₦airaland Forum

MaxInDHouse:
The Jews knew what "ANOINTED" means but in the case of the Messiah God promised the Israelites that one will have a double portion unlike all other humans who has been anointed before him.

Anointing is for two offices in Israel the office of the Highpriest and that of a King so talking about anointing an Israelite could be anointed as the Highpriest in Israel or anointed as King but the promised Messiah will have double anointing because he will serve as Highpriest and King simultaneously.

That is what king David himself knew before addressing this Messiah as "Lord"

"The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool. The LORD shall send the rod of thy strength out of Zion: rule thou in the midst of thine enemies. Thy people shall be willing in the day of thy power, in the beauties of holiness from the womb of the morning: thou hast the dew of thy youth. The LORD hath sworn, and will not repent, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchizedek." Psalms 110:1-4

The highlighted in blue shows how David who himself is an anointed highly revere the promised Messiah while the highlighted in green shows that the real Messiah will serve as both Highpriest and King just like Melchizedek.

Thanks for reading our book your book God's word the Bible!

GothamCities:
the woman was asking Jesus which religion was telling the truth about where to worship God.

Qasim6:
My guy you are the one that has been deceived. You are the one carrying a forged book around calling it message of Christ. I'm sorry to break this sad news to you.

Of course there is no manuscript that contains that truth, because you guys have nothing other than forgeries.

Explore2xmore:
Elisha was not a prophet anointed by Elijah?
1 Kings 19:16


David was both anointed to be king and considered a prophet because of the psalms

You make bold to say that there are not anointing for different purposes outside priesthood and kingship?

GothamCities:
My friend, it was the same book that existed before Mohammed, during mohammed and after Mohamed. There's no difference between what we carry today and the manuscripts that existed before Mohammed.

Did Mohammed know it was forged before he declared it as the Injeel? When he declared that the Injeel, was he declaring the forged books? When exactly was the book forged? How was it forged? Who forged it?

This is the false Islamic narrative that has been sold to you in order to prevent you from reading the Bible or believing anything in it. If the Christians forged their own Bible, why is the Old Testament Bible of the Christians the same as that of the Jews? Or did the Jews and Christians sit down at the same table to forge the Torah?

If the Bible has been forged, why would it maintain the original texts, contexts and themes as the oldest existing manuscripts including newly discovered manuscripts of the dead sea scrolls in 2017?

The Bible contains prophecies and words that could be used to test its authenticity. Why would anyone want to adulterate it? Why is the forged book still fulfilling prophecies today?

GothamCities:
The forgeries are merely imaginary. They only exist in Islam. There's no evidence anywhere for such. Please get out of the Islamic institutional deceit.

MaxInDHouse:
Good point you raised there!

But do you remember that David was never considered a prophet in his life time?

He was inspired to sing about future events but Nathan was the prophet serving when David was king of Israel but as for the Messiah nobody will serve as Highpriest or King except him when he begins his rule!

MaxInDHouse:
The woman wasn't asking about location where to worship rather she's asking for which religion is telling the truth.

The Samaritans have their own religion just as Jews have theirs even though both were the descendants of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob but the Jews kept telling everyone that their own religion is the ultimate truth.
That's what the woman was asking Jesus note that Samaritans doesn't despise worshiping in Jerusalem to them all Israelites whether Jews or Samaritans are descendants of Abraham Isaac and Jacob but the Jews will not accept it that they are on the same page with Samaritans.

That's exactly what the woman wants to know!

Qasim6:
At least you have seen a verse where Jesus talked about Ahmad.

Q7:158
Say, “O humanity! I am Allah’s Messenger to you all. To Him ˹alone˺ belongs the kingdom of the heavens and the earth. There is no god ˹worthy of worship˺ except Him. He gives life and causes death.” So believe in Allah and His Messenger, the unlettered Prophet, who believes in Allah and His revelations. And follow him, so you may be ˹rightly˺ guided.

Isaiah 42 also described him as a light to all nations.

Explore2xmore:
Do you know what the intertestamental period Is?

Do you not know that the Israelites had strayed from their path before Jesus emerged as a prophet, marked by spiritual disunity, moral decay, and a disregard for prophetic teachings?

Did Jesus not come to guide the Israelites back to true monotheism or your Bible is devoid of him stating that God is one and testifying to the truth of the older scripture?

Qasim6:
This is one of the many lies aka Islam dilemma you all be chanting around.

