₦airaland Forum

Ohyoudidnt:
You credit the divorce law to Moses, not God, then prove 24:4 is God's because it says abomination before the LORD. But your own post says Moses stated it. That phrase is Moses' claim about God, made in the same passage as the permission you call only his. Either Moses' statements about God are reliable, and then 24:2 carries the same standing, or they aren't, and you have no divine verdict to set against 2:230. Your Matthew 5:32 also calls the marriage 24:2 allows adultery, so you are sorting verses by your reading of Jesus, not by anything the text says. A few things are still open from earlier, whenever you get to them: whether the wife put away without fornication may lawfully remarry under the verses you posted, the text saying consummation and not orgasm, and which hadith you consider weak. I'm happy to take them in whatever order suits you.

TenQ:
Why tell lies about what I never said?


Moses (not God) gave the Isrealites the law of divorce.

Mat 19:7:
"They say to him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorce, and to put her away?"

Mat 19:8:
"He said to them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so."

Say exactly what I said without MISREPRESENTING it

TenQ:
A Muslim is prone to argue for argument sake.

Moses said:
Deut 24:4:
"Her former husband, which sent her away, may not take her again to be his wife, after that she is defiled; for that is abomination before the LORD: and you shall not cause the land to sin, which the LORD your God gives you for an inheritance."

Moses said:
1. It is an ABOMINATION to God
2. It is a SIN



Secondly, I challenge you to show me WHERE you claimed "Your Matthew 5:32 also calls the marriage 24:2 allows adultery, "

Why must you tell lies to advance your case?



Please dont deviate from my question: they are simple enough.



All these to escape answering my Questions!?
The Question remain about the Wisdom of Allah and his Prophet

1. Tell me, what is the MORALITY, LOGIC and SENSE of this Law of Allah and his Prophet?

2. Why is the Faithful and Dutiful wife suffering for the rashness of her husband?

Ohyoudidnt:
Accusing me of arguing for argument's sake is not an argument.
On your quote, yes, Moses said it, and the same Moses wrote 24:2, where a divorced woman may go and become another man's wife. You credit one verse to God and the other to Moses, and still haven't shown the verse that sorts them. On my wording, you asked where I claimed it. It was my comparison, not a quote, so here it is as a question. Matthew 5:32, which you posted, says whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery, while Deut 24:2 says she may become another man's wife. How do both stand? Show how you draw that line, and do not just assert it.

Ohyoudidnt:
Now your two questions, straight. The logic is that 2:229 caps revocable divorce at two, so the third is final and he cannot use divorce as a toy. The morality is that his loss is the right to retake her at will, and in your rash case Ibn Taymiyya counts a triple in one sitting as one.

Ohyoudidnt:
As for why she suffers, she does not unless both want the reunion, and there I said the burden is real. Nobody forces her to marry, and she is free to marry anyone after her waiting period.

Ohyoudidnt:
Under your rule she is barred from every marriage, while 2:230 restricts only one. Is that answer enough? You can say no, but you can't say I didn't give it.

Expanse2020:
So you are saying Moses was the one who formulate the divorce idea 🤣🤣🤣
So not the God gave him the command..chaiii Christianity



Make I make this guy cry this morning

TenQ:
Se why I said you argue for arguments sake.
1. Jesus said: Moses permitted the children of Israel to divorce their wives because they were hard hearted.
2. Jesus returned us BACK to the foundation of the WILL of God

Doesn't Islam teach progressive Revelation?

Both cannot stand!
The Command of Jesus is superior as YHWH!


Irrespective of the method by which the final divorce is done, the case isn't about the man: it is about the INNOCENT Wife!
It is understandable if the Rash husband faces some form of punishment BUT not the Innocent Wife

Unfortunatly, she loves her husband and would rather not divorce him
HOWEVER,
It was the Husband who divorced her!

And the foolish husband realised that he made a BIG mistake that cannot be undone!

So, she suffers for no ERROR from her side.
She suffers for LOVING her husband!

According to your best intellect, is this the BEST solution for this problem?



