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Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? - Religion - Nairaland

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Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by Akhenaten: 6:10am On Jan 06, 2011
Why does God refer to Himself in the plural in Genesis 1:26 and 3:22?

Genesis 1:26 says, “Then God said, 'Let us make man in our image, in our likeness, and let them rule over the fish of the sea and the birds of the air, over the livestock, over all the earth, and over all the creatures that move along the ground.'” Genesis 3:22 states, "And the LORD God said, 'The man has now become like one of us, '"

What is this scripture suppose to mean? These passages has always confused me and frightened me at the same time. What does Genesis mean by "our image?" I thought there was only one God. What could this possible mean? Let us discuss this in detail.
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by biggy87: 7:19am On Jan 06, 2011
Let Us: The father, Son and the Holy Spirit, are three different personalities but one God. So God the father said to the Son and Holy Spirit, Let Us make man in our own image,
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by Image123(m): 8:12am On Jan 06, 2011
Because He's the God the three in One. It's a mix of seniority and plurality. He is most senior, yet 3 distinct One. Like in many languages, we use the plural pronoun for the elder.
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by OLAADEGBU(m): 11:36am On Jan 06, 2011
Image123:

Because He's the God the three in One. It's a mix of seniority and plurality. He is most senior, yet 3 distinct One. Like in many languages, we use the plural pronoun for the elder.

I think I need to brush up on my Yoruba.  Can you please tell me how an elder refers to himself in the plural in Yoruba? I thought we have a saying that "enikan ki nje 'awa de'"

Happy New Year to you. wink
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by Joagbaje(m): 12:28pm On Jan 06, 2011
The plurality and repect is revealed in the name Elohim. But the word "us" or "our" was not in the original manuscript.

1 Like

Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by OLAADEGBU(m): 12:52pm On Jan 06, 2011
Joagbaje:

The plurality and repect is revealed in the name Elohim. But the word "us" or "our" was not in the original manuscript.

Can you tell us what was in the original manuscript?

Happy New Year to you.
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by OLAADEGBU(m): 1:09pm On Jan 06, 2011
"And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth" -- Genesis 1:26

This is what a reputable bible commentary said about the verse above:

God is, as it were, taking counsel here with Himself, not with angels, since man was to be made in the image of God, not of angels. “Our image,” therefore, implies human likeness to the triune Godhead. Plants possess a body, and animals a body and consciousness. Man was not only to have a body (of the created “earth”) and a consciousness (of the created “soul”), but man was also to possess a third created entity, the image of God, an eternal spirit capable of communion and fellowship with his Creator.

Man was not only created in God’s spiritual image; he was also made in God’s physical image. His body was specifically planned to be most suited for the divine fellowship (erect posture, upward-gazing countenance, facial expressions varying with emotional feelings, brain and tongue designed for articulate symbolic speech–none of which are shared by the animals). Furthermore, his body was designed to be like the body which God had planned from eternity that He Himself would one day assume (I Peter 1:20).

You can see here as God is a Triune God He has made man a tripartite being in readiness for Him to assume when He steps out of eternity into this three dimensional universe.
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by Joagbaje(m): 1:34pm On Jan 06, 2011
OLAADEGBU:

Can you tell us what was in the original manuscript?
Happy New Year to you.

Happy new year sir.

My point is , the original manuscript were a little hard to read and the translators had to add few things to bridge the missing gap.

The direct Hebrew will downed like this, "God said make man image" the other words in-between were not in the Hebrew text.

The other side of the problem is the arrangement of words. (Syntax) Hebrew and Greek has the noun first and adjective come next but English adjective comes first .for example English will say . "WHITE HOUSE"
French will say "MAISON BLANCHE" or HOUSE WHITE in direct translation. Where English bible says "GOD IS A SPIRIT" The original manustrict says "SPIRIT IS GOD " something like that. Yoruba language seem to be close to these old languages "EMÍ NI OLORUN" spirit is what God is.
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by OLAADEGBU(m): 2:34pm On Jan 06, 2011
Joagbaje:

Happy new year sir.

My point is , the original manuscript were a little hard to read and the translators had to add few things to bridge the missing gap.

