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Nachmonides:
Amazing question:


Something fishy is going on right?, either John is crazy telling us in V.1 that Jesus who we can see is God, and in V.18 he says no one has seen God at any time, or he's trying to tell us something .
Let's look at it.


To understand John 1:18 in its context, we need to consider the surrounding verses in John 1:1–18, often called the Prologue of John's Gospel. This passage introduces themes of Jesus' divinity, His role as the Word, and His mission to reveal God.

John 1:1–5: Jesus as the Word (Logos)

Verse 1: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
This establishes Jesus (the Word) as both distinct from God the Father ("with God" and fully divine ("was God". It sets the foundation for understanding that Jesus is God made manifest.

When we see "In the beginning", John does not have the beginning of the word in mind. He is referring to the book of Genesis, Beresheet, the word itself means the beginnings.

John wasn't in the beginning for him to know in the beginning was the word. So he must have read Genesis and he is drawing his theology (his study of God) from it and attaching it to Jesus.

Verse 3: "All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made."
Jesus, as the Creator, has the same divine authority and power as God the Father.

Verse 4–5: "In him was life; and the life was the light of men. And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not."
Jesus brings spiritual life and revelation, making the invisible God known. Why this conclusion about light? — V.6 tells us about the Light in clearer terms. Again, John is drawing his theology from Genesis, that's where we see the mention of light being called to shine.


John 1:6–13: The Role of John the Baptist and Rejection of the Word

Verses 6–8: John the Baptist is introduced as a witness, not the Light, but pointing to the Light (Jesus).
This underscores that Jesus is the ultimate revelation of God, not a mere prophet.

Verse 10–11: The world did not recognize Jesus despite His divine nature.
This highlights humanity's spiritual blindness to God's revelation.


John 1:14–17: The Word Becomes Flesh

Verse 14: "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth."
This is pivotal: Jesus, the Word, became human, allowing people to see and interact with God’s glory in a way never before possible.

Verse 16–17: "For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ."
While the law revealed God’s will, Jesus provides the fullest revelation of God’s character—grace and truth.


John 1:18: Jesus Reveals the Father

"No man hath seen God at any time": This refers to God the Father, who is invisible and transcendent (Exodus 33:20, 1 Timothy 6:16).

"The only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him": Jesus, who is in an eternal, intimate relationship with the Father ("in the bosom of the Father" ), is uniquely qualified to make Him known. The word "declared" (Greek: exēgeomai) means to explain or reveal fully.

V.18 can only be referring to God the Father because he connects the fact that no man has seen God (the father, who is spirit) at any time to how Jesus is the one that reveals him. The revelation of Jesus is essentially the revelation of God the Father, by a logical conclusion, because without the revelation of Jesus, the Father wouldn't have been revealed.


It can mean one thing therefore, John tells us about the word who was God in V.1, became flesh in V.14 and he says that word is the only begotten of the Father; the Son. And he tells us in V.18 that God has not been seen at any time, and that the Son or the word who he has been talking about has revealed him. We see the introduction of 2 persons tagged God therefore in VV.1-18.

Contextual Flow

1. Verse 1 introduces Jesus as God and Creator.


2. Verse 14 explains that Jesus, though divine, became flesh, making God's glory visible.


3. Verse 18 concludes that no one has ever seen God the Father directly, but Jesus, the Son, reveals Him perfectly.

Come to a conclusion yourself based on what is written. What do you see?

I'm not a fan of long epistles..but I appreciate your effort.
So you are saying that The God that Jesus was with in John 1:1 refers to the father and that Jesus is that same God that is the Father According to John 1:1 that no one has seen?

Which God is John saying that Jesus was in John 1:1, is it the same God that he was with or Another God?

SIRTee15:
Let me ask U a question? What's the difference between a spirit and a soul?

What happens to the soul and spirit at death.

why should I answer you?
one returns back and the other goes to 'rest' or awaits judgement

Truthseeker10:
I'm not a fan of long epistles..but I appreciate your effort.
So you are saying that The God that Jesus was with in John 1:1 refers to the father and that Jesus is that same God that is the Father According to John 1:1 that no one has seen?