Under the rule of Christ,
1. Divorce is NOT permitted EXCEPT in the case of Adultery either by the husband or by the wife(if the offended cannot bear with it)
2. Men are not exclusively given the right to pronounce divorce on their wives
Sorry:
We are not in the same category





AGAIN:
According to your best intellect, is this the BEST solution for this problem created by the Rash Muslim Husband against his Wife?

Ohyoudidnt:
You actually didn't get it? You say Jesus overrides what Moses permitted, yet you accept both within one biblical tradition. Islam likewise teaches that revelation can carry different rulings at different times. So a difference in rulings does not by itself prove a different divine source, and you need an independent argument that the Qur'an's ruling does. Saying Jesus is YHWH assumes the theology Muslims dispute.
On Deuteronomy, I never said 24:2 commands divorce. I asked how its recognition that a divorced woman may become another man's wife fits with Matthew 5:32. If you think they are compatible, explain how. Declaring that they cannot both stand is no more sufficient than declaring that they can.
On the woman, I have said the burden is real where both want to reunite. It is not necessarily the best imaginable rule. The argument is that it limits repeated divorce and keeps a husband from treating divorce and return as costless. In your rash case, scholars like Ibn Taymiyya count a triple said in one sitting as one. Women also have routes to dissolution, khulʿ and judicial divorce, though the rules vary by school and jurisdiction.

Ohyoudidnt:
Now apply your standard to Matthew 5:32. If a woman is divorced without adultery, can the man who marries her avoid the charge of adultery?

Ohyoudidnt:
If not, why is that better than a rule that restricts reunion with one former husband and permits marriage to another? You cannot condemn Islam's rule while exempting your own from the same scrutiny.

TenQ:
Ogbeni Sule

Did Jesus say that it was Moses with Reason WHY!?

Mat 19:7:
"They say to him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorce, and to put her away?"

Mat 19:8:
"He (Jesus) said to them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so."



Lukuluku

TenQ:
Sorry,
It seems you didn't get it.

Moses did NOT get a revelation for DIVORCE: He unilaterally gave the law to the children of Israel because they are hard hearted.

Jesus, said it wasn't how God designed marriage from the beginning. Then Jesus stated the exact desire of God.

It seems you are not aware that the Torah is a mixture of
1. Chronicles
2. Civil Laws
3. Criminal Laws
4. Religious Laws
5. Spiritual Laws and Commandments etc.







So. AGAIN:
According to your best intellect, is this the BEST solution for this problem created by the Rash Muslim Husband against his Wife?







He cannot escape adultery because to God Marriage is BOTH a Physical and Spiritual Union.

If you dissolve the physical union, tell me by what power you want to dissolve the spiritual union made by God Himself especially when God doesn't want to separate the union.

Mat 19:6:
"Why they are no more two, but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let not man put asunder."




The problem created by Allah and his Messenger is that the INNOCENT divorced Wife due to no fault of hers has to first marry someone else, exchange mutual orgasm with the person.

Jesus does NOT encourage DIVORCE in the first place.

Islam is a purely physical religion, so I understand why you wouldn't see marriage as spiritual union of two people.

The Rule of Jesus is that
1. Divorce is not acceptable except if a spouse cannot live with an adulterer
2. If you divorce your spouse, you have only done a physical separation but you cannot undo the spiritual union.
3. Anyone who thus married a divorced person is commit "Adultery" as they are not spiritually disconnected.

Expanse2020:
Don't change mouth ..earlier you claimed na Moses wrote the law not God and why are changing mouth now to that not the Moses wrote it again 🤣🤣🤣


And I challenge you to give us the Jesus rulings or law of the divorcee that is better than that moses Abi you don de scare ...

Jaymisi

Are you afraid to show us what Jesus said is the solution for the divorcee 🤣🤣🤣
If you said Moses created the law on his own without approval of your lord Jesus Christ
Show us the the divorcee law the Jesus created as the solution
Imagine this a senerio
Your sister is in abusive relationship with a man and now you don't want your sister to suffer in the relationship again or you want it out oya tell us what your bible prescribe as a solution to it since you said the law of Allah, the law given to Moses too is not right ...let hear the Jesus own or the Paul own 😂😂😂😂
quote]
And stop crying about Aishat R.t.a. just show evidence for your claimed instead of 😭 on the page with your lies