Qur'an is not calling the forged gospels you have now as injeel. Injeel was a scripture revealed to Jesus. it would have been revealed in Aramaic or Hebrew and it is most likely what Papias was describing.

Our belief has always been the earlier scriptures have been fingered and the message there in adulterated.

Here is what Qur'an actually says about the Bible.

Q5:48
We have revealed to you this Book with the truth, as a confirmation of previous Scriptures and a SUPREME AUTHORITY on them. So judge between them by what Allah has revealed, and do not follow their desires over the truth that has come to you. To each of you We have ordained a code of law and a way of life. If Allah had willed, He would have made you one community, but His Will is to test you with what He has given ˹each of˺ you. So compete with one another in doing good. To Allah you will all return, then He will inform you ˹of the truth˺ regarding your differences.

so Qur'an is meant to be a supreme authority over the previous scripture and not affirm everything there in.

Explore2xmore:
Oh! Because Nathan was a prophet there could be no other prophet in existence at the same time?
You don't understand that there are different reasons for anointing and place a narrow view on this?

GothamCities:
This isn't true. The Jews and Samaritans actually were practicing the same Judahism, believed in the same prophets and were expecting the same Messiah. They only differed in where, how to worship and some other doctrinal differences.
The woman's question to Jesus was not on which religion was speaking the truth but on where to worship. She was asking who is correct about the place of worship - the Jews or the Samaritans?
The question of the Samaritan woman is VERY CLEAR. Please don't try to distort it just in order to be correct. It doesn't change what is written!
"Our ancestors worshiped on this mountain, but you Jews claim that the place where we must worship is in Jerusalem." — John 4:20.
Simple as ABC!
In response, Jesus answered that none of them are correct. No one would ever worship God again by location but by the spirit.

MaxInDHouse:
The point is clear David was never anointed to serve as prophet so during his life time no one thought of David as prophet he was a shepherd boy who later became a king he was not serving as prophet.

As for the Messiah he will serve as Highpriest and King just like Melchizedek! Psalms 110:4

MaxInDHouse:
You don't get it do you?

All Israelites know that the temple in Jerusalem was the one built by Solomon, it's in Jerusalem that Levites were serving as priests under the Highpriest and God has always sent prophets to tell Samaritans that Jerusalem is where God chose even Elijah who was one of the Samaritans kept telling his people that it's Jerusalem all Israelites supposed to worship that's the problem he had with his people because they thought he supposed to support whatever worship goes on in Samaria.

So it's not about where rather it's about which religion is telling the truth.
Samaritans believe that all Israelites are Jacob's descendants {John 4:12} so it's whether the Samaritans are also practicing true religion in Samaria just as Jews or the religion of Jews is the only acceptable form of worship before God.
Note Jesus' response that he made it clear that regarding location it's of no meaning but when talking about the religion practiced in the two places only Jews have the true religion! John 4:20-22

PROVERBZ:
This issue of monotheism is not an issue in Christianity. We believe in the true God and not in 'one God'. However God is one which implies monotheism, but this is not an issue in Christianity.
The main focus is the worship of the true God.
But, the way Muslims are fixated on this 'montheism' revealed something to me. In the Bible the devil Aka anto christ in obsessed with monotheism. I also heard Mohamed considered Persian religion to be true because it was monotheistic.
Ans Muslims male claims that budah was a prophet from Allah etc.
Take a look at this verses.

GothamCities:
My dear, what do you mean by "that original Mathew!" The earliest earliest surviving manuscripts of the book of Mathew date back to the 2nd or 3rd century AD. These are manuscripts that are about 400yrs older than Mohammed. These manuscripts forms the basis of our current Book of Mathew. There's nowhere in the earliest manuscripts or in the translations where the name Ahmad was ever mentioned. Why are you guys so bendy on being deceived?

1. Early manuscripts of Mathew: Codex Vaticanus (c. 325-350 AD) and Codex Sinaiticus (c. 350 AD) are two of the oldest and most reliable manuscripts.

2. Patristic citations: Quotes from early Church Fathers, such as Origen (c. 185-254 AD) and Eusebius (c. 260-340 AD), provide valuable insights in the book.

Some notable manuscripts of Matthew's Gospel include:

- Codex Vaticanus (c. 325-350 AD)

- Codex Sinaiticus (c. 350 AD)

- Codex Alexandrinus (c. 400-440 AD)

- Codex Ephraemi Rescriptus (c. 400-440 AD)

All these manuscripts correlate remarkably with each other!

