All the Christian denominations including the Jehovah witnesses believe that Jesus suffer and died for our sins on the cross ( or on the stake). But what is the actual meaning of the statement: "Jesus suffer and died for our sins" ? The meaning of this statement can only be understood in two ways. It is either Jesus suffer and died on the cross so that we can have access to divine forgiveness for our sins- OR-Jesus suffer and died on the cross to remove our sinful nature so that we can have immunity against committing sins. However, complete removal of humanity sinful nature is impossible as nobody can be completely free from committing minor sins. Bible also attests to this fact; "If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us( 1John 1:7-9)
Therefore, the statement: "Jesus suffer and died for our sins" can only have a conceivable meaning if Jesus suffer and died on the cross so that we can have access to divine forgiveness for our sins.
But why MUST Jesus suffer and die on the cross before God can forgive our sins? If it is an act of injustice for God to freely forgive our sins, then is it not a GREATER ACT OF INJUSTICE for God to condemn an innocent and righteous soul for the sins he did not commit ?
Besides, Bible make it clear that any one that is crucified is accursed by God ( Galatians 3:13). How then are we to conceive a merciful and omnipotent God putting His BELOVED prophet under His CURSE when God of course knew that Jesus never did anything wrong?
If God is All-powerful and All-knowing Creator which ( therefore) cannot be compelled to follow one particular way, then He must have chosen at least one rational way to forgive our sins and earn our salvation . God Almighty must have set aside any irrational way that will later require Him to curse and condemn His innocent and beloved prophet for something that can be achieved through another means. Yes, one of the rational means which God has chosen to forgive our sins and earn our salvation is SINCERE REPENTANCE from our sinful acts : “Son of man, say to the Israelites; this is what you are saying: our offenses and sins weigh us down, and we are wasting away because of them. How then can we live? Say to them: as surely as I live declares the sovereign Lord, I take no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but rather that they turn from their ways and live. Turn! TURN FROM YOUR EVIL WAYS! Why will you die, people of Israel? Therefore, son of man say to your people… if someone, one who is wicked, REPENTS, that person’s former wickedness will not bring condemnation… And if I say to the wicked person, you will surely die, but they then TURN FROM THEIR SINS and do what is just and right…follow the decree that gives life, and do no evil--THAT PERSON WILL SURELY LIVE :THEY WILL NOT DIE. NONE OF THE SINS that person has committed will be remembered against them.They have done what is just and right; they will surely live (Ezekiel 33:10-16)" . Did God ask the wicked sinners to believe in Jesus crucifixion before their sins can be forgiven (or before they can live) in all these verses? What He actually wants from them is sincere repentance from their sinful ways. Qur'an also pass the same message: O you who believe! Turn to Allah with SINCERE REPENTANCE! It may be that your Lord will REMIT FROM YOU YOUR SINS, and admit you into Gardens under which rivers flow (Qur'an 66:7-9)
Another rational way that God has chosen in the past for the people to achieve divine forgiveness of sins is through animal sacrifice. Leviticus 16:21-30 says as follow: "the GOAT will carry on itself ALL THE SINS of Israelites to a remote place and the man shall release the goat in the wilderness..... Then before the LORD, you will be CLEAN FROM ALL YOUR SINS”. Please is there any indication in these verses that the sins of Israelites were only "cover" and not completely taken away? God says; “Then before the LORD, you will be CLEAN FROM ALL YOUR SINS”. Yet the New Testament proclaimed that it is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sin (Hebrew 10:4). This is another great lie that was fabricated to justify the doctrine of sin atonement through Jesus crucifixion.
If God can truly atone for our sins through animal sacrifice as the verses in the book of Leviticus quoted above affirm, then is there any need again for God to shed the blood of innocent human being on the cross ?
Therefore, if divine forgiveness for our sins is what we really need to gain eternal life, then the death of Jesus on the cross IS NOT NECCESSARY; God can decide to forgive our sins through sincere repentance or through animal sacrifice as He has done with the people that lived and died before Jesus arrival. These two ways are far more better than that irrational way which will later require God Almighty to condemn and curse His innocent and beloved prophet for something that can be acheived through another rational means.
Some Christians might want to argue that Jesus crucifixion make them entitle to many spiritual benefits that GO BEYOND achieving divine forgiveness for our sins. But no matter how numerous the spiritual benefits that can be derived from Jesus crucifixion, there is no way for such benefits to be ACTUALIZED in the life of the Old Testament prophets (like Abraham, Isaac, Jacob,Moses, Isaiah, Jeremiah etc) because they have lived and died before Jesus arrival talkless of his supposed crucifixion. Yet these people manage to earn their salvation and reconcilation back to God (because there is no any biblical verse that says these Old Testament Prophets were in a certain state of condemnation after their death until the time of Jesus crucifixion). So if these old testament prophets, who happened to be among the children of Adam, were able to gain their salvation without Jesus crucifixion, then there is alternative way also for the other children of Adam to gain their salvation without Jesus crucifixion. Therefore, the Christian doctrine which says that: "All powerful and All merciful God must condemn and curse His innocent and beloved son on the cross before the children of Adam can earn their salvation" is FALSE.
The falsehood behind this doctrine will become more clear to you when you consider the following premises of argument. You will see that the frequently-quoted verse( His ways are not our ways, His thoughts are not our thoughts—they are higher than ours-Isaiah 55:8 ) that Christians always use to justify this irrational doctrine cannot work this time around. It would only work if the Christians can believe that God Almighty can decide to choose a way of doing something that will later require Him to commit an act of lying . Now read the following six premises of argument and indicate with reason any one that is wrong.
PREMISE 1: As part of our concept about God; God is naturally known to ALWAYS SPEAK THE TRUTH just like God is naturally known to ALWAYS SANCTIFY( i:e to endorse and bless spiritually ) HIS INNOCENT AND BELOVED PROPHETS.
PREMISE 2: Therefore, for any reason whatsoever, it is IMPOSSIBLE FOR GOD TO SPEAK A LIE just like it is IMPOSSIBLE FOR GOD TO CURSE (i:e to condemn spiritually ) HIS INNOCENT AND BELOVED PROPHETS
PREMISE 3: Consequently, if there is a religious faith which proclaims that GOD MUST SPEAK A LIE at a particular period of time in order to execute a plan designed by God Himself, then that religious faith must be false.
PREMISE 4 : Similarly, if there is religious faith which proclaims that GOD MUST CURSE( i:e to condemn spiritually) HIS INNOCENT AND BELOVED PROPHET at a particular period of time in order to execute a plan designed by God Himself, then that religious faith must also be false.
PREMISE 5 : But Christianity is a religious faith which proclaim that AN INNOCENT AND BELOVED PROPHET OF GOD (i:e Jesus Christ) MUST BE PUT UNDER THE CURSE OF THE SAME GOD ( see Deuteronomy 21:23, Galatians 3:13) before God can execute a plan He personally designed to save those who believe in Him.
PREMISE 6: Therefore, Christianity must be false.

God may allow His innocent and beloved prophet to suffer (i:e TO BE PHYSICALLY CONDEMNED) for one reason or the other. But God would never "curse" ( i:e SPIRITUALLY CONDEMN) His innocent and beloved prophet for any reason whatsover. Therefore, there is need for God to send another prophet to remove this negative and bad picture of God from the minds of the general humanity. This is one of the many reasons why Qur’an was revealed by God to Prophet Muhammad (pbuh). In the Holy Qur’an, God removed this negative and bad impression from the minds of the people by declaring that, in a miraculous way, Jesus escaped death on the cross (Qur’an 4:157-158). In this way, the "curse of God" associated with any one that is crucified and died on a cross according to the Jewish law (Galatians 3:13, Deuteronomy 21:23) was removed from the head of our beloved and innocent prophet called Jesus Christ (peace be upon him). This is exactly in line with the prayer of Jesus to God in the garden of Gethsemane when he asked for this “cup of condemnation” to be taken away from him in THREE consecutive times as stated clearly in Matthew 26:36-44. Therefore, an illogical and contradictory concept of "a merciful and omnipotent Father who could not see any other way of saving those who sincerely believe in Him except to condemn and curse His innocent and beloved son on the cross" is completely far away from the truth.

