Please lawyers and experienced people on property/land matters, your knowledge is needed on this.
If a father sold his landed property that he bought with his money, without the approval/consent of his 1st and 2nd son, but his 3rd and 4th son consented and signed as witnesses. Is it lawful for the first son to reclaim/revoke the property through the court after the father is dead. Does the 1st and 2nd son have the legal right to sue the buyer to court to reclaim the fathers property because they did not consent before he sold it?

I have been having this argument with a friend for long. He said that it is a MUST that the 1st son in any family must sign before his father must sell any of his property, if not that the son has the legal right to reclaim the property when the man is gone.
I want you people to educate me on this issue, thank you.