The direct Hebrew will downed like this, "God said make man image" the other words in-between were not in the Hebrew text.

The other side of the problem is the arrangement of words. (Syntax) Hebrew and Greek has the noun first and adjective come next but English adjective comes first .for example English will say . "WHITE HOUSE"
French will say "MAISON BLANCHE" or HOUSE WHITE in direct translation. Where English bible says "GOD IS A SPIRIT" The original manustrict says "SPIRIT IS GOD " something like that. Yoruba language seem to be close to these old languages "EMÍ NI OLORUN" spirit is what God is.

Is this what you believe or it is what you studied? Do you care to show us your source if it is anything to go by?
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by Joagbaje(m): 2:52pm On Jan 06, 2011
I did some studies years ago. But a quick one , if you use a heberew /Greek bible the words that are in the original text will have strongs heberew/greek number.
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by OLAADEGBU(m): 2:56pm On Jan 06, 2011
Joagbaje:

I did some studies years ago. But a quick one , if you use a heberew /Greek bible the words that are in the original text will have strongs heberew/greek number.

It depends on what your source is if you don't mind sharing. Below is an excerpt from another reputable bible commentator:

From the foregoing it is clear that the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost are three distinct Persons, co-eternal, co-existent and co-equal in power and divine attributes that make each God. The word “GOD” in Genesis 1:1 means Elohim and in Hebrew language this is the plural of El (The Strong One). “Elohini’ (The Strong Ones) appear more than 2,700 times in the Old Testament and this plurality is seen in: “Let Us make man in OUR image, after OUR likeness”; “The LORD said , let US go down, and there confound their language” (Genesis 1:26; 3:22; 11:6,7; John 14:23; Psalm2:3). The Godhead is also referred to as the Holy Trinity (Romans 1:20).

The unity of the Godhead is scripturally evidenced in the execution of all divine plans and purposes. At creation, a significant fact about the Godhead emerged with the use of the plural noun “us”, by God Himself (Genesis 1:26). Elementarily, this implies the involvement of more than one personality in the creation of man. The same word continued to recur first, after the fall of man (Genesis 3:22), and on the threshold of God’s perfect desire to curb the foolish excesses of man, by wisely confounding him with diverse languages (Genesis 11:7).
The testimony of scriptures on the ministry of the Lord Jesus Christ reveals the perfect unity of the Godhead. It was God’s anointing and the Power of the Holy Ghost that enabled Jesus to fulfil His ministry (Acts 10:38).
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by mazaje(m): 3:52pm On Jan 06, 2011
The reason is because the Jews that wrote the genesis creation account were poly theist. . .Elohim means Gods. . .Forget about the BIG LIE Christians are telling you about father, the the son and the holy spirit. . .There is nothing like, the father, the son and the holy spirit in any part of the OT, Jew today do not believe in any part of the Christian claim of the father, son and holy spirit. . . . .The ancient Jews were NOT monotheist, monotheism gradually evolved into their religion.
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by OLAADEGBU(m): 4:14pm On Jan 06, 2011
mazaje:

The reason is because the Jews that wrote the genesis creation account were poly theist. . .Elohim means Gods. . .Forget about the BIG LIE Christians are telling you about father, the the son and the holy spirit. . .There is nothing like, the father, the son and the holy spirit in any part of the OT, Jew today do not believe in any part of the Christian claim of the father, son and holy spirit. . . . .The ancient Jews were NOT monotheist, monotheism gradually evolved into their religion.

Happy New Year my old friend. Would you care to share notes with us, what are your sources?
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by Kay17: 4:33pm On Jan 06, 2011
mazaje:

The reason is because the Jews that wrote the genesis creation account were poly theist. . .Elohim means Gods. . .Forget about the BIG LIE Christians are telling you about father, the the son and the holy spirit. . .There is nothing like, the father, the son and the holy spirit in any part of the OT, Jew today do not believe in any part of the Christian claim of the father, son and holy spirit. . . . .The ancient Jews were NOT monotheist, monotheism gradually evolved into their religion.