May God forgive

Abdulgaffar22:
All the Christian denominations including the Jehovah witnesses believe that Jesus suffer and died for our sins on the cross ( or on the stake).
It is either Jesus suffer and died on the cross so that we can have access to divine forgiveness for our sins- OR-Jesus suffer and died on the cross to remove our sinful nature so that we can have immunity against committing sins.
Bible also attests to this fact; "If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us( 1John 1:7-9)
Therefore, the statement: "Jesus suffer and died for our sins" can only have a conceivable meaning if Jesus suffer and died on the cross so that we can have access to divine forgiveness for our sins.


Yes, one of the rational means which God has chosen to forgive our sins and earn our salvation is SINCERE REPENTANCE

there is no way for such benefits to be ACTUALIZED in the life of the Old Testament prophets (like Abraham, Isaac, Jacob,Moses, Isaiah, Jeremiah etc) because they have lived and died before Jesus arrival talkless of his supposed crucifixion. Yet these people manage to earn their salvation and reconcilation back to God (because there is no any biblical verse that says these Old Testament Prophets were in a certain state of condemnation after their death until the time of Jesus crucifixion).

This is exactly in line with the prayer of Jesus to God in the garden of Gethsemane when he asked for this “cup of condemnation” to be taken away from him in THREE consecutive times as stated clearly in Matthew 26:36-44.

THE DISHONESTY OF ABDULGAFFAR22
Abdulgaffar, Let me state it again: You cannot claim, on the one hand, that the Bible is corrupted and then CHOOSE to use portions of the same allegedly corrupted Bible to justify your arguments. That would be outrightly dishonest.

You quoted a portion of Matthew 26:36-44 but you conveniently REFUSED to add that Jesus said also “…… Yet not as I will, but as you will”. This is a statement of ULTIMATE SUBMISSION to God the Father’s will. Christ understood that the JUSTICE of God needed to be satisfied for his mercy to be freely available to all mankind.

Again: You Moslems today believe a person must say the 'Shahada' to be moslem. Did any of these old patriarchs you claim are Moslems say it? Did they know Mohamed? How then was Islam actualized in their lives?

If you accept that they gained eternal life without Mohamed and the quran then it means Islam is not necessarily the route to gain life. If so, why are you hung up on it?

You should either accept and seek to understand what the Bible, in its entirety, says or stick to your quran.

Every man born into this world, including yourself, is born physically alive but SPIRITUALLY DEAD. Therefore, no amount of good works by the dead – yourself included – can be of any merit before a RIGHTEOUS and JUST God.

It has to take a person who is ALIVE to do anything for the dead and not the other way round. That is what Jesus Christ did on the cross.

He was not called the Messiah or Christ for nothing! He came to save mankind from their sin. Even your quran calls him these; doesn’t it? And you’ve never found out what his name and title means?

SINCERE REPENTANCE means understanding and accepting the fact that we cannot be good enough to attain God’s righteous requirements and therefore choosing (changing our minds) to go by his MERCY ALONE – the mercy demonstrated by the CROSS; ACCEPTING WHAT God has done through Jesus Christ rather than what we can DO to earn his merit.

plainbibletruth:


THE DISHONESTY OF ABDULGAFFAR22
Abdulgaffar, Let me state it again: You cannot claim, on the one hand, that the Bible is corrupted and then CHOOSE to use portions of the same allegedly corrupted Bible to justify your arguments. That would be outrightly dishonest.

You quoted a portion of Matthew 26:36-44 but you conveniently REFUSED to add that Jesus said also “…… Yet not as I will, but as you will”. This is a statement of ULTIMATE SUBMISSION to God the Father’s will. Christ understood that the JUSTICE of God needed to be satisfied for his mercy to be freely available to all mankind.

Again: You Moslems today believe a person must say the 'Shahada' to be moslem. Did any of these old patriarchs you claim are Moslems say it? Did they know Mohamed? How then was Islam actualized in their lives?

If you accept that they gained eternal life without Mohamed and the quran then it means Islam is not necessarily the route to gain life. If so, why are you hung up on it?

You should either accept and seek to understand what the Bible, in its entirety, says or stick to your quran.

Every man born into this world, including yourself, is born physically alive but SPIRITUALLY DEAD. Therefore, no amount of good works by the dead – yourself included – can be of any merit before a RIGHTEOUS and JUST God.

It has to take a person who is ALIVE to do anything for the dead and not the other way round. That is what Jesus Christ did on the cross.

He was not called the Messiah or Christ for nothing! He came to save mankind from their sin. Even your quran calls him these; doesn’t it? And you’ve never found out what his name and title means?

SINCERE REPENTANCE means understanding and accepting the fact that we cannot be good enough to attain God’s righteous requirements and therefore choosing (changing our minds) to go by his MERCY ALONE – the mercy demonstrated by the CROSS; ACCEPTING WHAT God has done through Jesus Christ rather than what we can DO to earn his merit.

True talk , God bless you.

Abdulgaffar22:
All the Christian denominations including the Jehovah witnesses believe that Jesus suffer and died for our sins on the cross ( or on the stake). But what is the actual meaning of the statement: "Jesus suffer and died for our sins" ? The meaning of this statement can only be understood in two ways. It is either Jesus suffer and died on the cross so that we can have access to divine forgiveness for our sins- OR-Jesus suffer and died on the cross to remove our sinful nature so that we can have immunity against committing sins. However, complete removal of humanity sinful nature is impossible as nobody can be completely free from committing minor sins. Bible also attests to this fact; "If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us( 1John 1:7-9)
Therefore, the statement: "Jesus suffer and died for our sins" can only have a conceivable meaning if Jesus suffer and died on the cross so that we can have access to divine forgiveness for our sins.
But why MUST Jesus suffer and die on the cross before God can forgive our sins? If it is an act of injustice for God to freely forgive our sins, then is it not a GREATER ACT OF INJUSTICE for God to condemn an innocent and righteous soul for the sins he did not commit ?
Besides, Bible make it clear that any one that is crucified is accursed by God ( Galatians 3:13).

STOP POSTING THESE NONSENSE.

WE HAVE COMMENTED ON THESE SEVERAL TIME BUT YOU KEPT ON ABANDONING THE THREAD HALF WAY WHENEVER YOU ARE BEING CORNERED.

IF YOU CANNOT SEE , PEOPLE CAN SEE THE EVILS ISLAM IS MADE OF IN THE LIVES OF THE FULANI HERDSMEN AND BOKO HARAM IN NIGERIA.

As you do not believe in the crucifixion of Jesus as a remission for your sins , then the curse of God , which He pronounced upon Adam will remain in your life , except you repent.
Jesus said :
Proverbs 8:36 KJV
But he that sinneth against me wrongeth his own soul: all they that hate me love death.

John 14:6 KJV
Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.

And your Quran and hadith's have told you your destination after your death :
Volume 1, Book 12, Number 770:

Narrated Abu Huraira:

The people said, "O Allah's Apostle! Shall we see our Lord on the Day of Resurrection?" He replied, "Do you have any doubt in seeing the full moon on a clear (not cloudy) night?" They replied, "No, O Allah's Apostle!" He said, "Do you have any doubt in seeing the sun when there are no clouds?" They replied in the negative. He said, "You will see Allah (your Lord) in the same way. On the Day of Resurrection, people will be gathered and He will order the people to follow what they used to worship. So some of them will follow the sun, some will follow the moon, and some will follow other deities; and only this nation (Muslims) will be left with its hypocrites. Allah will come to them and say, 'I am Your Lord.' They will say, 'We shall stay in this place till our Lord comes to us and when our Lord will come, we will recognize Him. Then Allah will come to them again and say, 'I am your Lord.' They will say, 'You are our Lord.' Allah will call them, and As-Sirat (a bridge) will be laid across Hell and I (Muhammad) shall be the first amongst the Apostles to cross it with my followers. Nobody except the Apostles will then be able to speak and they will be saying then, 'O Allah! Save us. O Allah Save us.'

There will be hooks like the thorns of Sa'dan in Hell. Have you seen the thorns of Sa'dan?" The people said, "Yes." He said, "These hooks will be like the thorns of Sa'dan but nobody except Allah knows their greatness in size and these will entangle the people according to their deeds; some of them will fall and stay in Hell forever; others will receive punishment (torn into small pieces) and will get out of Hell, till when Allah intends mercy on whomever He likes amongst the people of Hell, He will order the angels to take out of Hell those who worshipped none but Him alone. The angels will take them out by recognizing them from the traces of prostrations, for Allah has forbidden the (Hell) fire to eat away those traces. So they will come out of the Fire, it will eat away from the whole of the human body except the marks of the prostrations. At that time they will come out of the Fire as mere skeletons. The Water of Life will be poured on them and as a result they will grow like the seeds growing on the bank of flowing water. Then when Allah had finished from the Judgments amongst his creations, one man will be left between Hell and Paradise and he will be the last man from the people of Hell to enter paradise.....

