The oldest carbon dated copy of the quran is older than Mohammed.

In Arabic language the diacritics are letters, sounds and change the entire meaning of a word.

Muslims brag that the quran is preserved 100% and the same copy sent down by Gabriel is what they have today.

Take a look at the attachments. The oldest quran that predates Mohammed and the one in circulation now.

Now the questions are: Who decided what diacritics to use on a LETTER, not word?

Who added the diacritics?

Why did he add them to alter allah's word?

If Mohammed did not write the Quran and it was written about 25 years after he died. What BOOK did Jubril give to Mohammed? They said that he continued to receive revelations from Jubril when he was old. Was the BOOK given to Uthman or to Mohammed?

surah 10:39 In fact, they ˹hastily˺ rejected the Book without comprehending it and before the fulfilment of its warnings. Similarly, those before them were in denial. See then what was the end of the wrongdoers!

They accuse the Christians of having many Bibles, but what happened to the actual BOOK that Jubril gave to Mohammed? Where is it?

The Jews kept the Hebrew scriptures for 3550 years before Mohammed was born. Mohammed testified that the book with the Christians and Jews were from God in about 640 CE.

so, if the Jews and the Christians could keep their books even after so many invasions by superpowers, how come the caliphate that was never invaded unable to preserve at least a copy the original quran?

Who added punctuation and chapters and verse to the Bible?

This should be an interesting thread. Gullible religious folks will come attack the thread now.

You see why transparency matters? We do not go about with a sound system bragging about dot for dot letter for letter. We know the importance of translation and preservation because our God made that arrangement from earlier times.

Now, who made the punctuations? English did. Spanish did. French did. Latin did. Modern languages did. The ancient Greek language didn't observe punctuations. For every Greek text written at the time, pieces of history and inscriptions, there were no punctuation. Mohammed himself could read or was read to the BOOK that had no punctuation and he attested that it came from God.

Spoken languages today too have no punctuations. So, you can decide to breathe whenever you run out of gas. Take the punctuations away if that is your argument and read the Bible. The message is still there. Take away the Numbering of verses and the chapters, what you are left with is the pure message. It never goes away.

Now, in a case where a single diacritic can change a single word into 40 different meanings, how do you determine which diacritic goes for what? Punctuation and numbering, were not created to alter the meaning of a text. They aid understanding. Why read a whole body when you can contextualize and benefit fully?

So, back to the question, who decided what diacritic goes for what letter in the quran?

budaatum:
Who added punctuation and chapters and verse to the Bible?