Which God is John saying that Jesus was in John 1:1, is it the same God that he was with or Another God?

If John says that Jesus (the word, who he calls God) was with God.


Is he not saying that there are 2 persons?

Nachmonides:
If John says that Jesus (the word, who he calls God) was with God.


Is he not saying that there are 2 persons?

Jesus cannot be the same God, the father because John clearly tells us Jesus was with God.

Nachmonides:
If John says that Jesus (the word, who he calls God) was with God.


Is he not saying that there are 2 persons?

So what John 1:1 is saying is that Jesus was not the God that he was with, meaning that Jesus was another God? Yes or no?

Nachmonides:
Jesus cannot be the same God, the father because John clearly tells us Jesus was with God.

John says Jesus is God, God, the father is as well.

And yet he says God (Jesus, the word) was with God.

Does with suggest that Jesus is the Father?

Nachmonides:
Jesus cannot be the same God, the father because John clearly tells us Jesus was with God.

John says Jesus is God, God, the father is as well.

And yet he says God (Jesus, the word) was with God.

Does " with " suggest that Jesus is the Father?

Truthseeker10:
So what John 1:1 is saying is that Jesus was not the God that he was with, meaning that Jesus was another God? Yes or no?

John says that Jesus was God. Not another God.

Nachmonides:
Jesus cannot be the same God, the father because John clearly tells us Jesus was with God.

So the word and the father are not the same right, They are two Gods? Yes or no?

Nachmonides:
John says that Jesus was God. Not another God.

Why? — because God the father says in scriptures that there is none beside him, no one like him, and his people even say that he is one, singular.

Nachmonides:
Yes, Jesus' body was now a resurrected one, not the former limited body of his.
It now has no limitations like the former. Yet, he is the same Jesus.

That's your problem, you read meaning into my words instead of asking whether I agree to a changing of physical features, meaning Jesus now resembled another human being entirely. No, that's not what I meant, I mean his limited body was changed to a resurrected one, yet same Jesus. Now without limitations.

Before you talk about what others read, you really need to read properly or at least remember what you read

This is what he wrote
"When Thomas one of his faithful friends insisted on seeing him in the former body the angel (resurrection Jesus) materialized into what Thomas need to see of course he couldn't have been going everywhere with holes in his hands."

So what are you agreeing you here and writing
"Alright, I agree that his friends couldn't recognize him upon his resurrection, and that he was not with his former body anymore, because that's what the scriptures teach.

Instead of you to admit your mistake, and make correction, you are here putting someone else down to justify yourself. Honestly you don't have to be pathetic and proud, still trying to be hypocritical to remove speck when there is a log in your eye.

Nachmonides:
John says that Jesus was God. Not another God.

You yourself have said that Jesus was not the God that he was with. So how many God is John 1:1 talking about?

Nachmonides:
Why? — because God the father says in scriptures that there is none beside him, no one like him, and his people even say that he is one, singular.

So how come Jesus as a God is equal to God the Father that he was with? Why is one called God the Father?

Truthseeker10:
So the word and the father are not the same right, They are two Gods? Yes or no?

"Yes or No", why are you boxing up God to your ideas.

Truthseeker10:
You yourself have said that Jesus was not the God that he was with. So how many God is John 1:1 talking about?

I said he was not the Father.

Nachmonides:
I said he was not the Father.

So how many God is John 1:1 talking about?

Nachmonides:
"Yes or No", why are you boxing up God to your ideas.

🤣🤣🤣funny man

MaxInDHouse:
The first tool Satan used against the TRUTH is DISAGREEMENT, as long as two don't agree it'll be impossible for them to work together as a team that's why Jesus said where two or three gather in his name he will come into their midst. Matthew 18:20

Most religionists claiming Christians don't know the indepth meaning of this statement if Jesus comes into a gathering what is he coming to do?

What was his mission in the first century before gathering a group of faithful people?

Well the answer is simple Jesus' presence will help his group to WORK as a team in doing God's will!

So when individuals separately thinks they are Christians yet failed to work together in doing the work Jesus assigned to his disciples surely they are deceiving themselves because Jesus can't be in a gathering that's not doing God's will.

Therefore the only weapon Satan is using to make people seek their own glory instead of working towards God's will is disagreement.