MR Plainbibletruth
There is one thing you have to understand; There is no any verse in the Bible where God declare that " the entire Bible was inspired by Me". This is the reason why you can never find the word "Bible" inside the Bible. Paul wrote extensively and gave judgments on the issue of marriage and divorce without being inspired by God- " But to the rest, I (PAUL), NOT THE LORD, say: If any brother has a wife who does not believe, and she is willing to live with him, let him not divorce her...... Now concerning virgins, I HAVE NO COMMANDMENT FROM THE LORD, yet I give judgment as one whom the Lord in His mercy has made trustworthy.(1st Corinthians 7:12-25) You see here how Paul is saying that he is using his best personal judgement ,and that what he was writing is not directly from God. Why would God “inspire” Paul to say that his words were NOT from Him? Have you now seen that Bible is a mixture of word of God and word of men? It is not stated in any verse that EVERY WORD of the Bible is word of God. In fact, the author of the book of Luke wrote as follows: “IT SEEMED GOOD TO ME ALSO, having had perfect understanding of all things from the beginning, to write to you an orderly account, most excellent Theophilus (Luke 1:3)”. You can see again that St Luke wrote his Gospel not because he was inspired by God but because it seemed good to him to write such an account due to his thought of having a sound knowledge on the matter. In fact, he wrote his Gospel not to the general humanity (like you and I) but to one specific influential person he addressed as "most excellent Theophilus" as clearly seen in the verse cited above.

Again you wrote "Christ understood that the JUSTICE of God needed to be satisfied for his mercy to be freely available to all mankind" If it is an act of INJUSTICE for God to FREELY forgive our sins, then is it not a GREATER ACT OF INJUSTICE for God to condemn an innocent and righteous soul for the sins he did not commit ? Yes or No?
Again you wrote "SINCERE REPENTANCE means understanding and accepting the fact that we cannot be good enough to attain God’s righteous requirements and therefore choosing (changing our minds) to go by his MERCY ALONE – the mercy demonstrated by the CROSS; ACCEPTING WHAT God has done through Jesus Christ rather than what we can DO to earn his merit"
Pls compare what you wrote above with what God said below;
"And if I say to the wicked person, you will surely die, but they then TURN FROM THEIR SINS and do what is just and right…follow the decree that gives life, and do no evil--THAT PERSON WILL SURELY LIVE :THEY WILL NOT DIE. NONE OF THE SINS that person has committed will be remembered against them.They have done what is just and right; they will surely live (Ezekiel 33:10-16)"
Do you see the contradiction? According to you, "repentance is to accept that we CANNOT attain God's righteous requirement and then choose the MERCY demonstrated by the CROSS. But according to God, repentance is to TURN AWAY FROM OUR SINS , DO WHAT IS JUST AND RIGHT…follow the decree that gives life, and do no evil. Again, God did not mention the mercy demonstrated by the cross.
Again you wrote; "If you accept that they gained eternal life without Mohamed and the quran then it means Islam is not necessarily the route to gain life."
Do you know where you have gotten it wrong? ISLAM did not start with the arrival of Prophet Muhammad(pbuh) and Qur'an. The word Islam simply means "submission to the will and commandment of God" at any particular period of time. The people that submit to this will and commandment are called Muslims.This is the reason why it is convinient for us to say Abraham, Moses and the likes are Muslims. But you can never called them Christians because ; 1. They have lived and died before the birth of Christ. 2. The word "Christians" was invented after the departure of Jesus Christ by Paul and his colleagues in Antioch( Acts 11:26) not even by the original apostles chosen by Jesus during his ministry.

Abdulgaffar22:
MR Plainbibletruth
There is one thing you have to understand; There is no any verse in the Bible where God declare that " the entire Bible was inspired by Me". This is the reason why you can never find the word "Bible" inside the Bible. Paul wrote extensively and gave judgments on the issue of marriage and divorce without being inspired by God- " But to the rest, I (PAUL), NOT THE LORD, say: If any brother has a wife who does not believe, and she is willing to live with him, let him not divorce her...... Now concerning virgins, I HAVE NO COMMANDMENT FROM THE LORD, yet I give judgment as one whom the Lord in His mercy has made trustworthy.(1st Corinthians 7:12-25) You see here how Paul is saying that he is using his best personal judgement ,and that what he was writing is not directly from God. Why would God “inspire” Paul to say that his words were NOT from Him? Have you now seen that Bible is a mixture of word of God and word of men? It is not stated in any verse that EVERY WORD of the Bible is word of God. In fact, the author of the book of Luke wrote as follows: “IT SEEMED GOOD TO ME ALSO, having had perfect understanding of all things from the beginning, to write to you an orderly account, most excellent Theophilus (Luke 1:3)”. You can see again that St Luke wrote his Gospel not because he was inspired by God but because it seemed good to him to write such an account due to his thought of having a sound knowledge on the matter. In fact, he wrote his Gospel not to the general humanity (like you and I) but to one specific influential person he addressed as "most excellent Theophilus" as clearly seen in the verse cited above.

Again you wrote "Christ understood that the JUSTICE of God needed to be satisfied for his mercy to be freely available to all mankind" If it is an act of INJUSTICE for God to FREELY forgive our sins, then is it not a GREATER ACT OF INJUSTICE for God to condemn an innocent and righteous soul for the sins he did not commit ? Yes or No?
Again you wrote "SINCERE REPENTANCE means understanding and accepting the fact that we cannot be good enough to attain God’s righteous requirements and therefore choosing (changing our minds) to go by his MERCY ALONE – the mercy demonstrated by the CROSS; ACCEPTING WHAT God has done through Jesus Christ rather than what we can DO to earn his merit"
Pls compare what you wrote above with what God said below;
"And if I say to the wicked person, you will surely die, but they then TURN FROM THEIR SINS and do what is just and right…follow the decree that gives life, and do no evil--THAT PERSON WILL SURELY LIVE :THEY WILL NOT DIE. NONE OF THE SINS that person has committed will be remembered against them.They have done what is just and right; they will surely live (Ezekiel 33:10-16)"
Do you see the contradiction? According to you, "repentance is to accept that we CANNOT attain God's righteous requirement and then choose the MERCY demonstrated by the CROSS. But according to God, repentance is to TURN AWAY FROM OUR SINS , DO WHAT IS JUST AND RIGHT…follow the decree that gives life, and do no evil. Again, God did not mention the mercy demonstrated by the cross.
Again you wrote; "If you accept that they gained eternal life without Mohamed and the quran then it means Islam is not necessarily the route to gain life."
Do you know where you have gotten it wrong? ISLAM did not start with the arrival of Prophet Muhammad(pbuh) and Qur'an. The word Islam simply means "submission to the will and commandment of God" at any particular period of time. The people that submit to this will and commandment are called Muslims.This is the reason why it is convinient for us to say Abraham, Moses and the likes are Muslims. But you can never called them Christians because ; 1. They have lived and died before the birth of Christ. 2. The word "Christians" was invented after the departure of Jesus Christ by Paul and his colleagues in Antioch( Acts 11:23) not even by the original apostles chosen by Jesus during his ministry.

You are dealing with a false religion ignorantly.

Islam started with Muhammad. Muhammad said he was the first Muslim :

Allah SWT says:

قُلْ أَغَيْرَ اللَّهِ أَتَّخِذُ وَلِيًّا فَاطِرِ السَّمٰوٰتِ وَالْأَرْضِ وَهُوَ يُطْعِمُ وَلَا يُطْعَمُ ۗ قُلْ إِنِّىٓ أُمِرْتُ أَنْ أَكُونَ أَوَّلَ مَنْ أَسْلَمَ ۖ وَلَا تَكُونَنَّ مِنَ الْمُشْرِكِينَ
"Say, "Is it other than Allah I should take as a protector, Creator of the heavens and the earth, while it is He who feeds and is not fed?" Say, [O Muhammad], "Indeed, I have been commanded to be the first [among you] who submit [to Allah] and [was commanded], 'Do not ever be of the polytheists.' ""
(QS. Al-An'aam: Verse 14)

Allah SWT says:

لَا شَرِيكَ لَهُ ۥ ۖ وَبِذٰلِكَ أُمِرْتُ وَأَنَا۠ أَوَّلُ الْمُسْلِمِينَ
"No partner has He. And this I have been commanded, and I am the first [among you] of the Muslims.""
(QS. Al-An'aam: Verse 163)

Islam is full of lies , nothing more.

