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*for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam - Islam (2) - Nairaland

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Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by AlBaqir(m): 11:30am On Mar 07, 2016
Newnas:
presently, I'm in exam period and as a result I won't be able to respond Now.

But in shaa Allah once I finish my exams, all these distortions and viruses that you have mentioned will be clarified.
Wishing you the very best in your exams. I'm curiously waiting to see your "clarification" to my "distortions". All praise be to Allah, all my references are 100% Sunni Sahih.

Newnas:
I would have responded now but its better to respond with solid responses especially the references and that will need a clear mind.
Ma sha Allah! Waiting eargerly for that "solid responses".

Newnas:
However, what I will say for now is that the aqeedah of the imams of sunnah including Ali, Fatimah and their offsprings is that Allah is pleased with all the companions of Muhammad alyhissolaat wassalaam and that includes Aisha, Hafsoh, Abu Bakr, Umar, Uthman, Ali, Abu Hurayrah and all the other companions (both ansaar and muhaajiroon).
And this is what the Quran and Sunnah has stated.
Irrelevant to the discussion. The discussions was initially on correcting your Bid'ah salawat ala Nabiyy. You stylishly jumped to the issue of Ahlulbayt. My stance is crystal clear as presented earlier. Kindly stick to the discussion.

Newnas:
I'll also mention that you have been very skillful in your taqiyyah!
you -rightly- called Aishah ummul mu'mineen (mother of the believers), I know you only said this out of taqiyyah and you don't believe this because to the shia anyone who doesn't believe Aisha is in hell then such a person is a disbeliever.
Only in your fantasy world is Albaqir using Taqiyah for calling Aisha, Umm al-Mu'minin.

# THE TITLE "UMM AL-MU'MININ

Umm al-mu'minin (mother of believers) is a term used in the holy Quran for the wives of the Prophet including Aisha.

Allah says:

"The Prophet has a greater claim on the faithful than they have on themselves, and his wives are (as) their mothers; ..." [sura Ahzab: 6]

* Allamah Hussein al-Tabatabai (d. 1412H) explains:

"His statement {and his wives are their mothers} is a legal status, that is, they (the wives of the Prophet) are to them (i.e the believers) of the status of their mothers, in terms of the obligatoriness of honouring them and the prohibition of marrying them after the Prophet, peace be upon him and his family."

Ref: {al-Mizan fi Tafsir al-Quran (Qum: Manshurat Jama'at al-Mudarisin fi al-Hawzah al-Ilmiyyah), vol.16, p.277

* Ayatullah Makarim al-Shirazi also submit

"As for the issue of the wives of the Prophet (s), even though they are not biological mothers (to the believers), except that they are spiritual mothers, derived the rank and honour of the Prophet (s). It is obligatory to honour them as mothers. When we see that the Quran has forbidden marriage to the wives of the Prophet (s), in the previous verse, this is another instance of respect to them and respect to the Prophet (s)."

Ref: {Nasir Makarim al-Shirazi, al-Amthal fi Tafsir Kitab Allah al-Munzal, vol.13, p.171}

Obviously, with whatever sin or misconduct Aisha committed, she did not loose the title of "Mother of believer". Likewise the title does not erase her sins and misconduct. Just like our biological mothers, even if they were unbelievers and transgressors, Quran forbid us to be rude or used vilified words for them. We are to respect them but not to take them as model. It is however "sins" in Sunni (esp. Salafiyah) world to expose all Sunni documents on Aisha's misconducts.

* A SUPPORTING SHI'I HADITH

Sheik al-Saduq (d. 381 H) records:

My father, may Allah be merciful to him – Sa’d b. ‘Abd Allah – ‘Abd Allah b. Ja’far – Mas’adah b. Ziyad – Ja’far b. Muḥammad – his father, peace be upon them both: Marwan b. al-Ḥakam said:

“When ‘Ali, peace be upon him, defeated us at Baṣra, he returned to the people their properties. Whoever presented evidence, he gave him; and whoever did not present evidence, he made him swear (by Allah). Then, someone said to him, ‘O Amir al-Muminin! Distribute the war booty and the war captives among us.’ When they became many making repeated demands from him, he said, ‘Which of you will take Umm al-Muminin as part of his share?’ Then, they stopped.”

Ayatollah al-Muhsini says about it: Mu’tabarah (Reliable)

Ref: {'Ilal al-Sharai [Najaf: al-Maktabah al-Haydariyah; 1386H], vol.2, p.603, #69}.

* Obviously from this hadith, Imam Ali preserved the "Umm al-Mu'minin" title for Aisha which send message of respect to those who wanted to belittle her by demanding "war booty" that included her.

* A deviated Yasiriyah never adhere to these authentic Shi'i Tafsir and hadith. This make them err in vilifying Aisha and Hafsah. It is very unfortunate how this fraction among the Shi'a are presumed to be Shia majority's attitudes.

Newnas:
Allah called her rodiyaLLaahu anhuma and other other wives mothers of the believers, I don't think you know the implication of such title! This motherhood also encompasses Ali bn Abi tolib except if you will say he is not a believer!
# First I have given you the meaning of "Umm al-Mu'minah".

# If Aisha truly defend the honor of being "mother of the believers", how come a good mother war against her spiritual sons leading to the death of thousands, creating the first civil war and Fitnah?

Imam Ali ibn Abi Talib (as) was her Mawla, Amir, Khalifah and Imam.