Ohyoudidnt:
You say Moses gave the divorce law unilaterally and got no revelation for it?Matthew 19:8 says he permitted it because of hard hearts, which is not the same as inventing it apart from God, and in Matthew 15:4 Jesus calls a Mosaic command God's. Then you quote Moses saying the return is an abomination before the LORD and treat that as God's verdict. So answer plainly. Is Moses as per your Bible lying about God, or authorized to speak for Him? If he is lying, you have no divine verdict to set against Quran 2:230. If he is authorized, Deut 24 carries God's authority, including verse 2, where the divorced woman may go and become another man's wife, which your Matthew 5:32 reading calls adultery. The only other option is that Moses spoke for God in verse 4 and for himself in verses 1 to 3, and that needs a verse that draws the line.
You say no human can undo what God joined physically and in spirit, yet you allow an adultery exception. Does adultery dissolve the union or only permit separation? And you told us the man who marries a wife put away without adultery commits adultery, so on your rule a wife whose husband has left her, with no adultery on her side, can never lawfully marry again while he lives. Why is that morally superior to a rule that restricts one reunion? Simply make it make sense.

Ohyoudidnt:
I have said the burden under Quran 2:230 is real where both want to reunite, and that scholars differ on a triple said in one sitting, with Ibn Taymiyya counting it as one. I apply one standard to both rules. You condemn the hardship in mine and treat yours as beyond question. And you accept a changed ruling between Moses and Jesus, so what independent argument shows a changed ruling in Islam means a different author?

TenQ:
To you Divorce and exchange of wives is a solution to martial problems?

Of course, one supposed holy man instead of mediating between the his son and his wife instead proferred divorce so that he can marry his sons wife.


Guess what, adoption was cancelled so that it would be legal for a Muslim man to henceforth marry the wives of their adopted son.

Tell me if adoption is cancelled, how can it be possible to marry the wife of your adopted son?


Qur’an 33:37
“And when you said to the one upon whom Allah had bestowed favor, and you had bestowed favor: ‘Retain your wife to yourself and fear Allah,’ while you concealed within yourself what Allah was going to disclose, and you feared the people, while Allah has more right that you fear Him.
So, when Zayd had finished his need from her, We gave her to you in marriage, so that there would not be upon the believers any blame concerning the wives of their adopted sons when they have finished their desire from them. And Allah’s command is ever accomplished.”

Expanse2020:
Give us the solution to the divorcee of Jesus in the bible
😂🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣
Ogbenu tan
The law says your sister that is in the abused marriage should endure( till his husband pkai am ) I she leave and remarry she committed adultery 🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣
See the solution the new testament brought for you

TenQ:

You dont get it!?
There is no divorcee in Christ's law.

so your sister that is suffering abusive from his husband should endure till they kingdom come ,🤣🤣🤣🤣 or till she pkai
Because the bible/ Jesus said if she leave the marriage and remarry then it is count as adultery 🤣🤣🤣🤣 make Allah no low our IQ oo

To you Divorce and exchange of wives is a solution to martial problems?

Of course, one supposed holy man instead of mediating between the his son and his wife instead proferred divorce so that he can marry his sons wife.


Guess what, adoption was cancelled so that it would be legal for a Muslim man to henceforth marry the wives of their adopted son.

Tell me if adoption is cancelled, how can it be possible to marry the wife of your adopted son?


Qur’an 33:37
“And when you said to the one upon whom Allah had bestowed favor, and you had bestowed favor: ‘Retain your wife to yourself and fear Allah,’ while you concealed within yourself what Allah was going to disclose, and you feared the people, while Allah has more right that you fear Him.
So, when Zayd had finished his need from her, We gave her to you in marriage, so that there would not be upon the believers any blame concerning the wives of their adopted sons when they have finished their desire from them. And Allah’s command is ever accomplished.”

Expanse2020:
If you want to learn about divorce in Islam youi will asked us and we teach you and you see the beauty and he logic behind it ..
Rather for your abusive marriage you and your spouse are facing which one person would later pkai since there is no solution to it in the bible 🤣🤣🤣🤣

TenQ:

Sorry!
Your divorce laws stinks to the heavens. You shamelessly pass along and rotate your wives around each other gleefully

you only made that nonsense up 🤣🤣 that why I no answer you before on it.