Let them keep on disagreeing among themselves yet claiming they are for Jesus who is the Prince of Peace! Isaiah 9:6 compare to Luke 10:6

Don't deceive yourself that Jesus agreed with the Pharisees and Sadducees, and the council of men and teachers who taught lies and practiced a lie.

gohf:
Before you talk about what others read, you really need to read properly or at least remember what you read

This is what he wrote
"When Thomas one of his faithful friends insisted on seeing him in the former body the angel (resurrection Jesus) materialized into what Thomas need to see of course he couldn't have been going everywhere with holes in his hands."

So what are you agreeing you here and writing
"Alright, I agree that his friends couldn't recognize him upon his resurrection, and that he was not with his former body anymore, because that's what the scriptures teach.

Instead of you to admit your mistake, and make correction, you are here putting someone else down to justify yourself. Honestly you don't have to be pathetic and proud, still trying to be hypocritical to remove speck when there is a log in your eye.

I said I had stated the things I agreed with him.

I didn't say I agreed with him on Thomas, or some angel theory.

Truthseeker10:
🤣🤣🤣funny man

did Nachmonides just ask you
"Yes or No", why are you boxing up God to your ideas.

That guy parrots his own imagination as God's word without remorse yet he questions another. Yet again trying to remove a speck while he has a log in his eye

Truthseeker10:
So how many God is John 1:1 talking about?

One God, he literally uses the same word for God and links 2 persons to the identity.

2 distinct persons.

gohf:
did Nachmonides just ask you
"Yes or No", why are you boxing up God to your ideas.

That guy parrots his own imagination as God's word without remorse yet he questions another. Yet again trying to remove a speck while he has a log in his eye

I have no problem with a yes or no question.

It's what was attached to the yes or no that seemed unintelligent.

Nachmonides:
One God, he literally uses the same words for God and links 2 persons to the identity.

2 distinct persons.

Na wa for you oo....John 1:1 says the father is God and the Son is God.

If both is linked to the same identity, we could right say that John 1:18 is wrong since Jesus and the Father has the same identity which is God. So people have actually seen God.

gohf:
did Nachmonides just ask you
"Yes or No", why are you boxing up God to your ideas.

That guy parrots his own imagination as God's word without remorse yet he questions another. Yet again trying to remove a speck while he has a log in his eye

Don't mind him

Truthseeker10:
So how come Jesus as a God is equal to God the Father that he was with? Why is one called God the Father?

Exactly, why the need to identify God as God, the father?

Is there some God, the son?

That's exactly what John is saying, yes there is.

Nachmonides:
Amazing question:


Something fishy is going on right?, either John is crazy telling us in V.1 that Jesus who we can see is God, and in V.18 he says no one has seen God at any time, or he's trying to tell us something .
Let's look at it.


To understand John 1:18 in its context, we need to consider the surrounding verses in John 1:1–18, often called the Prologue of John's Gospel. This passage introduces themes of Jesus' divinity, His role as the Word, and His mission to reveal God.

John 1:1–5: Jesus as the Word (Logos)

Verse 1: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
This establishes Jesus (the Word) as both distinct from God the Father ("with God" and fully divine ("was God". It sets the foundation for understanding that Jesus is God made manifest.

When we see "In the beginning", John does not have the beginning of the world in mind. He is referring to the book of Genesis, Beresheet, the word itself means the beginnings.

John wasn't in the beginning for him to know in the beginning was the word. So he must have read Genesis and he is drawing his theology (his study of God) from it and attaching it to Jesus.

Verse 3: "All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made."
Jesus, as the Creator, has the same divine authority and power as God the Father.

Verse 4–5: "In him was life; and the life was the light of men. And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not."
Jesus brings spiritual life and revelation, making the invisible God known. Why this conclusion about light? — V.6 tells us about the Light in clearer terms. Again, John is drawing his theology from Genesis, that's where we see the mention of light being called to shine.


John 1:6–13: The Role of John the Baptist and Rejection of the Word

Verses 6–8: John the Baptist is introduced as a witness, not the Light, but pointing to the Light (Jesus).
This underscores that Jesus is the ultimate revelation of God, not a mere prophet.