I still see Christianity as a polytheist religion, so many saints, angels, guardians, popes each demand as much reverence as others.
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by Mudley313: 4:34pm On Jan 06, 2011
this is connected to the word used for god in genesis in the hebrew: אלהים , which is plural. in one of the threads that was woven together to make up genesis, there is "el" - god - and "elohim" - gods. the elohim were the ones referred to in "let us create man in our own image". later on, when the jews became fiercely monotheist, they claimed that "elohim" was really a respectful plural and there was actually only one god. but their own grammar shows that at one time el was not the only god, but the chief god of several.

genesis is very duotheistic, while later scriptures written or rewritten by the judaean priests of yahweh is generally monotheistic. the old testament is a conglomeration of scriptures from several different religions, which is why there are so many contradictions. i think it's ridiculous when people say that's a reference to the trinity when that's from the jewish text, which didn't have the idea of the trinity at all

like mazaje rightly pointed out above, the Hebrew religion was not always monotheistic. there was a time when yahweh was just one of several gods worshiped.

OLAADEGBU:
Would you care to share notes with us, what are your sources?
source:
http://www.gnosticliberationfront.com/what_was_the_ancient_hebrew_religion.htm
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by mazaje(m): 6:24pm On Jan 06, 2011
OLAADEGBU:

Happy New Year my old friend. Would you care to share notes with us, what are your sources?

Happy new year to you my friend. . .I will send the sources to you later. . .Enjoy your time out there. . .
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by Image123(m): 6:50pm On Jan 06, 2011
OLAADEGBU:

I think I need to brush up on my Yoruba.  Can you please tell me how an elder refers to himself in the plural in Yoruba? I thought we have a saying that "enikan ki nje 'awa de'"

Happy New Year to you. wink
Oga mi, happy new year o! I said many languages, but thankfully sha i can help with the yoruba brush-up. I can tell two young people "e ma bo" i.e come. Same thing i'll tell elder "e ma bo". That's what i had in mind.
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by OLAADEGBU(m): 7:52pm On Jan 07, 2011
Mudley313:

this is connected to the word used for god in genesis in the hebrew: אלהים , which is plural. in one of the threads that was woven together to make up genesis, there is "el" - god - and "elohim" - gods. the elohim were the ones referred to in "let us create man in our own image". later on, when the jews became fiercely monotheist, they claimed that "elohim" was really a respectful plural and there was actually only one god. but their own grammar shows that at one time el was not the only god, but the chief god of several.

genesis is very duotheistic, while later scriptures written or rewritten by the judaean priests of yahweh is generally monotheistic. the old testament is a conglomeration of scriptures from several different religions, which is why there are so many contradictions. i think it's ridiculous when people say that's a reference to the trinity when that's from the jewish text, which didn't have the idea of the trinity at all

like mazaje rightly pointed out above, the Hebrew religion was not always monotheistic. there was a time when yahweh was just one of several gods worshiped.
source:
http://www.gnosticliberationfront.com/what_was_the_ancient_hebrew_religion.htm

Gnostic, Talmud? The name of the link tells me where most of you are getting your facts mixed up.
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by OLAADEGBU(m): 7:54pm On Jan 07, 2011
mazaje:

Happy new year to you my friend. . .I will send the sources to you later. . .Enjoy your time out there. . .

Who's your friend, my friend!? angry grin  Are your sources also gnostic based?
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by OLAADEGBU(m): 7:58pm On Jan 07, 2011
Image123:

Oga mi, happy new year o! I said many languages, but thankfully sha i can help with the yoruba brush-up. I can tell two young people "e ma bo" i.e come. Same thing i'll tell elder "e ma bo". That's what i had in mind.

What about the youngster saying: emi ni mo so bee, that is: It is me that said it, can the elderly man say: awa l'a so bee?
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by Image123(m): 12:26am On Jan 08, 2011
^
Well, maybe. In a 'cocky' context.
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by Ndipe(m): 1:14am On Jan 08, 2011
mazaje:

The reason is because the Jews that wrote the genesis creation account were poly theist. . .Elohim means Gods. . .Forget about the BIG LIE Christians are telling you about father, the the son and the holy spirit. . .There is nothing like, the father, the son and the holy spirit in any part of the OT, Jew today do not believe in any part of the Christian claim of the father, son and holy spirit. . . . .The ancient Jews were NOT monotheist, monotheism gradually evolved into their religion.