Mr enilove, if Abraham, Moses and the likes are not Muslims( i:e submitters to the will and commandments of God), then they are what?
Honestly, when you open your eyes one day and found your self inside the grave, then you will realize how far you have strayed away from the truth. Do you ever ponder that a single verse from the Bible is enough to condemn you before God? If God hold you to ransom with this single verse, I swear by God, there is no way you can escape it. What is this verse? Jesus said: I was sent ONLY to the lost sheep of the Israel(Matthew 15:24). The greatness of this very verse will be revealed to you when you enter the grave.
If you are ask to distribute a packet of sweet to some children in your vicinity with an instruction to start with the male children before the female.Now one of the female children approach you for the collection of her own sweet .Would you say; " I WAS ONLY ASKED TO GIVE THE MALE" or "It is not yet time for the female" ? Pls be sincere with your self. Definitely you will say: it is not yet time for the female or something similar in meaning like " wait for your turn".

Similarly if it was already in the
divine plan that Jesus was the last prophet sent to both the Jews and the gentiles to die for our sins, then Jesus' statement directed to that
Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24 should have
been: IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES or something similar in meaning rather than “I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. Why did Jesus have to say such a statement if he was truly sent to the entire world and if truly no one can come to the Father except through him? Because he was yet to be crucified? No! Because he was in hurry? No! Because he was yet to receive the power from his Father? No! Because he was yet to be resurrected? No! Because he was yet to be ascended to heaven? No! THINK VERY WELL. YOU WILL NOT FIND ANY REASONABLE REASON WHY JESUS REFUSE TO ANSWER THAT CANANITE WOMAN IN THE FIRST INSTANCE OTHER THAN THE REASON MENTIONED IN THE VERSE.
The fact that Jesus later answered that woman
(Matthew 15:28) help us to know that there was no any strong reason preventingJesus from attending to her in the first instance other than the fact that Jesus and his apostles were sent only to the Israelites.

Now compare this Biblical verse with this Qur’anic verse; AND WE HAVE NOT SENT YOU (O Muhammad-pbuh) EXCEPT AS A GIVER OF GLAD TIDINGS AND AS A WARNER TO ALL MANKIND (Qur’an 34:28). See how Bible categorically declared that Jesus (pbuh) was sent only to the Israelites and see how Qur’an declared that Muhammad (pbuh) was sent to all mankind. It is now left for you to decide.

Abdulgaffar22:
Mr enilove, if Abraham, ..
Similarly if it was already in the
divine plan that Jesus was the last prophet sent to both the Jews and the gentiles to die for our sins, then Jesus' statement directed to that
Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24 should have
been: IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES or something similar in meaning rather than “I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. Why did Jesus have to say such statement? Because he was yet to be crucified? No! Because he was in hurry? No! Because he was yet to receive the power from his Father? No! Because he was yet to be resurrected? No! THINK VERY WELL. YOU WILL NOT FIND ANY RESONABLE REASON WHY JESUS REFUSE TO ANSWER THE WOMAN IN THE FIRST INSTANCE OTHER THAN THE ONE MENTIONED IN THE VERSE.
The fact that Jesus later answered that woman
(Matthew 15:28) help us to know that there was no any strong reason preventingJesus from attending to her in the first instance other than the fact that Jesus and his apostles were sent only to the Israelites.

Did you get this from the Quran or the Bible ? If it is from the Bible , why do you take only that part and negnect the other parts where Jesus told them to preach the gospel to the whole world ?

The reason why Jesus made that statement to the woman was simply because she would not be able to maintain the miracle. It will amount to a waste because Jesus had not yet die for the whole world.
Most times after some miracle you hear Jesus saying " sin no more", but for the Gentiles , they were mainly idol worshippers who were living and dinning in sin ,
unlike the the children of Israel who had statutes and laws to follow and to guide them to maintain their miracles.

The spiritual state of the woman was compared to that of a dog , and what do dogs do , they always go back to their vomits . Miracle is meant to give salvation but to an idol worshipper, who know not what God's laws and commands are , it is a waste.

Jesus first told his disciples to go and preach ONLY to the lost sheep of Israel :

Matthew 10:5-7 KJV
These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not:
[6] But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
[7] And as ye go, preach, saying, The kingdom of heaven is at hand.

But after his death , he told the same disciples to go and preach to the Gentiles . Why ? Because they can now call on the name of Jesus whose blood was shed for the world.

Acts 1:1-8 KJV
The former treatise have I made, O Theophilus, of all that Jesus began both to do and teach, [2] Until the day in which he was taken up, after that he through the Holy Ghost had given commandments unto the apostles whom he had chosen: [3] To whom also he shewed himself alive after his passion by many infallible proofs, being seen of them forty days, and speaking of the things pertaining to the kingdom of God: [4] And, being assembled together with them , commanded them that they should not depart from Jerusalem, but wait for the promise of the Father, which, saith he , ye have heard of me. [5] For John truly baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Ghost not many days hence. [6] When they therefore were come together, they asked of him, saying, Lord, wilt thou at this time restore again the kingdom to Israel? [7] And he said unto them, It is not for you to know the times or the seasons, which the Father hath put in his own power. [8] But ye shall receive power, after that the Holy Ghost is come upon you: and ye shall be witnesses unto me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and in Samaria, and unto the UTTERMOST PART OF THE EARTH.

MY ADVICE FOR YOU IS TO PRAY FOR GOD TO GUIDE YOU. I WAS A MUSLIM , I KNOW TRULY , THAT ISLAM IS A SATANIC RELIGION. YOU CAN SEE THE FULANIS IN NIGERIA , HOW THEY DON'T HAVE REGARD FOR HUMAN LIFE , THAT IS THE SPIRIT OF ISLAM , TO KILL FOR THE DEVIL ( ALLAH ).

QUESTION ONE: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did peter tell Cornelius and his households that it is still unlawful for him to visit the gentiles (Acts 10:28), many years after Jesus’ ascension to heaven? Was peter not aware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations?
QUESTION TWO If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did James still address his epistle to twelve tribes of Israel only i:e the Jews, and not to the gentiles (James 1:1)?
QUESTION THREE : If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why would these apostles be judging only the twelve tribes of Israel in the new world andnot judging the Gentiles (Matthew19:28)?
QUESTION FOUR: if the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the gospel to all the nations of the world, why did Peter and his associates still agree to limit their ministry to the people of circumcision i.e. the Jews; leaving the work of Christianizing the gentiles only to Paul and Barnabas (Galatians 2:7-9)?
QUESTION FIVE : If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the gospel to all nations of the world, why was it that, after the book of Acts, all the letters specifically addressed to the gentiles were written by Paul and not by the original apostles of Jesus (Romans 1:1, 1stCorinthians 1:1, 2nd Corinthians 1:1, Galatians 1:1, Ephesians 1:1, Philippians 1:1, Colossians 1:1,etc.)?
QUESTION SIX: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why did Paul repeatedly speak as if he was the only one authorized to preach the Gospel to the gentiles( Romans 15:15-18, Romans 11:13, 1st Timothy 2:7, Acts 9:15, 2nd Timothy 1:11 Ephesians 3:7-9)?
QUESTION SEVEN: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why did disciples under the authority of the apostles still preach the gospel to none EXCEPT THE JEWS even after the persecution that followed the killing of Stephen (Acts 11:19)? Of course, the killing of Stephen took place after Jesus ascension to heaven (Acts 7: 55-58)
All the questions asked above are enough to prove that Jesus and his apostles were only commanded to preach to the Jews (i:e the Israelites) and the new command of preaching to all the nations of the world is nothing but forgery . The spreading of Christianity throughout the world of the Gentiles was majorly due to activities of Paul and his colleagues. Not by the original apostles who spent most of their time in Jerusalem (Act 8:1). This is the reason why all the letters( addressed to gentiles) written by Paul EXIST BEFORE the canonical gospels according to wikipedia.
The preaching of Peter to Cornelius and his households was an exception and one-time event. Peter’s initial response to thosegentiles was rejection (Acts 10: 25-28). We have no record that Peter evangelized another gentile. One incident does not constitute a ministry. In the book of Acts, we read plainly of Paul’stravels through Cyprus, Asia Minor, Greece and Italy. But the movement of the original apostles who ate and slept with Jesus is nowhere to be found. When Paul preached the gospel at Rome, where were Peter and other apostles?