Newnas:
The verses of tahrim only show that Aishah and Hafsoh are not infallible, only a deviant will interpret it to mean that they are misguided and deviants. If not Allah wouldn't have given them such great title of Ummul mu'mineen because it would mean giving the believers an evil mother and model, audhubiLLah.
No doubt Surah Tahrim is a bomb to your ideology.

Allah says Aisha and Hafsa's hearts were deviated from the truth.

# Imam Al-Tabari writes:

Narrated ibn Abbas: His Statement {If you both (women) repent to Allah (swt), for your hearts have become CROOKED} means, "YOUR HEARTS HAVE DEVIATED. Your hearts have committed sins."

Narrated Mujahid: "We used to think that His statement [Your hearts have CROOKED] is an easy matter until we heared the Qirah of ibn Mas'ood (If you both (women) repent to Allah (swt), FOR YOUR HEARTS HAVE DEVIATED)."

Narrated Qatadah: [Your hearts have become CROOKED] means your hearts have SWERVED. Narrated AlDahak: [Your hearts have become CROOKED] means, "(Your hearts have) DEVIATED." Narrated Sufyan (Al-Thawri): (Your hearts have become CROOKED) means "Your hearts have DEVIATED."
Ref: Tafsir Al-Tabari. Vol. 23, Pg. # 93 - 94}

# Imam Al-Qurtubi also writes:

The Statement of Allah (swt) {If you both (women) repent to Allah (swt)} referring to Hafsah and A'isha upon repentance for what occurred from both in terms of swerving into opposition to what the Messenger of Allah (saw) loved. {Your hearts have become CROOKED} meaning, "(Your hearts have) DEVIATED AND SWERVED FROM THE HAQQ" and that what loving what the Prophet (saw) hated.

Ref: Al-Jami Al-Ahkam Al-Qur'aan. Vol. 21, Pg. # 83

# Imam Ibn al-Jawzi (d.597H) add this:

"Then He (Allah) addresses 'Aisha and Hafsah, saying: {If you both repent to Allah}, meaning from helping each other against the Messenger of Allah to hurt him. {For your hearts have deviated} Ibn 'Abbas said, "They (the hearts) deviated, and deviated from the Truth." Mujahid said, "We used to consider His words, the Almighty {For your hearts have deviated} has something easy until we found it in the recitation of Ibn Mas'ud as: {for your hearts have deviated (zaghat)."

Ref: {Zad al-Masir fi 'Ilm al-Tafsir (Beirut: Dar al-Fikr; 1st edition, 1407H),vol.8, p.52}

At the end of Aisha's life, she confessed to have innovated after the demise of her blessed husband.

# Imam Ibn Abi Shaybah documents:

Abu Usamah – Ismail b. Abi Khalid – Qays: When she was about to die, ‘Aisha said, “Bury me with the wives of the Prophet, peace be upon him, for I had INNOVATED after him


Newnas:
Then we don't deny the fact the virtues of Ali, unlike the shia whose religion is nothing but Ali, Fatimoh and their offsprings! rather we affirm virtue for all the companions as the Quran and sunnah has stated and I am sure you are not ignorant of the texts regarding this.
Congratulations for not denying the fadhail of Imam Ali (as).

Newnas:
In fact, If not because of the fear of the ignorant generality falling into your misguidance, I don't see any wisdom in debating a person who curses Abu Bakr and Umar and calls Abu Hurayrah a liar!

This is just a tip of the iceberg, once I finish my exams just know you are in serious soup!
grin You need to present Albaqir's quotes where he has EVER cursed Abu Bakr and Umar if you are truthful. You have to do this for the curse of Allah is upon the liars.
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by AlBaqir(m): 11:44am On Mar 07, 2016
Saifullah01:
Arguing with the Shia's is tantamount to looking for a pin in the darkness. They are Always looking for technicalities to cause 'shubha' (doubts) among believers.

Imagine one of the reason adduced by them above to exclude the wives of the prophet (AS) from his household as being the pronoun used (Kum) is masculine! Every amatuer student of Arabic knows that while feminine pronouns are exclusive to the feminine gender, the masculine pronouns are not, and are used generally to address groups of individual comprising of both males and females (as it is in the case of the prophets household AS).
A very solid point there. That's why we emphatically stressed that the "ayat tathir" was an independent ayah revealed and recited and demonstrated by the Prophet himself. It occupies verse 33 in later arrangement as some other verses and other surah deviated from their chronological order of revelation.

Clear ahadith are before you to deny.

# Sorry that is the only worthy point from your comment that deserve reply.
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by Newnas(m): 12:58pm On Mar 07, 2016
Saifullah01:
Arguing with the Shia's is tantamount to looking for a pin in the darkness. They are Always looking for technicalities to cause 'shubha' (doubts) among believers.

Imagine one of the reason adduced by them above to exclude the wives of the prophet (AS) from his household as being the pronoun used (Kum) is masculine! Every amatuer student of Arabic knows that while feminine pronouns are exclusive to the feminine gender, the masculine pronouns are not, and are used generally to address groups of individual comprising of both males and females (as it is in the case of the prophets household AS).

The Shia's ideology of condemning the wives of the prophet is similar to the ideology of the khawarij of old, where sin is absolute and condemns a person. Thus to them if a person steal he is condemned to hell! This ideology is contrary to the teachings of the Quran where repentance not only expiate your sins but grants you double rewards, Allah says in the Quran “Except him who repents and believes and does a good deed so these are they of whom Allah changes the evil deeds to good ones and Allah is Forgiving, Merciful” (q25v70)

So for the sake of argument let's assume some of the sahabas and the wives of the prophet are guilty of what the Shia's accuse them of (May Allah forgive and guide us) can the Shia's with certainty claim they didn't repent and ask Allah's forgiveness, and if they did were they forgiven? My advice for my brothers is rather than waste our energy condemning our noble predecessors lets instead do what the Quran advices us; mind our business and pray for forgiveness for them.

