can ANY PART of God function independently?

Let me see your answer before moving to the next level.

Kobojunkie:
Wrong! The only way a simple mind could derive this from what is written in the first chapter of the Gospel of John is if that mind proceeded to abandon all that had previously been laid down of the same YHWH in the Old Law and the Prophets. Before the arrival of the Gospels, all of the Old Law and the Prophets had already provided a near-complete image of YHWH for those who are of Him to know and see that YHWH is not some being that can be split apart in the way you attempt there. The Gospels were founded on top of what was already laid down before it by Moses and the Prophets.

2. Anyways, the answer to this is pretty simple. Where was the spirit of Allah of Islam when the Allah of Islam was said to have breathed his spirit into the vagina of Mariam in Quran At-Tahrim(66) vs 12 to birth the one referred to as the word of Allah of Islam? Did the spirit of the Allah of Islam remain on earth inside of Mariam and then the child all that time? Where was the Quran of Allah, also known as the word of Allah, during the time that Isa of Islam walked the earth? Was the Allah of Islam on earth while his Quran was not, or what exactly was going on?

Are you using question to ask question 🤣🤣🤣🤣 you can answer the question he asked you and want to cut corner

Kobojunkie:
Where is your evidence of this?

Jesus Christ of Israel is reported to have spoken to a centurion, some of the wives of Roman officials, and also to Pilate. He is also recorded to have read from the Septuagint that was in the Temple/Synagogue on more than one occasion. So, how could he, a Judean, born after the Greeks had colonized his land for over 200 years, not speak the language of the Greeks, the major language--Lingua Franca--- in the land at the time?

Was this reported in the bible too

Expanse2020:
Was this reported in the bible too

Yes!

You should show us here too

Kobojunkie:
Yes!

Emusan:
Who is comparing God to man?

You still don't know the simple meaning of illustration.

In the garden was the woman, and the woman was with man, and the woman was man?

This is perfect for John 1:1 scenario.

So, according to your won thread. It's not GODS but God.

You are the ones doing the comparison. God is not man! And the woman was never with the man at the outset. When Adam was created, God called him Adam and not Adameve for Eve to be cut out later! And if the woman was man, then she should be called Adam too or rather the second Adam like Jesus. Your premises failed woefully!

Not ALWAYS! He did it once for your salvation.

God needs blood for salvation? Where the people of Nineveh not saved without blood sacrifice when they repented?

You the word was GOD and was with God.

Now, do you agree that the woman was man and was with man?

The woman was never with man! The woman was created from man! You are even changing your scripture to fit your theory!

God and His Spirit are in separable.

Do you object to that?

So when the spirit of God goes to the world does the father and son also follow?

Not three Gods because John would have said so if they are THREE GODS.

Like I said above.

"The woman was with man and the woman was man" from the same Bible.

Do you agree?

John didn't mention one God there too. It is clear that the Gods are two!

So, if you think this way. Do you agree that ANY PART of God is God or can ANY PART of God function independently?

Let me see your answer before moving to the next level.

By part what do you mean? Body component or essence?

Expanse2020:
You should show us here too

Get lost if even now you have not realized these simple facts of what is written in those books!

Kobojunkie:
Get lost if even now you have not realized these simple facts of what is written in those books!

Mad man 🤣🤣🤣
You too get loss jare
Kobo p▶️ssy 🤣🤣🤣

AntiChristian:
You are the ones doing the comparison.

Despite the fact that I wrote ILLUSTRATION in capital letters.

Who is doing comparison here?

God is not man!

He created Man, so He can't be Man and I don't know where I said God is a Man.

And the woman was never with the man at the outset. When Adam was created, God called him Adam and not Adameve for Eve to be cut out later!

This is not the point, I've said that earlier.

And if the woman was man, then she should be called Adam too or rather the second Adam like Jesus. Your premises failed woefully!

The @color shows how limited your Bible understanding is, well I'm not surprised because you never understand a bit of it before.

For your Bible study, Adam actually means MAN, So you can see that Bible is correct to have called Eve MAN.

So, "in the garden was the woman, and the woman was with Man, and the woman was Man"

It's the best illustration of John 1: 1 how The Word is God and was with God.

God needs blood for salvation? Where the people of Nineveh not saved without blood sacrifice when they repented?

Nineveh REPENTED of their EVIL deed so that God will not destroy THEM not after they died.

The woman was never with man!

You mean Adam and His wife were not together.

The woman was created from man! You are even changing your scripture to fit your theory!

The Woman was CALLED MAN.

How is that hard for you to understand?

So when the spirit of God goes to the world does the father and son also follow?

Answer my question first.

quote]John didn't mention one God there too. It is clear that the Gods are two![/quote]Where did John mention two Gods?

By part what do you mean? Body component or essence?

Whatever you know as part...
So, answer my question.

Emusan:
Despite the fact that I wrote ILLUSTRATION in capital letters.

Who is doing comparison here?



He created Man, so He can't be Man and I don't know where I said God is a Man.



This is not the point, I've said that earlier.



The @color shows how limited your Bible understanding is, well I'm not surprised because you never understand a bit of it before.

For your Bible study, Adam actually means MAN, So you can see that Bible is correct to have called Eve MAN.

So, "in the garden was the woman, and the woman was with Man, and the woman was Man"

It's the best illustration of John 1: 1 how The Word is God and was with God.



Nineveh REPENTED of their EVIL deed so that God will not destroy THEM not after they died.



You mean Adam and His wife were not together.



The Woman was CALLED MAN.

How is that hard for you to understand?



Answer my question first.

quote]John didn't mention one God there too. It is clear that the Gods are two!

Where did John mention two Gods?


By part what do you mean? Body component or essence?

Whatever you know as part...
So, answer my question.

The evidence below in the screenshot proofs that your analogy is poor. You really need to go to Trinitarians school. You have been teaching wrong trinity ever since you've been on this platform.