Demmzy15:
Omo see how the guy just quickly confess , don't be excited, I know this I just wanted to see how gullible you were! So you stated Prophet Muhammad copied, now, how is it possible for him to copy books which weren't written in his language especially when we know he was an illiterate? He was an Arab, but the books were written in Greek, Aramaic/Syriac and Hebrew, so possible is it?

Demmzy15:


The history and the Qur'an!



Ummi is roughly translated as mother or mama, I call my great grandmother Ummi!



So it's your duty to tell us who amongst them did the copying!



The first portion of the bible which was Translated into Arabic was in 867AD and this was almost 250 years after Prophet Muhammad had died, so find another lie!



You're just talking, you've not proved that he copied. You're just speculating, give me tangible proves he did. Unlike your bible, when one opens it, you find outright copy and paste from pagan sources! Give me something tangible and stop the speculations

lordnicklaus:


It is important to note that the word Injil is actually the Greek word evangel which is actually the word from which the word rendered "gospel" is derived.

Also the word "Quran" is actually the Aramaic word "Qerani which means "recitation" or "reading" or "calling" and also the word "Huri" translated as "virgins" which Muslims hope to get in paradise is actually the Aramaic word "Huwr" which means "white" or "grape."

When considering the Arabic of the Quran, there are noticeable Greek and Aramaic influenced words, so it is clear that existing Greek and Aramaic Christian texts were used in the construction of the Quran............ .....

If there was no Arabic text of the bible as you claim, then how were Arab speaking Christians such as Waraqa able to quote bible verses?

Demmzy15:
If that's the case, I'll prefer you keep silent and stop spreading lies!

chubbyswit:
everything there is nothing but fact but i dont expect you to accept the truth cos you all have been possessed and blinded

Look here, it's people like you who would open their whole mouth to talk yet no substance. Spare me all that thrash and tell me how Prophet Muhammad copied from you, I can prove all what you copied from pagans if you want?

Demmzy15:


How on earth does "evangel" and "Injeel" sound alike for you to claim they're from the same source? Anyways, prove for the above assertion!



Arabic, Aramaic or Syriac and Hebrew are sister languages which was influenced by the Nabateans. So this languages have striking similarities, in Arabic for instance," In the name" is translated as "Bismi" while in Hebrew it's "B'shemi". This languages are from the same sources, so it'll be unfair for you to say they borrowed from each other. I can also say Arabic influenced this languages you mentioned!

This is peculiar with many European language like English because it emerged from the Germanic people!



There are no Greek words in the Quran, now please prove to us that the Qur'an was composed with Christian texts. Similarities between sister languages isn't enough reason!



Which verses did Waraqa quote exactly? It's surprising how you want to use Waraqa as an evidence, it'll turn out badly for you.

lordnicklaus:




It is important to also note that "evangel" is pronounced as "evanjel" and it sounds similar to "injil."

Now you made a correct point that Aramaic, Hebrew and Arabic are sister languages.

In Aramaic, the word "gospel" is "bisorta" and in Hebrew it is "besort." The words for "gospel" sound similar in both languages but why a different word in the Arabic counterpart which is supposed to be a sister language?

It is clear that the Arabic counterpart is of another source language, a non-semitic source.

And as for the issue concerning Waraqa, below is a link:


https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Waraka_ibn_Nawfal

Demmzy15:
lordnicklaus gospel in Greek is Evangélio not what you stated!

Demmzy15:
lordnicklaus gospel in Greek is Evangélio not what you stated!

Demmzy15:


It doesn't sound similar at all, give me a lexicon showing that it's from that source!



Thank you for admitting!



So it's only one word you use to judge and then conclude that Prophet Muhammad copied? Are you being serious? Isn't this supposed to be a prove that the Qur'an had nothing to do with copying from the Hebrew and Aramaic sources? If this is the same, you'll still be the same people to claim it was copied but when it's not you still complain.

There are many similarities but that doesn't mean the languages are dependent on each other. In Palestine today, many Arabs can't speak Jew even though they're similarities!



All languages developed from the Nabateans and remember you said "Now you made a correct point that Aramaic, Hebrew and Arabic are sister languages." So if they're sisters then surely they're from the same sources!



I can't be reading through wiki, present facts if you have them!

lordnicklaus:


You didn't read my post well. I said "evangel" is the word from which the Greek word for "gospel" is derived. That is to say, "evangelion" is derived from "evangel."

You should also note that "evangelion" is pronounced as "evanjelion" and still kind of sound like "injil."

Again, I made reference to the Aramaic and Hebrew word for "gospel" and I said that they both sound alike as they are sister languages, but Arabic being a sister language uses a different word entirely which is not of Semitic source or origin.

lordnicklaus:


Back to the sister language issue. What I am saying is this, Aramaic and Hebrew makes use of words for "gospel" and they sound alike

but Arabic being a sister language is supposed to make use of a similar word but instead uses a strange word which cannot be found in other Semitic languages,

it is clear that the word "injil" is of Non-Semitic origin and that is of Greek origin, so Muhammad probably made use of either a Greek text or an Arabic translation of a Greek text in constructing Quran.

For the Waraqa issue, he was the cousin of Khadija and a Christian right? It is said that after Muhammad received his so-called revelation, that Waraqa confirmed his prophethood by quoting from the Christian and Jewish texts. How could he have quoted a text in a foreign language if a translation of the text didn't exist in his own language?.............. Or how could Waraqa have been a Christian if he wasn't preached to in his own language?

lexiconkabir:
Demmzy15 is there any shia moderator in that islam for Muslims? One mod keeps banning me whenever i reply "shia.muslim", all my three accounts have been banned.