“And those who come after them say: Our Lord! forgive us and those of our brethren who had precedence of us in faith, and donot allow any spite to remain in our hearts towards those who believe our Lord! surely Thou art Kind, Merciful.” (Q59v10)

“This is a people that have passed away; they shall have what they earned and you shall have what you earn, and you shall not be called upon to answer for what they did” (q2v141)

Finally, for every interpretation or understanding we claim to derive from the Quran we must ask ourselves some pertinent questions;
1. Do I have any predecessor among the sahabas who understood this verse the way I did.
2. How did the companions of the prophet understood the particular verse
3. How did scholars of the second and third generation after the prophet understood the verse

It would be the height of injustice to knowledge to feign a particular understanding of which neither the prophet (AS) not his sahabas nor the second and third rightly guided generation after them are a party of.
JazaakumuLLaahu khayraa, in shaa Allah I won't respond to whatever crap the deviant says again.

Imam Ahmad mentioned in his Usoolu Sunnah that staying away from arguments with the people of desires(innovators) is part of the fundamentals of the sunnah, so Also did Imam barbahariyy in his sharh sunnah rahimahumaLLaah.

I was only afraid that some ignorant people would be deceived by his charisma.

On another note, a number of scholars have mentioned the impermissibility or at least dislike of abbreviating salam upon the messenger alyhissolaat wassalaam. please see sharh zimzimiyy by Sheikh AbdulKareem khudhayr and I think I saw something like that in Sheikh Ahmad Shaakir's Ba'ethul atheeth. rohimahumuLLaah.

May Allah increase us all in beneficial knowledge and steadfastness upon the sunnah and understanding of the righteous predecessors.
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by AlBaqir(m): 4:58pm On Mar 07, 2016
^There is hardly a comment that you (Newnas) and people like you (of Salafiyah ideology) will make without using foul languages. Even if that is part of the Manhaj of your Shuyukh (e.g Ibn Taymiyyah et al), why don't you follow the manhaj of Allah and His Prophet when Quran says:

Invite to the way of your Lord with wisdom and good manners, and have disputations with them in the best manners. Surely your Lord best knows those who go astray from His path, and He knows best those who follow the right way {surah chap16:125}
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by Nobody: 11:33am On Mar 11, 2016
balash:
Where they doing anal or mouth action in the 70s. It's just civilisations
Yea, before our great great great great great great great great great great great great..... What about before the prophet (SAW) was born!


Anal and sex during menstruation are explicitly forbidden. However the issue of MouthAction and what have yous should be at the discretion of the couples.




Albaqir, stop derailing the thread. I and many others cannot be bothered with the same old nonsense.
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by Nobody: 11:54am On Mar 11, 2016
I cant read on after the MouthAction part.

It is not outrightly forbidden in the quran or hadith. so I dont see why anybody will make non prohibited acts prohibited for themselves.
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by Nobody: 11:56am On Mar 11, 2016
daretodiffer:
Yea, before our great great great great great great great great great great great great..... What about before the prophet (SAW) was born!


Anal and sex during menstruation are explicitly forbidden. However the issue of MouthAction and what have yous should be at the discretion of the couples.




Albaqir, stop derailing the thread. I and many others cannot be bothered with the same old nonsense.
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by Nobody: 12:03pm On Mar 11, 2016
This thread shouldn't make home page at all. It contains too many wrong information.

How can you call something that brings about creation filth.

There is a problem with people lifting articles off the Internet. There is a lot of wrong info all around. You need to learn from true scholars and stop spreading falsehood.

I hope tbaba1234 is still on this forum.

and do we have moderators? this shia-sunni nonsense is an unnecessary distraction.
@enieme
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by Bobbysmart6(m): 12:08pm On Mar 11, 2016
Shukuran janziilan
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by olawonder(m): 12:27pm On Mar 11, 2016
As far as the second aspect is concerned, which

If “MouthAction” means to insert the male privates into the wife’s mouth to the extent that she takes in the filth, whether this filth is semen (Mani) or pre-ejaculatory fluid (Madhi), or the man takes the filth of the woman in his mouth, then this is not permissible. Taking the filth with all its forms in the mouth is unlawful. The fluids which come out are impure, thus make it impermissible to take it orally.

However, if the same act is practiced by using a condom (to prevent the sexual fluids entering the mouth) or the wife merely kisses her husband's privates and the husband kisses her privates and they avoid any areas where there is pre-ejaculatory fluid, then this should be (according to this humble servant and Allah knows best) permissible, although disliked.

It is mentioned in the famous Hanafi Fiqh reference book, and one regarded as a fundamental source in the school, al-Fatawa al-Hindiyya:

If a man inserts his privates in his wife’s mouth, it is said that it is disliked (makruh), and others said that it is not disliked.” (al-Fatawa al-Hindiyya, 5/372)

This clear text from one of the major Hanafi books indicates that the scholars differed on the issue of inserting the privates in the wife’s mouth. According to some it was disliked whilst others totally permitted it. But it should be remembered that this is in the case when no sexual fluids enter the spouse’s mouth as mentioned in detail earlier. Due to the act being considered against the proper conduct of a Muslim, most scholars have held this practice to be disliked (even in the situation where one does not orally take the filth).