You marry the wives of your sons by adoption as adoption has been thankfully nolified by Allah

tell me the name of your son that you marry his wife oo

Even your prophet says Mary the mother of Jesus has been married off to him in paradise.

ehen otun gbemi dé oo 🤣😂😂🤣🤣 chriyo and lies

Your paradise has hookers from hell given to you from the inmates of hell fire by Allah

ehen shebi that one na heaven
Na here on earth your sisters are doing their own hookers, when they pay their tithes they believe your God don wave am ..

Your third leg would be given the strength of seventy men and would be perpetually standing.

no my third leg will be 100% strength olohun since am getting 100 folds of women,🤣🤣🤣

All you would be doing is orgies and booze in the paradise of Allah.

yes wine is sweet but not the one your God they share up and down óò, that one de make ppl craze, the one your God direct his creation said drink to stupor 🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣..
Not the one your God drink that smoke is coming from his nose óò🤣😂🤣
Not that one
But HALAL WINE

No wonder, all about Islamabad is sexieological in nature.

Abi opo that why de created ONLY FAN
And others mojos site..
That 90% of the hookers are bearing Serah and John ... That you heard the ringing tone of
HOLY FUCKING JESUS
OH MY GOD
GOD DAMN IT
SWEET JESUS 😂😂🤣🤣🤣🤣
HOLY FUCKING CHRIST
That why their headquarters based in AMERICA our Christians / God own kwantry


Islam, the religion of LAH
You wanted to say CHRISTIANITY IS A CALLING OF BAAL 😂😂

TenQ:
You are just needlessly feigning dumbness.
1. The Torah is not a dictation from God
2. The Torah is a set of Chronicles and Sets of Different laws (Religious Laws, Civil laws, Commandments, Ritual laws etc)
3. Moses gave a civil law with respect to divorce for a reason; his people are heard hearted.
4. Jesus explained why Moses gave such laws and that it wasn't God's laws.
If you cannot understand this. too bad.


If Moses is the leader of Israel, does he have the power to make and give laws? Moses even went ahead to ask them to present a certificate of divorce to their estranged spouse. This is a civil law whether you admit it or not.

Moses is NOT like Mohammed you Muslims claim that anything from him is from Allah. Everything from Moses is NOT from God just like everything from David is NOT from God.

Unfortunately, there was no EXISTING explicitly stated law of God that Moses violated.

If you know of any. bring it out.



Divorce is not permitted in Christ as you cannot break a spiritual marriage. So. how can you claim to apply the same law to
1. A religion that allows divorce and remarriage to multiple persons and
2. A religion that forbid divorce and as such sees separated couples as spiritually connected in marriage.


You claiming that a Burden is real doesn't solve any problems.
The Burden is DISASTROUS at the least and highly UNJUST!

It only exposes the fact that Allah and his Messenger created a DUMB law against dutiful and faithful Muslim Wives who were unfortunate to marry some rash husbands.

How come Allah couldn't see the consequence of his command?




It is the same manner Allah made a Blunder because of his lack of understanding in the law of Retribution in your Qur'an while copying the law of Moses wrt retribution









The Question remain about the Wisdom of Allah and his Prophet

1. Tell me, what is the MORALITY, LOGIC and SENSE of this Law of Allah and his Prophet?

2. Why is the Faithful and Dutiful wife suffering for the rashness of her husband?

3. According to your best intellect, is this the BEST solution for this problem created by the Rash Muslim Husband against his Wife?