Do not cast me from your presence or take your[b] Holy Spirit[/b] from me. – (Psalm 51:11)

That's the utterances of King David, of the Old Testament to God Almighty when he was rebuked for his illicit affair with Bathsheba.
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by Image123(m): 1:42am On Jan 08, 2011
mazaje:

The reason is because the Jews that wrote the genesis creation account were poly theist. . .Elohim means Gods. . .Forget about the BIG LIE Christians are telling you about father, the the son and the holy spirit. . .There is nothing like, the father, the son and the holy spirit in any part of the OT, Jew today do not believe in any part of the Christian claim of the father, son and holy spirit. . . . .The ancient Jews were NOT monotheist, monotheism gradually evolved into their religion.


And there's nothing like law of gravity, or Newton's law of motion when Jesus and John baptist were here. Ignorance is not an excuse.
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by Sweetnecta: 1:59am On Jan 08, 2011
@Biggy87: « #1 on: January 06, 2011, 07:19 AM »
[Quote]Let Us: The father, Son and the Holy Spirit, are three different personalities but one God. So God the father said to the Son and Holy Spirit, Let Us make man in our own image,[/Quote]The bold convoluted the issue; 3 personalities but 1 God? How about the more logical straight forward 3 personalities as 3 Gods? Let wait to read what the other 2 responded to the statement of the 1 Who spoke. If they are silent, they were not in existence, making the idea that they existed with the Speaker a fluke.



@Image123 (m)
[Quote]In Christ (who is) the Son of God who died for the redemption of sinners and resurrected after 3days. This is the greatest truth in the universe[/Quote]Evidences of being a son in a special way, death, redemption, resurrection, etc? Can you calculate 3 days from beginning tot he end, especially when 3 days and 3 nights were expected? Those who resurrect are always in spirit according to Jesus, they have no body.



[Quote]« #2 on: January 06, 2011, 08:12 AM »

Because He's the God the three in One. It's a mix of seniority and plurality. He is most senior, yet 3 distinct One. Like in many languages, we use the plural pronoun for the elder.[/Quote]So God created other Gods; son and ghost, or he didnt? If He did, then son and ghost were really not God[s] for there is Only One Absolute God. If He didnt, how is He Absolute, since He now has partners? That will make those who worship Him, sorry them polytheists. If the former is the condition, those who say the others were not created by Him are bastphemers.



@OLAADEGBU (m) « #3 on: January 06, 2011, 11:36 AM »
[Quote]Quote from: Image123 on January 06, 2011, 08:12 AM
Because He's the God the three in One. It's a mix of seniority and plurality. He is most senior, yet 3 distinct One. Like in many languages, we use the plural pronoun for the elder.

I think I need to brush up on my Yoruba.  Can you please tell me how an elder refers to himself in the plural in Yoruba? I thought we have a saying that "enikan ki nje 'awa de'"[/Quote]You live in the UK, so ask Englishmen/Britishers what is 'Majesty or royal pronoun'. The Obas of yoruba land use the same thing when they address their subjects. You seem not to have heard it before. It is similar to ki nton lara omo oba ko ma ku dansaki. If a kind ever speak with you in his court/palace, you will hear him say "awa" for himself. Oni of Ife, Aderemi used it for himself. So is the present Oni, Sijuade. Blue blood is always blue blood. But them Oko iyawo can use "awa" when he is talking to his wife. Olowo Oloro Olola can use that in the mist of his subjects, workers.



[quote]« #6 on: January 06, 2011, 01:09 PM »

"And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth" -- Genesis 1:26[/Quote]Which one of the 3 does man "Adam" looked like? Later we see Jesus looking like every normal man. Funny how in the 2 genealogies of Jesus, neither included the "assumed" father in heaven in the list of fathers. How real is that. Imagine that!