This is what I have on this particular subject. I thought that there was a genuine need to shed some light on it from an Islamic perspective. I hope I have been able to clear the queries people have had on this topic.

And Allah Knows Best

[Mufti] Muhammad ibn Adam
Darul Iftaa
Leicester , UK[/quote]The part where the insertion of genital in mouth is 'permissible' is, in my opinion, correct. Because, since there were no condoms in that era, we cannot say it is permissible only if condom is used; in as much as a collection agrees with it, then it should NOT be rules as disliked or not permissible.
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by hikmojj(m): 1:01pm On Mar 11, 2016
Nice write up. May Allah preserve you upon righteousness. But please is Sperm an impurity? any evidence? jazakumullah bio khayr.
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by usmanreigns(m): 2:10pm On Mar 11, 2016
thank you sister for that extensive and well prepared lecture .may Allah reward you . Also, I admire your linguistic prowess; please keep it up.
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by AlBaqir(m): 2:33pm On Mar 11, 2016
daretodiffer:
Albaqir, stop derailing the thread. I and many others cannot be bothered with the same old nonsense.
My apologies please. Its very unusual of me derailing and if you review, I invited Newnas to an appropriate thread where we can iron out our scores. I hate derailing so am very sorry about that.

Fi amanillah.
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by balash(m): 2:44pm On Mar 11, 2016
daretodiffer:
Yea, before our great great great great great great great great great great great great..... What about before the prophet (SAW) was born!


Anal and sex during menstruation are explicitly forbidden. However the issue of MouthAction and what have yous should be at the discretion of the couples.




Albaqir, stop derailing the thread. I and many others cannot be bothered with the same old nonsense.
Am confused mhen! What u talking about? Who is Albaqir
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by Saheed69(m): 3:04pm On Mar 11, 2016
Alhamdulilahi for been a Muslim. Jazakaallhu khyran to everybody that have participated in the discussion. May Allah increase our knowledge.
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by ShiaMuslim: 6:22pm On Mar 11, 2016
MrOlai:
@OP. Jazakumullah khaeran!

This is one of the evils shia people are spreading on the land! May Allah(SWT) in His mercy protect the Muslims all over the world from their fitnah (Amin).
Mr Olai, how can you call something that at a point in time was permitted by the Prophet "evil"? From all account, Sunnis agree that mut'ah was at a point in time-during the lifetime of the holy Prophet-permissible and also practiced by the sahabah.

The Shia differ in that they insist mut'ah was never made forbidden later on by the Prophet (s), but it was prohibited by the second Sunni caliph Umar and see that prohibition as bid'ah.

That is the point of contention: whether it ceased to be permissible or not.

Aside, it can be described as a "discontinued Sunnah" at worst, and was practiced during the lifetime of the Prophet by the sahabah. Your Hadith books record sahabah who were born out of mut'ah. How can you then refer to it as evil? Mut'ah marriage carry all the conditions of permanent Islamic marriage, and the only exception being that it is with a limited timeframe/expiration. Also, a virgin or a dependent female cannot practice it on her own without the consent of her male family guardian. Likewise in permanent marriage, a dependent must seek permission of her male guardian.

As for the article, I stopped reading where it is stated that a child born out of mut'ah cannot inherit from his father. I also wanted to stop before that where I read that mut'ah is about a man paying a woman to satisfy desires. These are fabrications and lies just to discredit the Shia for holding on to a Sunnah and rejecting a bid'ah by Umar and nothing more. Mut'ah is a remedy to pro$titution and widows and divorcees.

Since you refer to it as "one of the evils Shia people are spreading on the land", can you tell us more about "the evils Sunni people are spreading in the land?" Have you heard of MISYAR pro$titution? At least mut'ah is Sunnah and supported in the Quran in verse 4:24. But misyar practiced in Saudi is not. What of JIHADUN NIKAH (Sunni girls ganged ra.ped by Sunni fighters as their contribution to "jihad" ) practiced in Syria by Sunni terrorists? Is that not evil? What of adult brea$feeding? Is that good and Islamic to you?

You guys should stop your filthy ignorance against the Shia. This hate of yours will not stop the Shia ideology and the teachings of the Ahlul Bayt, which is nothing but pure Islam in accordance with the Holy Quran and the Sunnah. You cannot fight a faith or beliefs which live in people's minds and hearts with lies and intimidation. It wouldn't work. It will only depict you as filthy or a foul ignoramus. And by Allah, these false accusations and propaganda will only harm Islam in general and all of us as Muslims in eyes of non Muslims. Even in the bible mut'ah is there. It can be compared to concubinage which prophets of Allah are recorded to have practiced, e.g. Prophet Solomon (as).

May Allah guide us all.
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by Nobody: 9:33pm On Mar 12, 2016
lolaed:
This thread shouldn't make home page at all. It contains too many wrong information.

How can you call something that brings about creation filth.

There is a problem with people lifting articles off the Internet. There is a lot of wrong info all around. You need to learn from true scholars and stop spreading falsehood.

I hope tbaba1234 is still on this forum.

and do we have moderators? this shia-sunni nonsense is an unnecessary distraction.
@enieme
hmm. Why not just point out the pArt that appears to be incorrect to u? I simply shared a fatwa, don't know what falsehood ur talking about.
There's difference of opinion if you know that. Beds, Simone already made correction about the issue of seamen being reffered to as filth.
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by Nobody: 9:41pm On Mar 12, 2016
enieme:
hmm. Why not just point out the pArt that appears to be incorrect to u? I simply shared a fatwa, don't know what falsehood ur talking about.
There's difference of opinion if you know that. Beds, Simone already made correction about the issue of seamen being reffered to as filth.
Read my previous post before this one and read other people's comments as well.
You may not like to hear that you'r wrong, but look at it this way. For anything wrong that you share with other people, if they make use of it, it's a sin against you.