Ohyoudidnt:
TenQ, you said Moses unilaterally gave the law and did not get a revelation for divorce. Civil tells you the class of a law, not where it came from. Deut 5:31 has God telling Moses to teach Israel His commandments, statutes and judgments. Exodus 21:1 introduces the judgments Moses set before them, and Jesus in Matthew 15:4 credits Exodus 21:17 to God. I'm not saying every word was dictated or handed down in the tablet. I'm saying you can't just assume civil law was Moses' own idea. Matthew 19:8 says he permitted divorce because of hard hearts, nothing about doing it apart from God.
Deut 24 now. Verse 4 says abomination before the LORD. Verses 1 to 3 are how she got to another man in the first place. If verse 4 is God and verses 1 to 3 are only Moses, show me the text that draws that line. Is Moses lying about the LORD there, or speaking for Him? If he's speaking for Him, why are 1 to 3 unauthorised?
And your spiritual union. Exodus 21:10 to 11 sets a wife free if her husband takes another wife and starves her of food, clothing or marital rights. 1 Corinthians 7:15 says a believer isn't bound when the unbeliever leaves. So what happens to the union there, and can they remarry?
On Quran 2:230, yes it's a real hardship if both want to reunite, and no, I haven't called it the best possible rule. The third divorce is final, that's the point. You picked the comparison with Deut 24:4, and you used my test, that an innocent person shouldn't pay for another's act. So why is your rule better when an innocent divorced woman can't remarry without adultery being charged?

Ohyoudidnt:
Finally, a different ruling doesn't prove a different author. You accept that between Moses and Jesus. And dumb isn't an argument for unjust.

Ohyoudidnt:
Give me the verse for the retribution claim and the error you see, in its own post.

TenQ:
Enough repeating your weeping over nothing. The Torah is NOT a DICTATION unlike the Qur'an. If it was a dictation, your argument may hold some water but sorry it isn't.


It is a ruling by man versus a ruling by God. It is clear as Night and Day.


If Mohammed gives you his Ruling and Allah (later through Mohammed) then give you his ruling, which one do you follow?

TenQ:
The Wisdom Of Allah's Law Of Retribution (A BAD copy Of the Law Of Moses)?

In the Bible at the time of Moses when the Law of Retribution was in Effect, the Law of an Eye for an Eye was applied as a means of enacting equity in justice for offences.
It is interesting to note that Jesus CANCELLED this Law of Retribution of Moses in Mat 5:38-42:

But as we a know, Mohammed COPIED everything that fancies him from the Jews, Christians, Folklores etc.

He made the mistake of Copying the Law of Retribution and Attributed it to Allah as Usual by putting it in the Qur'an.

Unfortunately, Mohammed or Allah misapplied it in a TERRIBLE format.

Qur'an 2:178
"O you who have believed, prescribed for you is legal retribution for those murdered -
the free for the free,
the slave for the slave, and
the female for the female.
But whoever overlooks from his brother anything, then there should be a suitable follow-up and payment to him with good conduct. This is an alleviation from your Lord and a mercy. But whoever transgresses after that will have a painful punishment."

Let us apply these laws.
1. If I as a Free Muslim man killed the slave of Ohyoudidnt or Expanse2020 then Allah require that I should present my slave for execution.

2. If I as a Free Muslim man killed the Female slave of Ohyoudindnt or Expanse2020, then Allah require that I should present my Female slave for execution.

3. If I, as a Free Muslim man, killed another Free Muslim, then, I am liable to be killed also (this is fairly representative of the Law of Moses in Retribution)

However, According to Tafsir Ibn Kathir Qur'an 2:178-179
He said that, all Muslim scholars agree that
The Muslim is not killed for the disbeliever (whom he kills).)



Questions :
1. What is the Equity if my innocent slave would be killed because I killed the slave of my neighbour?
2. Why is it that as a Muslim I can get away with murder if the person I killed is NOT a Muslim?
3. Why is equity in gender of execution important to Allah?
4. What is the Wisdom with respect to murder in Allah's Law of Retribution

Ohyoudidnt:
I already mentioned the tablet. Are we meant to think Moses had no more contact with God after receiving it? Exodus 33:7 to 11 has him; Moses, speaking with the Lord face to face, Exodus 34 records further terms, and Leviticus 1:1 says the Lord spoke to him from the tent of meeting. Not every word dictated and Moses acted independently of God are two different claims. You've argued the first and assumed the second. Matthew 19:8 says he permitted divorce because of hard hearts, nothing about doing it apart from God. You called it man versus God as clear as night and day, yet you set Deut 24:4 from that same Torah against Quran 2:230 as God's abomination. I need you to squarely address this as you haven't thus far. Show me the text that puts verse 4 on God's side and verses 1 to 3 on Moses'.
Look at your last three posts. I asked about Deut 24, you gave me retribution, then a hypothetical about Muhammad pbuh and Allah, then Zayd and a rant about paradise. You still haven't said what Exodus 21:10 to 11 and 1 Corinthians 7:15 do to your spiritual union, why an innocent divorced woman should never remarry, or why a different ruling proves a different author when you accept it between Moses and Jesus.
On Quran 2:178 I'll say this much. It doesn't tell a man to hand over his own slave for execution, and female for female didn't limit executing a man for killing a woman. The Muslim and non-Muslim point is a real dispute, since Ibn Kathir reports the majority view and Abu Hanifa differing. That is criticism of a ruling, not proof of plagiarism or divine error. It doesn't replace the divorce questions.
Answer those first.