[quote]This is what a reputable bible commentary said about the verse above:

Quote
God is, as it were, taking counsel here with Himself, not with angels, since man was to be made in the image of God, not of angels. “Our image,” therefore, implies human likeness to the triune Godhead.  Plants possess a body, and animals a body and consciousness.  Man was not only to have a body (of the created “earth”) and a consciousness (of the created “soul”), but man was also to possess a third created entity, the image of God, an eternal spirit capable of communion and fellowship with his Creator.[/Quote]While singular form is used in the first, I ask in the second what is the "image of God"?



[Quote]Man was not only created in God’s spiritual image; he was also made in God’s physical image.  His body was specifically planned to be most suited for the divine fellowship (erect posture, upward-gazing countenance, facial expressions varying with emotional feelings, brain and tongue designed for articulate symbolic speech–none of which are shared by the animals). Furthermore, his body was designed to be like the body which God had planned from eternity that He Himself would one day assume (I Peter 1:20).[/Quote]I read the bold thinking there is sense in it, until I the worse below it, making God Almighty exactly a man! This is sad, especially when the Bible declares no eyes have ever seen God Almighty before. I remember a christian arguing that God is a spirit, yet here above, He suddenly became physical with facial expression!



[Quote]You can see here as God is a Triune God He has made man a tripartite being in readiness for Him to assume when He steps out of eternity into this three dimensional universe.[/Quote]I dont know what to say anymore, since Olaadegbu worsens the situation, each time he writes. Why would God Almighty wanna come to the 3 dimensional realm He created for His creations?
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by Sweetnecta: 2:08am On Jan 08, 2011
@Ndipe: « #21 on: Today at 01:14:48 AM »
[Quote]Quote from: mazaje on January 06, 2011, 03:52 PM
The reason is because the Jews that wrote the genesis creation account were poly theist. . .Elohim means Gods. . .Forget about the BIG LIE Christians are telling you about father, the the son and the holy spirit. . .There is nothing like, the father, the son and the holy spirit in any part of the OT, Jew today do not believe in any part of the Christian claim of the father, son and holy spirit. . . . .The ancient Jews were NOT monotheist, monotheism gradually evolved into their religion.

Do not cast me from your presence or take your Holy Spirit from me. – (Psalm 51:11)

That's the utterances of King David, of the Old Testament to God Almighty when he was rebuked for his illicit affair with Bathsheba.[/Quote]From the look of it, we see just 2 entities, which kills of trinity. But I summit to you that holy spirit is nothing but an errant entity, which from you can from the bold that it is God Almighty Who determines where and what holy spirit will do, etc, without any option or opinion after that.
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by Image123(m): 4:26am On Jan 08, 2011
Oh my God, will i ever completely understand this necta's english?
Evidences of being a son in a special way, death, redemption, resurrection, etc? Can you calculate 3days from beginning tot he end, especially when 3 days and 3 nights were expected? Those who resurrect are always in spirit according to Jesus, they have no body.
Jesus is the only begotten Son of God able to redeem us all to God. He did not tell you to expect 3days and 3nights. The result of the resurrection will still be the same If He used just 3hours in the grave or 3months.
Come to think of it. In yoruba, they say 'ijeta'. That's day before yesterday, which is directly translated 3days ago. It's not a compulsory 72hours ago.
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by Joagbaje(m): 8:47am On Jan 08, 2011
@sweetnecta
Which one of the 3 does man "Adam" looked like? Later we see Jesus looking like every normal man. Funny how in the 2 genealogies of Jesus, neither included the "assumed" father in heaven in the list of fathers. [/b]How real is that. Imagine that!

[b]Luke 3:38

38 Which was[ the son] of Enos, which was[ the son] of Seth, which was[the son] of[b] Adam, which was[ the son] of God[/b].
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by OLAADEGBU(m): 1:24pm On Jan 18, 2011
The Trinity In Creation

"In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth. And the earth was without form, and void; and darkness was upon the face of the deep. And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters. And God said, Let there be light: and there was light" (Genesis 1:1–3).

These incomparable words open God’s written revelation to man, telling us how our Time/Space/Matter universe came to exist.  No other religious writings, ancient or modern, do this.  All others begin with the assumption of an eternal, self-existing universe.  The truth is, however, that the eternal, self-existing, transcendent, omnipotent Triune God simply called the universe into being by His word.  "By the word of the LORD were the heavens made. . . . For He spake, and it was done" (Psalm 33:6,9).