I don't see how what you posted is fatwa. but it would be right if you can make corrections to it or remove it entirely.
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by Newnas(m): 12:02am On Mar 13, 2016
lolaed:
I cant read on after the MouthAction part.

It is not outrightly forbidden in the quran or hadith. so I dont see why anybody will make non prohibited acts prohibited for themselves.
Exactly, Allah says your women are tilts for you so approach your tilts as you like.

The Arabic word used in the verse annaa shi'tum, annaa is used to refer to kayf i.e 'how' so it means approach them in anyway you like.

kiss anywhere, touch anywhere, do anything... there is no limit when Allah has permitted a thing except if Allah makes an exemption or if the medical profession shows that it's harmful.

An exemption by Allah is menstrual and anal intercourse.
A medical exemption could be having intercourse with your wife who just finished a surgery in her groin region.

Even in both cases it's permissible to still enjoy other parts of her except the real intercourse.

This matter is very clear to me, if you say it's impermissible then you are either accusing Allah of ignorance by telling Him what He should have exempted, or accusing of forgetfulness by telling Him what He should have done but forgot. These are the dangerous implications of this issue.

Prophet Musa alyhissolaat wassalaam told fir'aun (.... the knowledge is with my Lord, my Lord neither strays nor forgets) Surah taha.

So, Allah knew that this oral intercourse would still come to be, if it were evil He would have prohibited it.
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by Newnas(m): 12:24am On Mar 13, 2016
lolaed:
This thread shouldn't make home page at all. It contains too many wrong information.

How can you call something that brings about creation filth.

There is a problem with people lifting articles off the Internet. There is a lot of wrong info all around. You need to learn from true scholars and stop spreading falsehood.

I hope tbaba1234 is still on this forum.

and do we have moderators? this shia-sunni nonsense is an unnecessary distraction.
@enieme
The early scholars were divided regarding the purity of semen, I mean the real semen that brings children

Those who claimed that it's impure said it comes from the tract of urine which is impure therefore it is also impure.

The other party say that it's the source of human life and if our source is impure then we are all impure.

But all these are analogies, a number of narrations reported from Aishah may Allah be pleased with Her and Her father show that it's pure, in some she said that she would scrape the dried semen from the garments of Allah's messenger alyhissolaat wassalaam and he would pray in it. If semen were impure he alyhissolaat wassalaam wouldn't have left it to dry on his clothes. (Pls see bulughul maram and/or Al Wajeez for more details, I'm not in my library so I can't reference with details )

However, the pre semen is impure, and AbduLLah bn Abbaas commanded a man to sprinkle water on where ever it touches on the garment. And that is what he commanded Aliyy rodiyaLLaahu anhu.

The semen (which is pure) and pre semen (which is impure) could get into the throat during oral exercise, hence the restriction of swallowing any fluid because you might be swallowing impure fluid unknowingly.

As for the female genital fluid, I mean the fluid that is always present in the female tract, then it's pure because no evidence has mentioned it's impurity and the basis regarding all substances including body fluids is purity, anyone who claims that a substance is impure must provide evidence.
So don't ask why mucus or saliva are pure.

If we know that female genital fluid is not impure then we know that it should not be an impediment to oral intercourse.

As for female discharge during orgasm, then it takes the same rule as the male.

Allah knows best.
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by Newnas(m): 7:14am On Mar 13, 2016
ShiaMuslim:
Mr Olai, how can you call something that at a point in time was permitted by the Prophet "evil"? From all account, Sunnis agree that mut'ah was at a point in time-during the lifetime of the holy Prophet-permissible and also practiced by the sahabah.

The Shia differ in that they insist mut'ah was never made forbidden later on by the Prophet (s), but it was prohibited by the second Sunni caliph Umar and see that prohibition as bid'ah.

That is the point of contention: whether it ceased to be permissible or not.

Aside, it can be described as a "discontinued Sunnah" at worst, and was practiced during the lifetime of the Prophet by the sahabah. Your Hadith books record sahabah who were born out of mut'ah. How can you then refer to it as evil? Mut'ah marriage carry all the conditions of permanent Islamic marriage, and the only exception being that it is with a limited timeframe/expiration. Also, a virgin or a dependent female cannot practice it on her own without the consent of her male family guardian. Likewise in permanent marriage, a dependent must seek permission of her male guardian.

As for the article, I stopped reading where it is stated that a child born out of mut'ah cannot inherit from his father. I also wanted to stop before that where I read that mut'ah is about a man paying a woman to satisfy desires. These are fabrications and lies just to discredit the Shia for holding on to a Sunnah and rejecting a bid'ah by Umar and nothing more. Mut'ah is a remedy to pro$titution and widows and divorcees.

Since you refer to it as "one of the evils Shia people are spreading on the land", can you tell us more about "the evils Sunni people are spreading in the land?" Have you heard of MISYAR pro$titution? At least mut'ah is Sunnah and supported in the Quran in verse 4:24. But misyar practiced in Saudi is not. What of JIHADUN NIKAH (Sunni girls ganged ra.ped by Sunni fighters as their contribution to "jihad" ) practiced in Syria by Sunni terrorists? Is that not evil? What of adult brea$feeding? Is that good and Islamic to you?