Abdulgaffar22 :

There is no any verse in the Bible where God declare that " the entire Bible was inspired by Me".

then is it not a GREATER ACT OF INJUSTICE for God to condemn an innocent and righteous soul for the sins he did not commit ? Yes or No?

Do you know where you have gotten it wrong? ISLAM did not start with the arrival of Prophet Muhammad(pbuh) and Qur'an. The word Islam simply means "submission to the will and commandment of God" at any particular period of time. The people that submit to this will and commandment are called Muslims.This is the reason why it is convinient for us to say Abraham, Moses and the likes are Muslims.

Abdulgaffar,
1.If you do not believe that the Bible is inspired why quote from it to justify your arguments? After all, if it is corrupted then what makes you accept the portion you’re quoting as right or true?

2.God did not just pick any man on the road and decided to judge him for the sin of mankind. That is what would be UNJUST. But that is not what happened. Jesus Christ had the capacity to pay and voluntarily decided to pay for the sins of others. In other words, Jesus CHOSE to take the punishment for man’s sin. This is much like a man deciding to pay the fine imposed on another man because he has the capacity to do so. There can be said to be no injustice here; can there?

3.On the other hand, can a person today submit to the will and commandments of God ONLY without believing in Mohamed and still be a true Moslem?

Abdulgaffar22 :

QUESTION ONE:
QUESTION TWO
QUESTION THREE :
QUESTION FOUR:
QUESTION FIVE :
QUESTION SIX:
QUESTION SEVEN:

Q1 – You end up quoting ONLY part of the verse. Why do you do this? That is being DISHONEST! Is that an Islamic thing? Peter clearly went on here to say that God has SHOWN him that he should no longer discriminate.You conveniently left this out!

Q2 – God decided that James should directly address the 12 tribes here. Others like Peter in his epistle addressed all those scattered across a wider geographical spread. So, what is your headache here?

Q3 – Because the other judging will be left to others to do.

Q4 – Because there is nothing wrong in division of labour.

Q5 – I have shown you that Peter’s epistles were not only for Jews. John also wrote and it was not only for the Jews. John’s book of REVELATION was not only for Jews.

Q6 – If Paul repeatedly spoke of his area of competitive advantage why is that a problem for you? Since, God assigned him primarily for the Gentiles there was nothing wrong in stating this; is there? But it was CLEAR from Jesus’ “terms of reference” for him that he was NOT RESTRICTED to ONLY Gentiles (Acts 26:17). As a result, you will find that his first port of call in his missionary journeys was always Jewish synagogues. You seem to have missed this in your “study” of Paul.

Q7 – I have shown you that Peter’s, John’s and even Jude’s epistles showed that they reached out to all others. In addition, there is historical evidence that they preached beyond the Jews.

CONCLUSION – Your claim that Jesus was ONLY for the Jews simply holds no water. The Apostles all knew that their mission went beyond the Jews. Peter’s first preaching on the day of Pentecost clearly showed this. The Galatians reference YOU mentioned showed Peter in a clearly Gentile land. The epistles ALL without exception show no restriction of the preaching of Jesus’ gospel to ONLY the Jews. Any claim to the contrary can only be a figment of your imagination or Islamic gymnastic to fit a clearly established position into an Islamic narrative cooked up hundreds of year after the FACTS.

Mr plainbibletruth, so you believe that an INNOCENT AND BELOVED PROPHET OF GOD MUST BE PUT UNDER THE
CURSE (Galatians 3:13) OF THE SAME GOD for God to achieve a particular purpose that can achieved through another rational means? No problem! we shall see sooner or later!
please what do you have to say about the illustration below;
If you are ask to distribute a packet of sweet to
some children in your vicinity with an instruction
to start with the male children before the
female.Now one of the female children approach
you for the collection of her own sweet .Would
you say; " I WAS ONLY ASKED TO GIVE THE
MALE" or "It is not yet time for the female" ? Pls
be sincere with your self. Definitely you will say:
it is not yet time for the female or something
similar in meaning like " wait for your turn".
Similarly if it was already in the
divine plan that Jesus was the last prophet sent
to both the Jews and the gentiles to die for our
sins, then Jesus' statement directed to that
Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24 should have
been: IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES or
something similar in meaning rather than “I WAS
SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE
OF ISRAEL”. Why did Jesus have to say such a
statement if he was truly sent to the entire world
and if truly no one can come to the Father except
through him? Because he was yet to be crucified?
No! Because he was in hurry? No! Because he
was yet to receive the power from his Father? No!
Because he was yet to be resurrected? No!
Because he was yet to be ascended to heaven?
No! THINK VERY WELL. YOU WILL NOT FIND ANY
REASONABLE REASON WHY JESUS REFUSE TO
ANSWER THAT CANANITE WOMAN IN THE FIRST
INSTANCE OTHER THAN THE REASON
MENTIONED IN THE VERSE.
The fact that Jesus later answered that woman
(Matthew 15:28) help us to know that there was
no any strong reason preventingJesus from
attending to her in the first instance other than
the fact that Jesus and his apostles were sent
only to the Israelites.
Now compare this Biblical verse with this
Qur’anic verse; AND WE HAVE NOT SENT YOU (O
Muhammad-pbuh) EXCEPT AS A GIVER OF GLAD
TIDINGS AND AS A WARNER TO ALL MANKIND
(Qur’an 34:28). See how Bible categorically
declared that Jesus (pbuh) was sent only to the
Israelites and see how Qur’an declared that
Muhammad (pbuh) was sent to all mankind. It is
now left for you to decide.

Mr enilove;
You may be wonder about the reason why I have so much convinction about Islam. Let me quickly share one of these reasons with you; It is absolutely true that there are many REASONABLE verses in the Qur'an that appear to be coming DIRECTLY from God's mouth. Consider these two examples :
“O children of Israel! Remember My special favor which I bestowed upon you, and fulfill your covenant with Me as I fulfill My covenant with you, and fear none but Me. And believe in what I have sent down ( i:e this Qur’an) confirming that which is with you, and be not the first to reject it, nor sell My verses for a small price; and fear Me, and Me alone (Qur’an 2:40-41)”.
I made them not to witness the creation of the heavens and the earth and not (even) their own creation, nor was I to take the misleaders as helpers (Qur'an 18:51). You will agree with me that all the personal pronouns "I, Me, My etc" in these two verese can only be referred to God contextually. With this fact, we can say conviniently that the original author of Qur'an is either God or His impersonator?
Now let me ask you a question; can you allow your friend to impersonate you in order to deceive some innocent people? Definitely you will not allow him : if really you are a truthful and honest person.
If you as a truthful person would never allow your friend- talk less of your enemy- to impersonate you in order to deceive some innocent people, then why do you think the God Almighty, WHO IS MORE TRUTHFUL AND MORE HONEST THAN YOU, would allow such a thing to happen to Him especially when God declare as follows; how can I let myself to be defamed? I will not yield My glory to another (Isaiah 48:11). Please read those verses of Qur'an cited above again and again. Has God not let Himself to be defamed if He allowed a deliberate liar to impersonate Him in such a reasonable and perfect manner? Has God not yielded His glory to another if He allowed a deliberate liar to impersonate Him and also allow such impersonator to praise all the Biblical prophets in the way the author of Qur'an has done and then still allow the word of such impersonator to be safe-guarded from destruction since 1,439 years ago till today as exactly prophesied in Qur’an 15:9: “Surely, We have revealed the reminder ((i:e the Qur’an) and We will most surely be its guardian”.?In fact, God deliberately spare the life of His prophet till concluding verse of his mission was revealed to him where God Almighty declare as follows: This day, I have perfected your religion for you, and I have completed My favor upon you, and I have chosen for you Islam as your religion(Qur’an 5:3).
But if we assume that God Almighty, in His infinite wisdom, deliberately allowed the word of so-called impersonator to be protected from destruction in order to serve as a TEST for the true believers in one and only God, then God should have pre informed us and warned us about this great impersonator in the Bible just like Jesus talked about his own impersonators ;Take heed that no one deceives you. For many will come in my name, saying ‘I am the Christ’, and will deceive many (Matthew 24:4-5)”.See how Jesus declared in an unambiguous terms that many liars would impersonate him. However, you can never find a single biblical verse where God categorically inform us and foretell that a great liar is going to impersonate Him.
But instead of warning us and pre-informing us about the so-called liar that is going to impersonate Him, God only demonstrated to us, through His dealing with Hananiah (the false prophet who spoke in the name of God in the Bible), that He would never allow such a thing to happen for a long time; Then the prophet Jeremiah said to Hananiah the prophet, ‘Listen, Hananiah! The Lord has not sent you, yet you have persuaded this nation to trust in lies. Therefore this is what the Lord says: I am about to remove you from the face of the earth. This very year you are going to die, because you have preached rebellion against the Lord. In the seventh month of that same year, Hananiah the prophet died (Jeremiah 28:15-17).
You will notice that what happened to Hananiah (i:e untimely death) is exactly what God has already foretold about “a false prophet who impersonates and speaks in the name of God” as written in the book of Deuteronomy; But the prophet who presumes to speak a word in My name that I have not commanded him to speak, or who speaks in the name of other gods, THAT SAME PROPHET SHALL DIE (Deuteronomy 18:20).
Therefore, if God did not even allow Hananiah to live for just a year, then how could He have allowed the supposed author of Qur’an to impersonate Him and deliberately lie against Him for good 23 years? Please for the sake of God, have you ever consider this problem of God's impersonation before you left Islam for Christianity? Regarding this problem of God's impersonation, I swear by God Almighty, I still have a great testimony to give. But I decided not to share it publicly because of tough experience I went through due to my sturboness in not accepting the Quran as the word of God at first instance of my life even after many signs have been shown to me . But you can still get the smallest hint of this testimony from this verse:
We will show them Our Signs in the universe, and IN THEIR OWN SELVES, until it becomes manifest to them that this (the Quran) is the truth. Is it not sufficient in regard to your Lord that He is a Witness over all things? (Quran 41:53).
Please think very well, why would prophet Muhammad(pbuh) fabricate this kind of verse and put it inside his book if he did not have any divine calling? Don't you feel the confidence and authority in this very verse. Don't you see that the content of this verse is beyond the level of human way of expressing thought?