Verse 10–11: The world did not recognize Jesus despite His divine nature.
This highlights humanity's spiritual blindness to God's revelation.


John 1:14–17: The Word Becomes Flesh

Verse 14: "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth."
This is pivotal: Jesus, the Word, became human, allowing people to see and interact with God’s glory in a way never before possible.

Verse 16–17: "For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ."
While the law revealed God’s will, Jesus provides the fullest revelation of God’s character—grace and truth.


John 1:18: Jesus Reveals the Father

"No man hath seen God at any time": This refers to God the Father, who is invisible and transcendent (Exodus 33:20, 1 Timothy 6:16).

"The only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him": Jesus, who is in an eternal, intimate relationship with the Father ("in the bosom of the Father" ), is uniquely qualified to make Him known. The word "declared" (Greek: exēgeomai) means to explain or reveal fully.

V.18 can only be referring to God the Father because he connects the fact that no man has seen God (the father, who is spirit) at any time to how Jesus is the one that reveals him. The revelation of Jesus is essentially the revelation of God the Father, by a logical conclusion, because without the revelation of Jesus, the Father wouldn't have been revealed.


It can mean one thing therefore, John tells us about the word who was God in V.1, became flesh in V.14 and he says that word is the only begotten of the Father; the Son. And he tells us in V.18 that God has not been seen at any time, and that the Son or the word who he has been talking about has revealed him. We see the introduction of 2 persons tagged God therefore in VV.1-18.

Contextual Flow

1. Verse 1 introduces Jesus as God and Creator.


2. Verse 14 explains that Jesus, though divine, became flesh, making God's glory visible.


3. Verse 18 concludes that no one has ever seen God the Father directly, but Jesus, the Son, reveals Him perfectly.

Come to a conclusion yourself based on what is written. What do you see?

I can see that you copied from the truth I taught you yesterday but for false reasons. I guess that's why demons want to hear God's word so as to know what to corrupt.

So your god changed and became flesh so that he can die, then he changed again and became god, thought you were trying to associate him with the true Jesus who is the same son of man, yesterday, today, and forever the Messiah the anointed king whose reign as no end.

Truthseeker10:
Na wa for you oo....John 1:1 says the father is God and the Son is God.

If both is linked to the same identity, we could right say that John 1:18 is wrong since Jesus and the Father has the same identity which is God. So people have actually seen God.

Yes, haha. That's exactly it.

People have seen God, but not God the father.
That's the Submission of John, God became flesh and died for man.

Nachmonides:
Exactly, why the need to identify God as God, the father?

Is there some God, the son?

That's exactly what John is saying, yes there is.

So how many God is John 1:1 talking about?
Why does one have the title 'father' and the other 'son'?

gohf:
I can see that you copied from the truth I taught you yesterday but for false reasons. I guess that's why demons want to hear God's word so as to know what to corrupt.

So your god changed and became flesh so that he can die, then he changed again and became god, thought you were trying to associate him with the true Jesus who is the same son of man, yesterday, today, and forever the Messiah the anointed king whose reign as no end.

Don't be a fool.

The son of man is a term used frequently in the old testament that's why he picked that narrative for himself to say he is that son of man that was spoken of. He is God, he is the son of man.


And no, God did not change to not being God, he was 100% God and 100% man in Jesus.

Nachmonides:
Yes, haha. That's exactly it.

People have seen God, but not God the father.
That's the Submission of John, God became flesh and died for man.

You are a funny man...did you not just say that the father and son have the same identity which is God?

Have people seen God according to John 1:18? Yes or no? Please don't add father to that verse.

Truthseeker10:
You are a funny man...did you not just say that the father and son have the same identity which is God?

Have people seen God according to John 1:18? Yes or no? Please don't add father to that verse.

No one has seen God at any time according to John 1:18, we are to ask, which person?, since he linked 2 persons to the God identity.

Nachmonides:
No one has seen God at any time according to John 1:18, we are to ask, which person?, since he linked 2 persons to the God identity.

You said two persons have one identity Which is God.
So if one of the person has been seen, does that not mean that one has seen the identity which is God? So how can John 1:18 be correct?