You guys should stop your filthy ignorance against the Shia. This hate of yours will not stop the Shia ideology and the teachings of the Ahlul Bayt, which is nothing but pure Islam in accordance with the Holy Quran and the Sunnah. You cannot fight a faith or beliefs which live in people's minds and hearts with lies and intimidation. It wouldn't work. It will only depict you as filthy or a foul ignoramus. And by Allah, these false accusations and propaganda will only harm Islam in general and all of us as Muslims in eyes of non Muslims. Even in the bible mut'ah is there. It can be compared to concubinage which prophets of Allah are recorded to have practiced, e.g. Prophet Solomon (as).

May Allah guide us all.
Your first point that mut'ah was permitted before and......

Mut'ah (contract marriage) is one of the many types of jaahiliyah (days of ignorance) marriages.

When Islam came, it would be unwise to mention all the prohibited matters at once because this would push the people away and make them fed-up. Therefore the commandments and prohibitions came in stages.
The stages of alcohol prohibition is not unknown to us all.

So Islam only left them to continue with this act of mut'ah because they were too new to Islam and there were more fundamental matters to address at the moment. It is not as you claim that it was a sunnah and recommended act.

For Allah's sake mut'ah is prostitution, there's no better way to describe it than that.
You meet a woman, ask for her hand in marriage for a time period eg one or two days, months, years etc then after that you break up and nothing else. And of course the woman gets a dowry for that mut'ah, just like the prostitute gets paid by her clients.

Then, the shia sheikhs shamelessly fabricated narrations to encourage mut'ah such as whoever does one mut'ah gets the reward of fasting for so years, if you do two you get reward for maybe a lifetime of jihad, and whoever doesn't do mut'ah then he's religion is crooked or something like that and even greater.

Misyar, is not the same as mut'ah and they are not even similar, the gang rape and others are clear misguidance so that is not a justification.

Please avoid digression from the original topic.
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by Nobody: 9:12am On Mar 13, 2016
Newnas:
Exactly, Allah says your women are tilts for you so approach your tilts as you like.

The Arabic word used in the verse annaa shi'tum, annaa is used to refer to kayf i.e 'how' so it means approach them in anyway you like.

kiss anywhere, touch anywhere, do anything... there is no limit when Allah has permitted a thing except if Allah makes an exemption or if the medical profession shows that it's harmful.

An exemption by Allah is menstrual and anal intercourse.
A medical exemption could be having intercourse with your wife who just finished a surgery in her groin region.

Even in both cases it's permissible to still enjoy other parts of her except the real intercourse.

This matter is very clear to me, if you say it's impermissible then you are either accusing Allah of ignorance by telling Him what He should have exempted, or accusing of forgetfulness by telling Him what He should have done but forgot. These are the dangerous implications of this issue.

Prophet Musa alyhissolaat wassalaam told fir'aun (.... the knowledge is with my Lord, my Lord neither strays nor forgets) Surah taha.

So, Allah knew that this oral intercourse would still come to be, if it were evil He would have prohibited it.
Thank you for the explanations.
@enieme
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by ShiaMuslim: 11:34am On Mar 13, 2016
Newnas:
Your first point that mut'ah was permitted before and......

Mut'ah (contract marriage) is one of the many types of jaahiliyah (days of ignorance) marriages.

When Islam came, it would be unwise to mention all the prohibited matters at once because this would push the people away and make them fed-up. Therefore the commandments and prohibitions came in stages.
The stages of alcohol prohibition is not unknown to us all.

So Islam only left them to continue with this act of mut'ah because they were too new to Islam and there were more fundamental matters to address at the moment. It is not as you claim that it was a sunnah and recommended act.

For Allah's sake mut'ah is prostitution, there's no better way to describe it than that.
You meet a woman, ask for her hand in marriage for a time period eg one or two days, months, years etc then after that you break up and nothing else. And of course the woman gets a dowry for that mut'ah, just like the prostitute gets paid by her clients.

Then, the shia sheikhs shamelessly fabricated narrations to encourage mut'ah such as whoever does one mut'ah gets the reward of fasting for so years, if you do two you get reward for maybe a lifetime of jihad, and whoever doesn't do mut'ah then he's religion is crooked or something like that and even greater.

Misyar, is not the same as mut'ah and they are not even similar, the gang rape and others are clear misguidance so that is not a justification.

Please avoid digression from the original topic.
Mut'ah is not a pre-Islamic Jahiliyyah practice as you claimed. what would happen to verse 4:24? you cannot therefore compare Mut'ah to a Jahiliyyah practice like alcohol consumption. in the Holy Quran Allah (swt) first revealed in verse 2:219 that in alcohol is greater harm than good. then in verse 4:43 it was revealed not to approach prayer in a state of drunkenness. Then in verse 5:90 it was revealed that alcohol is an abomination and the work of shaitan, so avoid it.

no where in the Holy Quran after the revelation of verse 4:24 was Mut'ah gradually discouraged. you may provide us with a verse, like in the case of alcohol, where Mut'ah was forbidden. you cannot!

secondly, there were sahaba born out of Mut'ah and there are records in Sunni Sihah books that it was practiced after the death of the Prophet (s) by Sahaba revered highly by Sunnis, and the idea of it being prohibited came during the time of the second Sunni caliph Umar Ibn al-Khattab.