The Hebrew for "God" is the uni-plural Elohim, a plural noun (as noted by the “im” ending), yet normally represented by a singular pronoun "He." This is the first foreshadowing of the marvelous doctrine of the Trinity—only one Creator God, yet functioning as three divine Persons.  It is significant that His created universe is actually a tri-universe, with each of its distinct components (“beginning” = time; “heaven” = space; “earth” = matter) comprising and pervading the whole universe.  Just as the Father is the source and background of all being, so space is the background of all that happens in the physical universe.  Just as the Son manifests and speaks for the Father, so matter manifests and functions in space.  Just as the Spirit interprets and energizes the Son and the Father in human experience, so space and matter are interpreted and experienced in phenomena operating in time.

The Father planned the work of creation, the Son did the work (“all things were made by Him”—John 1:3), and the Spirit energized it ("the Spirit of God moved").  The Triune God created and now sustains our tri-universe! HMM
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by Nobody: 5:53am On Jan 19, 2011
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by OLAADEGBU(m): 8:05pm On Jan 19, 2011
ROSSIKE:

THIS IS WHY GENESIS DESCRIBES ''GOD'' IN THE PLURAL.

http:// www.youtube. com/watch?v=FF3yBd9dtyg

http://www.youtube.com/ watch?v=tHbj_mSZAzU&feature= related

You are entitled to and responsible for your beliefs.
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by Nobody: 9:05pm On Jan 19, 2011
It's not about ''beliefs''. It is a FACT. The Book of Genesis is a straight rip off of the much older Sumerian Creation Epics, in which the Sumerians stated that man was created by the Annunaki race of beings who came from the sky, and whom they considered to be 'gods', owing to their advanced technology.

Man, they wrote, was created by melding the genes of earth hominids with the genes of the alien Annunaki.

The Bible ''God'', Yahweh, is NOT God the ''Creator of the universe'', but rather, a mortal leader of one of the Annunaki bands of alien visitors to earth. He is most likely DEAD by now considering how long ago all this occurred.

It is the fact that the Annunaki were a band of individuals as opposed to a single ''God'' that accounts for the passage in Genesis stating ''Let us create man in our image'', ie the image of the Annunaki gods, whom we call Orisha, Alusi etc in Nigeria.

Virtually every African ethnic group has a creation story in which man was created by a race of powerful beings who came from the sky.
Re: Why Does God Refer To Himself In The Plural In Genesis 1:26 And 3:22? by OLAADEGBU(m): 6:49pm On Jan 20, 2011
ROSSIKE:

It's not about ''beliefs''. It is a FACT. The Book of Genesis is a straight rip off of the much older Sumerian Creation Epics, in which the Sumerians stated that man was created by the Annunaki race of beings who came from the sky, and whom they considered to be 'gods', owing to their advanced technology.

Man, they wrote, was created by melding the genes of earth hominids with the genes of the alien Annunaki.

The Bible ''God'', Yahweh, is NOT God the ''Creator of the universe'', but rather, a mortal leader of one of the Annunaki bands of alien visitors to earth. He is most likely DEAD by now considering how long ago all this occurred.

It is the fact that the Annunaki were a band of individuals as opposed to a single ''God'' that accounts for the passage in Genesis stating ''Let us create man in our image'', ie the image of the Annunaki gods, whom we call Orisha, Alusi etc in Nigeria.

Virtually every African ethnic group has a creation story in which man was created by a race of powerful beings who came from the sky.

Facts according to who? You are not only entitled to your beliefs you are also going to be responsible for it. Your authorities according to your links tells me where your are coming from. You take your authority from sinful fallible men that share your beliefs but you must be aware that its the authority of who will stand on the last day would be the one that counts. I am still expecting Joagbaje to give me his source that says the Bible has been added to but till now he is no where to be found.

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Bible Study: A New Look into the Word of God / Interested In Moderating This Section? / How Much Impact Does Your Occupation Have On Your Beliefs?

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