Abdulgaffar22 :

Why did Jesus have to say such a
statement if he was truly sent to the entire world

Abdulgaffar,
One grave error Moslems make when it comes to the Bible is to pick out single verses or even portions of a verse and then attempt to make it fit into their Islamic narrative without reference to the CONTEXT. Such approach does not make for an honest understanding of such passages.

I could start from the Old Testament to show you that God’s plan has always been universal. But lets me begin with the life of Jesus since your claim is that he was ONLY for the Jews.

1. When the child Jesus was presented for dedication at the temple, Simeon who performed the dedication said this through the Holy Spirit: “For my eyes have seen your salvation, which you have prepared in the sight of all people, a light for revelation TO THE GENTILES and for the glory to your people Israel” Luke 2:30-32. It is clear here that it is NOT ONLY Israel that he came for; isn’t it?

2. On one instance when John who baptized him saw Jesus coming toward him, he said: “Look, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world! John 1:29. Can it be any clearer that Jesus’ ministry included the entire world and not just Israel?

3. In John 8:12 Jesus said: “I am the LIGHT OF THE WORLD. Whoever follows me will never walk in darkness, but will have the light of life”.
4. Jesus himself said this: “This is what is written: The Christ will suffer and rise from the dead on the third day, and repentance and forgiveness of sins will be preached in his name TO ALL NATIONS, beginning at Jerusalem. Luke 24:46-47.

5. When he gave instructions to the followers on their mission it still a UNIVERSAL AGENDA: “Go and make disciples of all nations ….” Matthew 28:19. “You will be my witnesses in Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria, and to THE ENDS OF THE EARTH” Acts 1:8.

6. So, from his birth to his resurrection and ascension the mandate remained the same. Again, to what conclusion can we come? One simple one: Jesus came for and to ALL THE WORLD without exception.

Your quran made this statement: “… and (we wish) to appoint him (Jesus) as a sign unto men (mankind), and a mercy from us” Q. 19:21. If you refuse to accept the Bible portions I stated above, surely, you should accept this one from your quran. Shouldn’t you? This should clear all your doubts on the fact that Jesus came to provide SALVATION for all mankind irrespective of their geographical location or race.

"To ALL who receive him by believing in his name, he gives the right to become children of God" John 1:12

Op, all your 7 questions still amount to the same , but I will enlighten you so that you don't fall into the trap of the devil for eternity.

Answers to your questions :

You asked why Peter told Cornelius and his household that it is STILL not unlawful for him to visit the gentiles in Act 10:28.

This is the opposite of what Peter said :

Acts 10:28 KJV
And he said unto them, Ye know how that it is an unlawful thing for a man that is a Jew to keep company, or come unto one of another nation; BUT GOD HATH SHEWED ME THAT I SHOULD NIT CALL ANY MAN COMMON OR UNCLEAN.

Peter confirmed here that he was wrong after all by not wanting to associate with the gentiles despite the fact that he had preached to them to accept Jesus Christ as their saviour before .

It was Peter that first started the preaching of the Gospels to the gentiles :

Acts 2:1-12,14,37-39 KJV
And when the day of Pentecost was fully come, they were all with one accord in one place. [2] And suddenly there came a sound from heaven as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled all the house where they were sitting. [3] And there appeared unto them cloven tongues like as of fire, and it sat upon each of them. [4] And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance. [5] And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven. [6] Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language. [7] And they were all amazed and marvelled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galilaeans? [8] And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born? [9] Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites, and the dwellers in Mesopotamia, and in Judaea, and Cappadocia, in Pontus, and Asia, [10] Phrygia, and Pamphylia, in Egypt, and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene, and strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes, [11] Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God. [12] And they were all amazed, and were in doubt, saying one to another, What meaneth this? [14] But Peter, standing up with the eleven, lifted up his voice, and said unto them, Ye men of Judaea, and all ye that dwell at Jerusalem, be this known unto you, and hearken to my words: [37] Now when they heard this , they were pricked in their heart, and said unto Peter and to the rest of the apostles, Men and brethren, what shall we do? [38] Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost. [39] For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call.

2... The book of James was addressed to the Twelve tribes of Israel by James and the book of Peter was addressed to the Gentiles by Peter who was a Senior to James, which is an indication that God told them to preach to the gentiles as well as the Jews.
3., Apostles will judge their tribes and saints of other tribes will also sit with Jesus and judge their tribes as well .Rev 3:21.
4...The apostles did not limit their ministry Israel :

Acts 8:14-16 KJV
Now when the apostles which were at Jerusalem heard that Samaria had received the word of God, they sent unto them Peter and John: [15] Who, when they were come down, prayed for them, that they might receive the Holy Ghost: [16] (For as yet he was fallen upon none of them: only they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.)
5...All the letters or books of the new tastaments were not written by Paul. The books of Hebrew, James , Peter, John, Jude , acts , Mathew , mark , Luke John and Revelations were not written were written by the original apostles of Jesus ( 80%) and not Paul.
6,..Whatever and however Paul spoke is not as important as the facts written and recorded in the Bible.
7... You can read from the many scriptures that Peter did not preach only to the Jews , contrary to what you were made to understand.

LASTLY, GOD SAID THAT SALVATION WILL BE THROUGH ISAAC AND NOT ISHMAEL. JESUS ALSO CONFIRMED THIS .
THE RELIGION OF ISLAM IS A RELIGION OF THE DEVIL , DON'T DESTROY YOUR SOUL.