the Shia sheikhs could not have "fabricated" hadiths in highly revered Sunni books such as Sahih Bukhari and Sahih Muslim even though there are numerous Shia narrators accepted as trustworthy in the Sihah hadith of the Sunnis. and yet, many hadiths did not find their way into Bukhari and Muslims because hadiths in Bukhari and Muslim were cherry picked to conform to certain ways, beliefs and concepts held by the authorities of the time.

clearly, Mut'ah marriage is a subject of dispute between the Sunnis and Shia. again, you come to my point that the contention is whether or not Mut'ah was forbidden by the Prophet (s) in the long run or whether he never forbade it. it is wrong to call it "evil" when it is authorized in the Quran and there is no verse prohibiting or abrogating it in the Quran. the Quran takes precedence over hadiths. the hadiths cannot abrogate the Quran if the Quran does not abrogate itself. in fact, we do not even believe in abrogation. what is in the Quran is valid for all times.

it is true you cannot compare Misyar and Mut'ah. it did not even exist in the time of Jahiliyyah, nor was it practiced at the time of the Prophet (s). Misyar has no place in the Quran and Sunnah. complete bid'ah and can rightly be called pro$titution.

you are clutching at straws and trying hard to make a response. the facts are there regardless of the adjectives you use to label a Sunnah of the Prophet (s).
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by Newnas(m): 12:14pm On Mar 13, 2016
ShiaMuslim:
Mut'ah is not a pre-Islamic Jahiliyyah practice as you claimed. what would happen to verse 4:24? you cannot therefore compare Mut'ah to a Jahiliyyah practice like alcohol consumption. in the Holy Quran Allah (swt) first revealed in verse 2:219 that in alcohol is greater harm than good. then in verse 4:43 it was revealed not to approach prayer in a state of drunkenness. Then in verse 5:90 it was revealed that alcohol is an abomination and the work of shaitan, so avoid it.

no where in the Holy Quran after the revelation of verse 4:24 was Mut'ah gradually discouraged. you may provide us with a verse, like in the case of alcohol, where Mut'ah was forbidden. you cannot!

secondly, there were sahaba born out of Mut'ah and there are records in Sunni Sihah books that it was practiced after the death of the Prophet (s) by Sahaba revered highly by Sunnis, and the idea of it being prohibited came during the time of the second Sunni caliph Umar Ibn al-Khattab.

the Shia sheikhs could not have "fabricated" hadiths in highly revered Sunni books such as Sahih Bukhari and Sahih Muslim even though there are numerous Shia narrators accepted as trustworthy in the Sihah hadith of the Sunnis. and yet, many hadiths did not find their way into Bukhari and Muslims because hadiths in Bukhari and Muslim were cherry picked to conform to certain ways, beliefs and concepts held by the authorities of the time.

clearly, Mut'ah marriage is a subject of dispute between the Sunnis and Shia. again, you come to my point that the contention is whether or not Mut'ah was forbidden by the Prophet (s) in the long run or whether he never forbade it. it is wrong to call it "evil" when it is authorized in the Quran and there is no verse prohibiting or abrogating it in the Quran. the Quran takes precedence over hadiths. the hadiths cannot abrogate the Quran if the Quran does not abrogate itself. in fact, we do not even believe in abrogation. what is in the Quran is valid for all times.

it is true you cannot compare Misyar and Mut'ah. it did not even exist in the time of Jahiliyyah, nor was it practiced at the time of the Prophet (s). Misyar has no place in the Quran and Sunnah. complete bid'ah and can rightly be called pro$titution.

you are clutching at straws and trying hard to make a response. the facts are there regardless of the adjectives you use to label a Sunnah of the Prophet (s).
arguing with you guys is a waste of time.
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by ShiaMuslim: 12:53pm On Mar 13, 2016
Newnas:
arguing with you guys is a waste of time.
Thanks!

But I wasn't arguing with you. I'm only teaching you things you ignore or don't know. I'm trying to remind you as we are taught in the Holy Quran that "the reminder might be of gain to the believers", whether you're thankful or unthankful.
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by AlBaqir(m): 6:55pm On Mar 13, 2016
Newnas:
arguing with you guys is a waste of time.
grin grin Please if you don't know, do not open or involve in dialogue. It expose one's weakness and ignorance especially when you are arrogant to learn or rigid never to accept other's presentation.

Imam Ibn Hazm (456H) writes:

A group of the Salaf, may Allah be pleased with them, were FIRM in declaring it (Mut'a) halal AFTER the Messenger of Allāh. Those of them from the Sahabah, may Allah be pleased with them, were Asma bint Abu Bakr al-Siddiq, Jabir b. 'Abd Allāh Ibn Mas'ud, Ibn Abbas, Mu'awiyah b. Abu Sufyan, 'Amr b. Ḥurayth, Abu Sa'id al-Khudri, and Salamah and Ma'bad – sons of Umayyah b. Khalaf. Jabir b. 'Abd Allah also reported it (i.e. declaration of mut'ah as halal ) from all the Sahabah during the time of the Messenger of Allāh, peace be upon him, and during the time of Abu Bakr and 'Umar until near the end of the caliphate of 'Umar.

Ibn al-Zubayr had contradictory opinions on its permissibility, while Ali expressed no opinion concerning it. It is narrated that 'Umar b. al-Khattab only denied it if two just people did not act as its witnesses, and he considered it permissible if two just people acted as witnesses to it.