AntiChristian:
I like the way you framed your sentence in red! You didn't lie that any two manuscripts of Matthew are ever the same! Two thing can correlate well and still essentially differ much!

PROVERBZ:
---

After I was informed that Muslims referred to the teachings and message of Jesus as Injeel, which translates to "Good News" (the very same thing Christians call it), I became even more confused because the title seems mismatched.
The theme of Jesus's message in Christianity is that he brought salvation for those previously condemned by the law. In this context, the title "Good News" makes sense.
Where it does not make sense is in Islam, where it is mismatched. The title for his message in Islam is Injeel, and it also translates to "Good News." The dilemma here is that, in Islam, there is no reason for the message to be referred to as "Good News." It is obviously mismatched. Most of my Muslim friends here would argue that Jesus didn't teach anything new and that, in fact, he preached the same message as the previous prophets before him.
This raises the question: Why is Jesus's message in Islam called "Good News" (the very same thing Christians call it)?

Normally, this would not have been a setback if not for the way the word came about in Christianity: the message of salvation by believing in Christ (something Islam preaches against).

I thought to myself, maybe it’s borrowed from the Christians at the time because Muslims wanted to relate to them but didn’t have a word for it aside from that. However, after researching, I found out that the word Injeel was stated in the Qur'an (the supposed direct word of Allah).

GothamCities:
No scripture was revealed to Jesus. Jesus Himself was a Revelation of God's Word. Papias didn't describe anything. Show us manuscripts referencing this descriptions of Papias.

If a Gospel was revealed to Jesus by Allah, how come the said Gospel became forged? Does Allah not have the power to preserve his own revelations?

Show us proof of such gospel. Show us proof of the forgery you claim on the current Bible.


Your belief is inconsequential as long as it runs contrary to reality.


I have asked you to show us the discrepancies between the manuscripts that existed before Mohammed and the transcriptions from those manuscripts which we use today. Bring out disparities from the original Hebrew and Greek texts.

Forgeries in the Bible are merely Islamic hearsays. No evidence. No proof.



The Quran is not an authority in anything whatsoever as it does not even accurately describe events. Such blunders as Mariam the sister of Aaron being the mother of Jesus or the Samaritan who was in the congregation in Moses' days, or that Solomon died standing, and the many embarrassing blunders leave much to be desired of it for an authority. There's no single truth in the whole book. It's all fabrications, lies, etc.

That's why:

1. Mohammed has no proof of any angelic visit.

2. Nothing the Quran says in its warped historical narratives has any evidence anywhere in history.

3. There's no evidence anywhere that God endorsed mohammed.

4. There's no manuscript anywhere where mohammed was recorded as a coming prophet. Your Papias reference is flawed as Papias never made any reference pointing to any Ahmad dead or alive in his days.

4. All found manuscripts have been miraculously preserved. Different kings and emperors of Rome tried their best to obliterate the existence of the Biblical manuscripts but God showed His Sovereignty by preserving them. I don't know why Allah could not preserve the so called revelation of Jesus! Did Allah reveal it only for it to be destroyed and not useful to anyone? Why is Allah so powerless that his Injeel was destroyed without any trait?

The same Torah that existed before Jesus is what we're still using today in our Churches. The same Gospel books that the early fathers who lived before Mohammed read in their gatherings are still the same books we use today. Did you even read that Eusebius quoted from our current book of Mathew as far back as 185 AD? Where did you get your forgery tales from?

AntiChristian:
I don't have much time for your front and back mixing of truth with falsehood!



Injeel is the revelation revealed to Jesus!
Torah is the revelation revealed to Moses!
Zabur is that revealed to David!
Abraham too had a Book revealed to him!

All of these revelations are speech/Word of Allah!

I don't know what use is the meaning of the word "Injeel" when Allah says in Qur'an 61:6 "And [mention] when Jesus, the son of Mary, said, "O children of Israel, indeed I am the messenger of Allah to you confirming what came before me of the Torah and bringing good tidings of a messenger to come after me, whose name is Ahmad." But when he came to them with clear evidences, they said, "This is obvious magic."

Clearly he was referring to the Children of Israel as you can see in red above! He was sent to Israel! And Israel is just a fraction of the world!

Injeel is the Gospel revealed to Jesus which is definitely not your Matthew, Mark, Luke and John!
Torah is the Book revealed to Moses which is definitely not the Pentateuch or the Old testament!
Zabur is Psalms revealed to David which is definitely not the Psalms in your Bible!