Abdulgaffar22:
Mr enilove;
You may
I made them not to witness the creation of the heavens and the earth and not (even) their own creation, nor was I to take the misleaders as helpers (Qur'an 18:51). You will agree with me that all the personal pronouns "I, Me, My etc" in these two verese can only be referred to God contextually. With this fact, we can say conviniently that the original author of Qur'an is either God or His impersonator?
Now let me ask you a question; can you allow your friend to impersonate you in order to deceive some innocent people? Definitely you will not allow him : if really you are a truthful and honest person.
If you as a truthful person would never allow your friend- talk less of your enemy- to impersonate you in order to deceive some innocent people, then why do you think the God Almighty, WHO IS MORE TRUTHFUL AND MORE HONEST THAN YOU, would allow such a thing to happen to Him especially when God declare as follows; how can I let myself to be defamed? I will not yield My glory to another (Isaiah 48:11). Please read those verses of Qur'an cited above again and again. Has God not let Himself to be defamed if He allowed a deliberate liar to impersonate Him in such a reasonable and perfect manner? Has God not yielded His glory to another if He allowed a deliberate liar to impersonate Him and also allow such impersonator to praise all the Biblical prophets in the way the author of Qur'an has done and then still allow the word of such impersonator to be safe-guarded from destruction since 1,439 years ago till today as exactly prophesied in Qur’an 15:9: “Surely, We have revealed the reminder ((i:e the Qur’an) and We will most surely be its guardian”.?In fact, God deliberately spare the life of His prophet till concluding verse of his mission was revealed to him where God Almighty declare as follows: This day, I have perfected your religion for you, and I have completed My favor upon you, and I have chosen for you Islam as your religion(Qur’an 5:3).
But if we assume that God Almighty, in His infinite wisdom, deliberately allowed the:
We will show them Our Signs in the universe, and IN THEIR OWN SELVES, until it becomes manifest to them that this (the Quran) is the truth. Is it not sufficient in regard to your Lord that He is a Witness over all things? (Quran 41:53).
Please think very well, why would prophet Muhammad(pbuh) fabricate this kind of verse and put it inside his book if he did not have any divine calling? Don't you feel the confidence and authority in this very verse. Don't you see that the content of this verse is beyond the level of human way of expressing thought?

God did not allow innocent people to be decurved or destroyed. The Arabs heard of the death of Jesus , they had Jews as friends and neighbours that were Christians , but they decide to continue to worship idols. If Satan had been deceiving them in the past and God did not kill those satanic priests , why would he kill a fake prophet who is one and the same with the satanic priests?
Why would a man not be able to differentiate between original and fake , between holiness and wickedness ? It is because they love to follow the wicked despite the characters of evils the person or persons are exhibiting as proofs.
The Bible says by their fruits you shall know them.

The evil deeds of Muhammad , like killing of innocent people, sexual immoralities , his death and how God wiped off his discendants ( children ) etc are enough evidences for you and others to know Islam and Muhammad are false . check this:

Volume 5, Book 59, Number 369:
Sahih Bukhari :
Narrated Jabir bin 'Abdullah:

Allah's Apostle said, "Who is willing to kill Ka'b bin Al-Ashraf who has hurt Allah and His Apostle?" Thereupon Muhammad bin Maslama got up saying, "O Allah's Apostle! Would you like that I kill him?" The Prophet said, "Yes," Muhammad bin Maslama said, "Then allow me to say a (false) thing (i.e. to deceive Kab). "The Prophet said, "You may say it." Then Muhammad bin Maslama went to Kab and said, "That man (i.e. Muhammad demands Sadaqa (i.e. Zakat) from us, and he has troubled us, and I have come to borrow something from you." On that, Kab said, "By Allah, you will get tired of him!" Muhammad bin Maslama said, "Now as we have followed him, we do not want to leave him unless and until we see how his end is going to be. Now we want you to lend us a camel load or two of food." (Some difference between narrators about a camel load or two.) Kab said, "Yes, (I will lend you), but you should mortgage something to me." Muhammad bin Mas-lama and his companion said, "What do you want?" Ka'b replied, "Mortgage your women to me." They said, "How can we mortgage our women to you and you are the most handsome of the 'Arabs?" Ka'b said, "Then mortgage your sons to me." They said, "How can we mortgage our sons to you? Later they would be abused by the people's saying that so-and-so has been mortgaged for a camel load of food. That would cause us great disgrace, but we will mortgage our arms to you." Muhammad bin Maslama and his companion promised Kab that Muhammad would return to him. He came to Kab at night along with Kab's foster brother, Abu Na'ila. Kab invited them to come into his fort, and then he went down to them. His wife asked him, "Where are you going at this time?" Kab replied, "None but Muhammad bin Maslama and my (foster) brother Abu Na'ila have come." His wife said, "I hear a voice as if dropping blood is from him, Ka'b said. "They are none but my brother Muhammad bin Maslama and my foster brother Abu Naila. A generous man should respond to a call at night even if invited to be killed." Muhammad bin Maslama went with two men. (Some narrators mention the men as 'Abu bin Jabr. Al Harith bin Aus and Abbad bin Bishr). So Muhammad bin Maslama went in together with two men, and sail to them, "When Ka'b comes, I will touch his hair and smell it, and when you see that I have got hold of his head, strip him. I will let you smell his head." Kab bin Al-Ashraf came down to them wrapped in his clothes, and diffusing perfume. Muhammad bin Maslama said. " have never smelt a better scent than this. Ka'b replied. "I have got the best 'Arab women who know how to use the high class of perfume." Muhammad bin Maslama requested Ka'b "Will you allow me to smell your head?" Ka'b said, "Yes." Muhammad smelt it and made his companions smell it as well. Then he requested Ka'b again, "Will you let me (smell your head)?" Ka'b said, "Yes." When Muhammad got a strong hold of him, he said (to his companions), "Get at him!" So they killed him and went to the Prophet and informed him. (Abu Rafi) was killed after Ka'b bin Al-Ashraf."

Abdulgaffar22:
■ God may allow His innocent and beloved prophet to suffer (i:e TO BE PHYSICALLY CONDEMNED) for one reason or the other[b]. But God would never "curse" ( i:e SPIRITUALLY CONDEMN) His innocent and beloved prophet for any reason whatsover.[/b]
■ Therefore, there is need for God to send another prophet to remove this negative and bad picture of God from the minds of the general humanity. This is one of the many reasons why Qur’an was revealed by God to Prophet Muhammad (pbuh). In the Holy Qur’an, God removed this negative and bad impression from the minds of the people by declaring that, in a miraculous way, Jesus escaped death on the cross (Qur’an 4:157-158). In this way, the "curse of God" associated with any one that is crucified and died on a cross according to the Jewish law (Galatians 3:13, Deuteronomy 21:23) was removed from the head of our beloved and innocent prophet called Jesus Christ (peace be upon him). This is exactly in line with the prayer of Jesus to God in the garden of Gethsemane when he asked for this “cup of condemnation” to be taken away from him in THREE consecutive times as stated clearly in Matthew 26:36-44. Therefore, an illogical and contradictory concept of "a merciful and omnipotent Father who could not see any other way of saving those who sincerely believe in Him except to condemn and curse His innocent and beloved son on the cross" is completely far away from the truth.

This naive conclusion of yours reveals you don't know the God of Israel at all, nor are you versed in the details of His Law of Moses, let alone His New Law Jesus Christ.


1. The Law makes no such special provisions for prophets as the one you claim. If you read the book of Numbers, you will find that the God of Israel cursed Mariam, a confirmed prophet for running her mouth. God of Israel also demanded that all prophets who resorted to spewing lies using His name be put to death. Clearly, you need to go and read up on the details of the Law of Moses before you continue rambling.

2. The only negative and bad picture here is one drawn from your blatant ignorance of who the God of Israel is. Jesus Christ was sent to usher in the end for the nation of Israel(and Judah), the final judgment of God of Israel under His Old Law against the people of Isreal, the unleashing of the many curses defined in the Law— Deuteronomy 28 vs 15 through to Deuteronomy 30 vs 1 - 6 — by the God of Israel on the people of Israel. Yes, the God of Israel finally cursed and scattered His people, Israel, to all the ends of the earth by His design about 1900 years ago

To be a redeemer to those Lost of Israel, those condemned by God to the curse of the Old Law, Jesus Christ had to prove that no curse could hold Him down not even death. And so Jesus Christ too came into the world cursed — Genesis 3 vs 16, the curse on all born into this world through a woman, a cursed processed —, endured God's other curses on man — Genesis 3 vs 17- 24, including the curse on all who were hung on a tree to die, and prevailed over them all. None of the curses, not even death could hold Him back. He proved Himself worthy of being the redeemer of those cursed of Israel, and the Shepherd sent to gather them back to God. So, this spin of yours, an attempt to inject your Mohammed—disconnected from the people of Israel and the actual happenings —screams of desperation on your part to make your religion of relevance to the people of Israel when it does no such.