Ohyoudidnt:
Give me the verse for the retribution claim and the error you see, in its own post.

TenQ:
Sorry for your tantrums.
The case is decided: you could fight Jesus if you can!
Being unreasonably OBSTINATE doesn't help you. Argument from silence is no argument my dear!


Let me flip this on you using exactly the same rule you are trying to impose on me.


1. Allah gave you permission to do mutah in the Qur'an Qur’an 4:24
2. Mohammed claimed that Allah has forbidden it BUT not in the Qur'an

Sahih Muslim 1406 d
Sabra al-Juhani reported on the authority of his father that while he was with Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) he said: O people, I had permitted you to contract temporary marriage with women, but Allah has forbidden it (now) until the Day of Resurrection. So he who has any (woman with this type of marriage contract) he should let her off, and do not take back anything you have given to them (as dower).

Can we trust that Allah truly canceled mutah from the words of Mohammed?

If it is YES,

then can we trust that Deu 24:4: is from God?

Deu 24:4:
"Her former husband, which sent her away, may not take her again to be his wife, after that she is defiled; for that is abomination before the LORD: and you shall not cause the land to sin , which the LORD your God gives you for an inheritance."








And I noticed that all these was just to avoid answering the law of retribution according to Allah.

TenQ:
The Wisdom Of Allah's Law Of Retribution (A BAD copy Of the Law Of Moses)?

In the Bible at the time of Moses when the Law of Retribution was in Effect, the Law of an Eye for an Eye was applied as a means of enacting equity in justice for offences.
It is interesting to note that Jesus CANCELLED this Law of Retribution of Moses in Mat 5:38-42:

But as we a know, Mohammed COPIED everything that fancies him from the Jews, Christians, Folklores etc.

He made the mistake of Copying the Law of Retribution and Attributed it to Allah as Usual by putting it in the Qur'an.

Unfortunately, Mohammed or Allah misapplied it in a TERRIBLE format.

Qur'an 2:178
"O you who have believed, prescribed for you is legal retribution for those murdered -
the free for the free,
the slave for the slave, and
the female for the female.
But whoever overlooks from his brother anything, then there should be a suitable follow-up and payment to him with good conduct. This is an alleviation from your Lord and a mercy. But whoever transgresses after that will have a painful punishment."

Let us apply these laws.
1. If I as a Free Muslim man killed the slave of Ohyoudidnt or Expanse2020 then Allah require that I should present my slave for execution.

2. If I as a Free Muslim man killed the Female slave of Ohyoudindnt or Expanse2020, then Allah require that I should present my Female slave for execution.

3. If I, as a Free Muslim man, killed another Free Muslim, then, I am liable to be killed also (this is fairly representative of the Law of Moses in Retribution)

However, According to Tafsir Ibn Kathir Qur'an 2:178-179
He said that, all Muslim scholars agree that
The Muslim is not killed for the disbeliever (whom he kills).)



Questions :
1. What is the Equity if my innocent slave would be killed because I killed the slave of my neighbour?
2. Why is it that as a Muslim I can get away with murder if the person I killed is NOT a Muslim?
3. Why is equity in gender of execution important to Allah?
4. What is the Wisdom with respect to murder in Allah's Law of Retribution

