₦airaland Forum

MindHacker9009:
Isaiah 53 goes on to say:

11 After he has suffered,
he will see the light of life and be satisfied;
by his knowledge my righteous servant will justify many,
and he will bear their iniquities.
12 "Therefore I will give him a portion among the great,
and he will divide the spoils with the strong"

This is the nation of Israel Isaiah is referring to.

Who is the person that bears iniquity? Who are those with iniquity?

Tellmeastory:
Of course it talks about a god.

The god is Yahweh.

Yahweh cannot be the Source of All That Is. The Ultimate Intelligence.

How could he be?

He orders massacres and rape in the Old Testament!

wow he ordered rape? 😲🤯

MindHacker9009:
The Old Testament is a Roman empire corrupted version of the original Torah. And the New Testament is even worse by claiming that Yahweh sent his own son to use his blood for cleansing of sins, which is pagan practice.

then teach Isaiah 53 from the original text you have now, should be that hard for one with a bold claim as yours

Tellmeastory:
Wrong about what?

“A god” is not the same as God.



The Ultimate Intelligence NEVER ordered massacres and rape.

The bible refers to a Hebrew tribal deity who allegedly ordered those massacres as “GOD”.

You are worshiping a lie.

To know who GOD is, refer to your traditional African religion, the world’s oldest spiritual system.

There, GOD is perfect, silent and aloof, allowing his deities or ‘gods’ to act as his ‘assistants’.

When all avenues for assistance by the gods are exhausted, with no respite, your ancestors turned to GOD, and prayed to Him as a last resort for help.

THAT WAS IT. NOTHING MORE.

Until WHITE EUROPEANS INVENTED THE “vengeful, bloodthirsty “bible GOD” who demands all worship him or face eternal torture, who massacres people and then sends his “son” to be sacrificed on earth as ‘forgiveness for human sins’ while being the biggest sinner himself, and all that RUBBISH”,

Wake up.

so how did you come about knowing this your 'GOD'?

MindHacker9009:
Isaiah 53 goes on to say:

11 After he has suffered,
he will see the light of life and be satisfied;
by his knowledge my righteous servant will justify many,
and he will bear their iniquities.
12 "Therefore I will give him a portion among the great,
and he will divide the spoils with the strong"

This is the nation of Israel Isaiah is referring to.

so how does Israel justify many?

MindHacker9009:
Then read these and notice the words: He; Him
Exodus 4:22-23 – "Thus says the Lord, Israel is my firstborn son, and I say to you, ‘Let my son go that he may serve me."
Hosea 11:1 – "When Israel was a child, I loved him, and out of Egypt I called my son."

you are not answering the question, who questioned if God ever referred to Israel as his child. The question is from Isaiah

Now let me ask from another chapter in Isaiah

Israel was a name God gave Jacob, hope you know what Israel means. Jacob wasn't the only one given a name, Hosea too was, he was called Joshua.

Now Isaiah 49.3 He said to me, "You are my servant, Israel, in whom I will display my splendor."

Isa.49.5-6
And now the LORD says- he who formed me in the womb to be his servant to bring Jacob back to him and gather Israel to himself, for I am honored in the eyes of the LORD and my God has been my strength- he says: "It is too small a thing for you to be my servant to restore the tribes of Jacob and bring back those of Israel I have kept. I will also make you a light for the Gentiles, that you may bring my salvation to the ends of the earth."

Now Isaiah wasn't writing about himself was he?
If he wasn't then who is this servant who will bring Jacob back to God and be a light to the gentiles?

Or are you saying Jacob is being sent to bring himself back? Does that make any sense? Let me not go in the Hebrew text which shows singularity and all that. In verse 7, God said he will be rejected by the people, by the nation. Are you going to say Israel rejected itself?

Go ahead and please also explain scripturally as well your view and answers.