Abdulgaffar22:
All the Christian denominations including the Jehovah witnesses believe that Jesus suffer and died for our sins on the cross ( or on the stake). But what is the actual meaning of the statement: "Jesus suffer and died for our sins" ? The meaning of this statement can only be understood in two ways. It is either Jesus suffer and died on the cross so that we can have access to divine forgiveness for our sins- OR-Jesus suffer and died on the cross to remove our sinful nature so that we can have immunity against committing sins. However, complete removal of humanity sinful nature is impossible as nobody can be completely free from committing minor sins. Bible also attests to this fact; "If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us( 1John 1:7-9)
Therefore, the statement: "Jesus suffer and died for our sins" can only have a conceivable meaning if Jesus suffer and died on the cross so that we can have access to divine forgiveness for our sins.
But why MUST Jesus suffer and die on the cross before God can forgive our sins? If it is an act of injustice for God to freely forgive our sins, then is it not a GREATER ACT OF INJUSTICE for God to condemn an innocent and righteous soul for the sins he did not commit ?
Besides, Bible make it clear that any one that is crucified is accursed by God ( Galatians 3:13). How then are we to conceive a merciful and omnipotent God putting His BELOVED prophet under His CURSE when God of course knew that Jesus never did anything wrong?
If God is All-powerful and All-knowing Creator which ( therefore) cannot be compelled to follow one particular way, then He must have chosen at least one rational way to forgive our sins and earn our salvation . God Almighty must have set aside any irrational way that will later require Him to curse and condemn His innocent and beloved prophet for something that can be achieved through another means. Yes, one of the rational means which God has chosen to forgive our sins and earn our salvation is SINCERE REPENTANCE from our sinful acts : “Son of man, say to the Israelites; this is what you are saying: our offenses and sins weigh us down, and we are wasting away because of them. How then can we live? Say to them: as surely as I live declares the sovereign Lord, I take no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but rather that they turn from their ways and live. Turn! TURN FROM YOUR EVIL WAYS! Why will you die, people of Israel? Therefore, son of man say to your people… if someone, one who is wicked, REPENTS, that person’s former wickedness will not bring condemnation… And if I say to the wicked person, you will surely die, but they then TURN FROM THEIR SINS and do what is just and right…follow the decree that gives life, and do no evil--THAT PERSON WILL SURELY LIVE :THEY WILL NOT DIE. NONE OF THE SINS that person has committed will be remembered against them.They have done what is just and right; they will surely live (Ezekiel 33:10-16)" . Did God ask the wicked sinners to believe in Jesus crucifixion before their sins can be forgiven (or before they can live) in all these verses? What He actually wants from them is sincere repentance from their sinful ways. Qur'an also pass the same message: O you who believe! Turn to Allah with SINCERE REPENTANCE! It may be that your Lord will REMIT FROM YOU YOUR SINS, and admit you into Gardens under which rivers flow (Qur'an 66:7-9)
Another rational way that God has chosen in the past for the people to achieve divine forgiveness of sins is through animal sacrifice. Leviticus 16:21-30 says as follow: "the GOAT will carry on itself ALL THE SINS of Israelites to a remote place and the man shall release the goat in the wilderness..... Then before the LORD, you will be CLEAN FROM ALL YOUR SINS”. Please is there any indication in these verses that the sins of Israelites were only "cover" and not completely taken away? God says; “Then before the LORD, you will be CLEAN FROM ALL YOUR SINS”. Yet the New Testament proclaimed that it is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sin (Hebrew 10:4). This is another great lie that was fabricated to justify the doctrine of sin atonement through Jesus crucifixion.
If God can truly atone for our sins through animal sacrifice as the verses in the book of Leviticus quoted above affirm, then is there any need again for God to shed the blood of innocent human being on the cross ?
Therefore, if divine forgiveness for our sins is what we really need to gain eternal life, then the death of Jesus on the cross IS NOT NECCESSARY; God can decide to forgive our sins through sincere repentance or through animal sacrifice as He has done with the people that lived and died before Jesus arrival. These two ways are far more better than that irrational way which will later require God Almighty to condemn and curse His innocent and beloved prophet for something that can be acheived through another rational means.
Some Christians might want to argue that Jesus crucifixion make them entitle to many spiritual benefits that GO BEYOND achieving divine forgiveness for our sins. But no matter how numerous the spiritual benefits that can be derived from Jesus crucifixion, there is no way for such benefits to be ACTUALIZED in the life of the Old Testament prophets (like Abraham, Isaac, Jacob,Moses, Isaiah, Jeremiah etc) because they have lived and died before Jesus arrival talkless of his supposed crucifixion. Yet these people manage to earn their salvation and reconcilation back to God (because there is no any biblical verse that says these Old Testament Prophets were in a certain state of condemnation after their death until the time of Jesus crucifixion). So if these old testament prophets, who happened to be among the children of Adam, were able to gain their salvation without Jesus crucifixion, then there is alternative way also for the other children of Adam to gain their salvation without Jesus crucifixion. Therefore, the Christian doctrine which says that: "All powerful and All merciful God must condemn and curse His innocent and beloved son on the cross before the children of Adam can earn their salvation" is FALSE.
The falsehood behind this doctrine will become more clear to you when you consider the following premises of argument. You will see that the frequently-quoted verse( His ways are not our ways, His thoughts are not our thoughts—they are higher than ours-Isaiah 55:8 ) that Christians always use to justify this irrational doctrine cannot work this time around. It would only work if the Christians can believe that God Almighty can decide to choose a way of doing something that will later require Him to commit an act of lying . Now read the following six premises of argument and indicate with reason any one that is wrong.
PREMISE 1: As part of our concept about God; God is naturally known to ALWAYS SPEAK THE TRUTH just like God is naturally known to ALWAYS SANCTIFY( i:e to endorse and bless spiritually ) HIS INNOCENT AND BELOVED PROPHETS.
PREMISE 2: Therefore, for any reason whatsoever, it is IMPOSSIBLE FOR GOD TO SPEAK A LIE just like it is IMPOSSIBLE FOR GOD TO CURSE (i:e to condemn spiritually ) HIS INNOCENT AND BELOVED PROPHETS
PREMISE 3: Consequently, if there is a religious faith which proclaims that GOD MUST SPEAK A LIE at a particular period of time in order to execute a plan designed by God Himself, then that religious faith must be false.
PREMISE 4 : Similarly, if there is religious faith which proclaims that GOD MUST CURSE( i:e to condemn spiritually) HIS INNOCENT AND BELOVED PROPHET at a particular period of time in order to execute a plan designed by God Himself, then that religious faith must also be false.
PREMISE 5 : But Christianity is a religious faith which proclaim that AN INNOCENT AND BELOVED PROPHET OF GOD (i:e Jesus Christ) MUST BE PUT UNDER THE CURSE OF THE SAME GOD ( see Deuteronomy 21:23, Galatians 3:13) before God can execute a plan He personally designed to save those who believe in Him.
PREMISE 6: Therefore, Christianity must be false.

God may allow His innocent and beloved prophet to suffer (i:e TO BE PHYSICALLY CONDEMNED) for one reason or the other. But God would never "curse" ( i:e SPIRITUALLY CONDEMN) His innocent and beloved prophet for any reason whatsover. Therefore, there is need for God to send another prophet to remove this negative and bad picture of God from the minds of the general humanity. This is one of the many reasons why Qur’an was revealed by God to Prophet Muhammad (pbuh). In the Holy Qur’an, God removed this negative and bad impression from the minds of the people by declaring that, in a miraculous way, Jesus escaped death on the cross (Qur’an 4:157-158). In this way, the "curse of God" associated with any one that is crucified and died on a cross according to the Jewish law (Galatians 3:13, Deuteronomy 21:23) was removed from the head of our beloved and innocent prophet called Jesus Christ (peace be upon him). This is exactly in line with the prayer of Jesus to God in the garden of Gethsemane when he asked for this “cup of condemnation” to be taken away from him in THREE consecutive times as stated clearly in Matthew 26:36-44. Therefore, an illogical and contradictory concept of "a merciful and omnipotent Father who could not see any other way of saving those who sincerely believe in Him except to condemn and curse His innocent and beloved son on the cross" is completely far away from the truth.

Your argument is logical but what do you suppose the Bible and Christianity does not agree with your position and Islam?

plainbibletruth:
Abdulgaffar,
One grave error Moslems make when it comes to the Bible is to pick out single verses or even portions of a verse and then attempt to make it fit into their Islamic narrative without reference to the CONTEXT. Such approach does not make for an honest understanding of such passages.

That is pretty much what Christians do. They pick a single verse and then proceed to formulate a meaning for what is contained different the original message intended by the author and the particular context.