Ohyoudidnt:
Look at your last two posts. In the one you said the case is decided and called me obstinate. In the second you pasted the retribution post you'd already posted earlier, unchanged, as if my answer on 2:178 didn't exist. I answered it. You skipped the answer and repeated the question. That isn't someone who's winning, it's someone who won't read the reply.
If the case is decided, it shouldn't take you long to show it. You say my case is an argument from silence, but your claim that Moses acted without God rests on Matthew 19:8 not mentioning God, which is silence. I gave you Exodus 33:7 to 11, Exodus 34, Leviticus 1:1, Deut 5:31 and Matthew 15:4. You answered none of them.
And these are still open. What text puts Deut 24:4 on God's side and verses 1 to 3 on Moses', in one speech? What do Exodus 21:10 to 11 and 1 Corinthians 7:15 do to your spiritual union, and can those spouses remarry? Why should an innocent divorced woman never remarry, and why is that better than Qur'an 2:230? And why does a different ruling prove a different author when you accept it between Moses and Jesus?
A man sure of his ground answers four questions in four lines. If you're ashamed of where they lead, pasting the same post twice won't shelter you. Retribution may get its own thread from me once you've answered these, but I'm not letting you swap topics to avoid them.

TenQ:
I know you want to flee. I have given you the answer by using your EXACT rue on you.
Moses said:
Deu 24:4:
"Her former husband, which sent her away, may not take her again to be his wife, after that she is defiled; for that is abomination before the LORD: and you shall not cause the land to sin , which the LORD your God gives you for an inheritance."

You insist that I should provide evidence that this is from God.

I now flip it back tyo you, since you refused to listen to common sense
1. Allah ordered Mutah for you Muslims in Qur’an 4:24
2. There exist zero evidence that Allah cancelled Mutah in the Quran
3. Mohammed claimed that Allah has cancelled Mutah till the day of resurection

Is this true? Should we believe Mohammed's word about Allah?

After you answer this question , we can apply your answer to your query and then go back to the law of retribution

Ohyoudidnt:
I haven't fled. I've answered every post of yours, and I'm still on Deut 24 where you started. What I won't do is chase a new topic each time you hit a question you can't answer. First it was retribution, now Mutah, and before that Zayd and paradise. That isn't a deal, it's a pile of side issues, and answering them all at once is how a debate never finishes. One topic at a time, and divorce first because you started it.
You offered to apply my answer to my query. Fine, that already helps.

Ohyoudidnt:
You said Deut 24:4 is God's because Moses said so, so you accept a prophet's word about God as a witness. Then Moses' own statement that the Lord commanded him the statutes and judgments covers the whole speech, including the verses before 24:4. That's your own rule, and it's why your split between verse 4 and verses 1 to 3 still has no text behind it.

Ohyoudidnt:
So finish the divorce debate. Where is the text that puts Deut 24:4 on God's side and verses 1 to 3 on Moses'? What do Exodus 21:10 to 11 and 1 Corinthians 7:15 do to your spiritual union, and can those spouses remarry? Why should an innocent divorced woman never remarry, and why is that better than 2:230? And why does a different ruling prove a different author when you accept it between Moses and Jesus? Answer those, and Mutah and retribution will each get their own post in turn.

TenQ:
Mutah was an example of laws propagated by Allah and Mohammed without understanding. And we will come back to that.

Zayd was an example of Muslims shamelessly passing their wives around even up to the wobes of their sons.

Retribution is an example of misapplied law of Moses



Is it true that I told you that the Torah is a compilation of Chronicles, and Several kind of Laws?

Meaning that NOT every verse in the Torah is the word of or from God. But you chose to ignore this by insisting that EVERY WORD in the Torah is from God.
1. Jesus said: Moses permitted Divorced because the children of Israel were heard hearted Deut 24:1-3
2. But Moses stated that If a Woman be Divorced and defiled by another man, it is an ABOMINATION and SIN to God.

Except your point is that Moses LIED against God.

So,
Do you think Moses LIED against Hod in Deut 24:4 ?

Please respond without multitudes of words



1. Deut 24:1-3 is modality for Divorce.
Jesus said: This permission was given by Moses
Mat 19:8:
"He said to them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so."

2. Deut 24:4 Moses explained that in the case of Divorce, a man cannot remarry his former Wife who has been defiled by another man BECAUSE it is both a SIN and an ABOMINATION to God


So, my question again is,
Is Moses telling LIES against God?



So, simple question that requires
A YES or NO plus one or two sentences of explanation if need be!



I wait for your response