PROVERBZ:
Still bla bla bla.
The question was to show me a verse in your own sources where Jesus claims that Mohammed is sent to all nations and not just the Arabs or isrealites etc.

U failed to do so and also brought up a verse in the Bible which I have no idea what u are trying to show me, but I haven't even opened the verse and I know that it does not contain what I have asked for because it's not in the Bible.

My conclusion is that u have made innovations to your own religion in an attempt to defend the Islamic delimmas that have been pointed out. I'm sure islam frowns at innovations or does taqiiyaa cover you here

Qasim6:
Lol

U are already even making conclusions.

Let's say there is no verse where Jesus was reported to have described a messanger coming after him as a prophet to all mankind.

There is a verse where Jesus is described to have given good news of Ahmad as prophet after him.

There is another verse that describe Ahmad as prophet to all mankind.

The prophet was also reported to have said
I have been given five things which were not given to any other prophet including, “…Every prophet would be sent to his nation exclusively, but I have been sent to all mankind.” [Al-Bukhari and Muslim]

And Jesus was reported to have said
"I am only sent to the lost sheep of house of Israel"

You can connect the dot..

Qasim6:
This is delulu grandeur!

I thought it is a common knowledge that all the canonical gospels are anonymously written.

Nobody knows who wrote all your gospels.

Are you not familiar with this fact or you just want to be hiding like an ostrich?

Your scriptures both the old and new testament have been fingered.

PROVERBZ:
The questions still begs, why is Jesus message called good news, the very same thing Christians called it because they claimed it contained news of salvation which is indeed good news.

Other prophets talked about prophets coming, John the baptists talked about Jesus coming, why isn't his message titled good news too?

PROVERBZ:
You have still failed ro deliver islam out of this dilemma.

You claim 'injeel is the Gospel revealed to isaah' I think this is the best time to inform u that injeel means gospel and gospel means good news. Therefore, injeel cannot be the 'gospel' given to Jesus. What u are saying is that 'goodnews is the goodnews given to isah'

The reason u have made this error is because of the gaps in Islam. It steals from Christianity without reasoning.
What u ment to day is that the message isah preached was titled goodnews which begs the question why is it titled good news? As there was no good news, he preached the same thing other prophets preached.

Is Allah copying from Christians who called it good news because it contained news of salvation?

Lmao so Jesus isn't even the only careless prophet in Islam. It seems like all the prophets in Islam mispla es their books.

GothamCities:
If Jesus was talking about religion, tell me why Jesus didn't say "religion is of the Jews". Why did Jesus says "salvation is of the Jews" when he was talking about religion?

Explore2xmore:
You should list all your recognised prophet in your Bible or Christianity and classify them into those categorically annointed and those who were not.
Then ask if David impacted any prophetic guidance as King of Israel

MaxInDHouse:
"Salvation is of the Jews"
Says Jesus not
"Salvation is of Jerusalem"

Which means the RELIGION practiced by Jews has been right all along if it's about location he would have mentioned the location that was right but he specifically mentioned "Jews" and told the woman that henceforth location won't determine true religion again unlike before when everyone who wants to worship the true God must come to Jerusalem!

MaxInDHouse:
The first mention of anointing was Aaron the Highpriest of Israel and God never asked them to choose a king it was rebellion against God's arrangement that led Israelites into demanding for a King. 1Samuel 8:1-18

Since God's purpose for the salvation of mankind is the Messiah who will serve as Highpriest and King just like Melchizedek then anyone who is going to rule over His people must be anointed to foreshadow the presence of Messiah in their midst.

So no one served as King and priest at the same time because that privilege is for no one except the Christ (Messiah)

GothamCities:
No, this twist does not even correlate. The topic was about location of worship. Jesus answered the woman that neither the Jews nor the Samaritans are right. He then introduced the new concept of worshipping God in spirit.

Afterwards, He upbraided the woman and her Samaritan tribe for thinking they were more correct than the Jews on the issue "You do not know what you worship but we know what we worship, for salvation is of the Jews."

If the matter was about religion, Jesus would say "Religion is of the Jews." His emphasis was on salvation, not religion. Hence "Salvation is of the Jews."

GothamCities:
Please how did you arrive at this conclusions?



These blunders are too embarrassing.

Explore2xmore:
Stop misbehaving. Jesus was neither formally recognized as a king or priest during his life unless the claimed mockery at his alleged crucifixion is what you refer to.
David was acknowledged as a prophet in Acts