And among the Tabi'in were: Tawus, 'Ata, Sa'id b. Jubayr, and the rest of the jurists of Makkah, may Allah honour it


Source: {al-Muḥallā (Dār al-Fikr li al-Ṭabā‟ah wa al-Nashr wa al-Tawzī‟), vol. 9, pp. 519-520}

# Allamah Muḥammad Nāṣir al-Dīn al-Albani also discard the claim of those who said Abdullah Ibn Abbas later retracted from his practice and claim on the validity of Mut'a:

"The summary is: three opinions are narrated from Ibn 'Abbās, may Allaah be pleased with him, about mut'ah:

The one: he permitted it unconditionally.

The second: he permitted it in cases of necessity.

The last: he forbade it unconditionally, but this is from what is NOT authentically transmitted from him, unlike the first two opinions which are authentically transmitted from him”

Source: {Irwā al-Ghalīl fī Takhrīj Aḥādīth Manār al-Sabīl (Beirut: al-Maktab al-Islāmī; 2nd edition, 1405 H), vol. 6, p. 319, # 1903}
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by AlBaqir(m): 6:56pm On Mar 13, 2016
^There is an established thread already for that. So you do not need to derail further.

https://www.nairaland.com/2767419/mutah
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by Nobody: 9:10pm On Mar 13, 2016
lolaed:
Read my previous post before this one and read other people's comments as well.
You may not like to hear that you'r wrong, but look at it this way. For anything wrong that you share with other people, if they make use of it, it's a sin against you.

I don't see how what you posted is fatwa. but it would be right if you can make corrections to it or remove it entirely.
Well, I shared it cos I found it online and I felt I may get other opinions regarding the topic and thankfully that ive got.
Next time I'll just post it in question then,rather than post an inconclusive fatwa
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by Nobody: 9:14pm On Mar 13, 2016
usmanreigns:
thank you sister for that extensive and well prepared lecture .may Allah reward you . Also, I admire your linguistic prowess; please keep it up.
No be me write am I, Na share I just share. And some corrections have been made to it so uvdont necessarily follow what's stated in that fatwa.
hikmojj:
Nice write up. May Allah preserve you upon righteousness. But please is Sperm an impurity? any evidence? jazakumullah bio khayr.
please refer to the post by newnas. In summary, presperm (whatever that is) is impure, while sperm for reproduction is pure.
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by Nobody: 9:20pm On Mar 13, 2016
enieme:
Well, I shared it cos I found it online and I felt I may get other opinions regarding the topic and thankfully that ive got.
Next time I'll just post it in question then,rather than post an inconclusive fatwa
smiley
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by Nobody: 9:21pm On Mar 13, 2016
olawonder:
As far as the second aspect is concerned, which

If “MouthAction” means to insert the male privates into the wife’s mouth to the extent that she takes in the filth, whether this filth is semen (Mani) or pre-ejaculatory fluid (Madhi), or the man takes the filth of the woman in his mouth, then this is not permissible. Taking the filth with all its forms in the mouth is unlawful. The fluids which come out are impure, thus make it impermissible to take it orally.

However, if the same act is practiced by using a condom (to prevent the sexual fluids entering the mouth) or the wife merely kisses her husband's privates and the husband kisses her privates and they avoid any areas where there is pre-ejaculatory fluid, then this should be (according to this humble servant and Allah knows best) permissible, although disliked.

It is mentioned in the famous Hanafi Fiqh reference book, and one regarded as a fundamental source in the school, al-Fatawa al-Hindiyya:

If a man inserts his privates in his wife’s mouth, it is said that it is disliked (makruh), and others said that it is not disliked.” (al-Fatawa al-Hindiyya, 5/372)

This clear text from one of the major Hanafi books indicates that the scholars differed on the issue of inserting the privates in the wife’s mouth. According to some it was disliked whilst others totally permitted it. But it should be remembered that this is in the case when no sexual fluids enter the spouse’s mouth as mentioned in detail earlier. Due to the act being considered against the proper conduct of a Muslim, most scholars have held this practice to be disliked (even in the situation where one does not orally take the filth).

This is what I have on this particular subject. I thought that there was a genuine need to shed some light on it from an Islamic perspective. I hope I have been able to clear the queries people have had on this topic.

And Allah Knows Best

[Mufti] Muhammad ibn Adam
Darul Iftaa
Leicester , UK

The part where the insertion of genital in mouth is 'permissible' is, in my opinion, correct. Because, since there were no condoms in that era, we cannot say it is permissible only if condom is used; in as much as a collection agrees with it, then it should NOT be rules as disliked or not permissible.
Well, there's difference of opinion and one can choose to follow whichever school of thought one wishes to on diff issues
Re: *for Married Folks: Sexual Acts And Their Permissibility In Islam by Newnas(m): 2:25pm On Mar 14, 2016
enieme:
Well, there's difference of opinion and one can choose to follow whichever school of thought one wishes to on diff issues
My sister, it's not right to follow the one you 'wish' when there is difference of opinion among the scholars, rather the Muslim should look into the argument of the parties involved and follow the one that appears most correct.

This selection should be based on knowledge and conviction not on whims and desires. This is the greatest use you can put your intellect to i.e to ponder and comprehend what your Lord really wants you to do.

This is because not every scholar that makes a scholastic striving is correct, sometimes a scholar is right and other is wrong, sometimes he is wrong and another is right.

This is the problem that the two reformers Imam Albany and - before him - Ibn Taymiyyah had with the scholars of their time. They warned the people against holding on to the opinion of their Imaams even when they were sure that it contradicted the Quran and sunnah according to the interpretation of the righteous predecessors i.e salaf.
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