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Share some CCNA Collaboration 210-060 exam questions and answers below.
A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?
A. Line Text Label
B. Alerting Name
C. External Phone Number Mask
D. Caller Name
E. Description
Answer: A

Which Cisco Unified CME GUI menu option is used to navigate to the screen used to add or change a user name or password using the Cisco Unified CME GUI interface?
A. Administration > Update System Info
B. Configure > System Parameters
C. Configure > Phones
D. Configure > Extensions
Answer: C

What is the maximum number of digits that an ephone PIN can have to allow after-hour exempt calling privileges?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
E. 9
Answer: D

Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager protocol communicates with collaboration endpoints?
A. SCCP
B. RTP
C. SIP
D. CDP
Answer: C

An engineer needs to block any outbound calls to specific numbers. Which dial plan element is used to restrict called numbers?
A. partition
B. route group
C. route list
D. calling search space
Answer: D

An engineer is adding user accounts to Cisco Unity Connection and needs to limit the maximum length of messages. Which aspect defines this limit when adding new accounts?
A. user templates
B. user partitions and search spaces
C. user CoS
D. user mailbox store
E. user roles
Answer: C

Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager system report shows high and low call volume patterns?
A. CAR report
B. QoS by Gateway
C. QoS by call types
D. Traffic summary
E. Traffic summary by extension
Answer: D

Which four actions can be selected with the Bulk Administration Tool in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose four.)
A. Create
B. Modify
C. Migrate
D. Update
E. Delete
F. Export
G. Purge
H. Manage
Answer: A,D,E,F

Which two items must first be configured before users can be added into Unity Connection via the Bulk Administration Tool? (Choose two.)
A. partitions
B. classes of service
C. search spaces
D. user templates
E. schedules
Answer: B,D

Which two protocols does Jabber use to achieve Presence status? (Choose two.)
A. SIP/SIMPLE
B. XMPP
C. SCCP
D. MGCP
E. SOAP
Answer: A,B

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Share some IBM Certified Solution Developer C9530-001 exam questions and answers below.
Which statement about the Cloned node is true?
A. The Cloned node can be used to create reusable templates for Mapping node.
B. The Cloned node can be used to create reusable templates for .NETInput node.
C. The Cloned node can be used to create reusable templates for XSLTransform node.
D. A new Cloned node can be selected from a palette drawer and be assigned properties.
Answer: A

What is the first step in creating an IBM Integration Bus (IIB) based pattern?
A. Every new application may require a pattern. So start with creating a pattern project.
B. Identify an exemplar project and the variants to be replaced in the generated instance.
C. Create a Java class that may be used in the pattern generation for changing the default behavior.
D. Investigate how to create eclipse plugin since the IIB patterns are built as eclipse plugins for the toolkit.
Answer: C

How can WebSphere Service Registry & Repository (WSRR) information be pre-loaded into the IBM Integration Bus (IIB) cache before sending any messages to the message flow?
A. By subscribing to WSRR notifications.
B. Adding predefinedCacheOueries to a custom policy within WSRR.
C. By using the predefinedCacheOueries parameter in the Configurable Services for the broker.
D. WSRR data cannot be loaded into the MB cache without sending a message that accesses the WSRR Node.
Answer: D

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Share some Software as a Service - Oracle Supply Chain Management Cloud 1Z0-347 exam questions and answers below.
Your company has a cost of change policy that changes a customer when the order is allocated, with no changes allowed after the goods are staged.
Which fulfillment status will trigger compensation and impose charges on the customer when the sales order quantity is changed?
A. Backordered
B. Ready to Release
C. Released to Warehouse
D. Staged
Answer: A

Your company is importing orders from an e-commerce system where a sales order is created for a laptop. The ship-to-site of the customer determines the type of power cord to be shipped along with the laptop.
How will you enrich the sales order during import to append the Item number corresponding to the particular model of the power cord?
A. Create an External Interface Routing Rule.
B. Create a Compensation Pattern Rule.
C. Create a Pre TransformationRule.
D. Create a Post Transformation Rule.
E. Create a Product Transformation Rule.
Answer: D


How does Order Management interact with multiple fulfillment systems to fulfill sales order lines?
A. It has a web service brokerthat routes requests from the Fulfillment Task Layer.
B. It has a web service broker that routes requests from the External Interface Layer.
C. The Fulfillment system routing is defined in the orchestration.
D. The sales order lines are converted to Fulfillment Lines and fed to the Fulfillment systems.
Answer: C


Your company wants to default the preferred fulfillment warehouse and scheduled ship date as order requested date during order import and skip the scheduling task for a particular order type.
What are the two business rules that must be configured to achieve this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Define a branching condition rule.
B. Define a lead time expression rule.
C. Define a line selection criteria rule for the scheduling task.
D. Define acompensation pattern rule.
E. Define a pre-transformation defaulting rule.
Answer: A,C

Which Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence subject area should you use to build an online custom port that shows the number of orchestration orders for a selected orchestration process status?
A. Distributed Order Orchestration ¨C Order Lines Real Time
B. Distributed Order Orchestration ¨C Fulfillment Lines Real Time
C. Distributed Order Orchestration ¨C Process Instances Real Time
D. Distributed OrderOrchestration ¨C Process Instances
Answer: C

You are implementing the entire suite of Supply Chain Management Cloud for an auto component manufacturing and distribution company. This company has a manufacturing facility where different auto electrical components are produced to fulfill the demand that originates from various customers. One of the components that the company sells to its customers requires specialized operations; therefore, the company outsources it to an external manufacturer instead of producing it in its own facility.
Which two steps are required to fulfill the demand for this component through outsourced
manufacturing? (Choose two.)
A. Define this component as an Item with the ¡°Contract Manufacturing¡± field enabled and the "Make or Buy" attribute set to ¡°Buy.¡±
B. Define this component as an Item with the ¡°Contract Manufacturing¡± field enabled and the ¡°Make or Buy¡± attribute set to ¡°Make.¡±
C. Select the Customer Sales Order Fulfillment check box under the Procurement offering.
D. Create a sourcing rule of the Buy type for this component in the selling inventory organization.
E. Model the manufacturer to which thecomponent production is outsourced as a Supplier in the enterprise.
F. Create a sourcing rule of the Make type for this component in the selling inventory organization.
Answer: A,C

You are in the process of setting up a constraint that prohibits update to an extensible flexfield in a fulfillment line if Ship From Warehouse is X and the fulfillment line is booked. You are able to see the extensible flexfield on the ¡°Manage Constraint Entities¡± page but not on the ¡°Manage Processing Constraints¡± page.
What could be the reason?
A. The ¡°generate packages¡± program was not submitted.
B. The ¡°Publish extensible flexfield¡± process was not run.
C. The extensible flexfield is not enabled.
D. A ¡°Record Set¡±needs to be created for the extensible flexfield to be visible on the ¡°ManageProcessing Constraints¡± page.
Answer: D


Identify two tasks that are used to set up statuses in the orchestration process configuration in the Functional Setup Manager. (Choose two.)
A. Manage Orchestration Status Values
B. Manage Task Status Condition
C. Manage Status Values
D. Manage Orchestration Status
Answer: B,D


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Share some CEH V9 312-50v9 exam questions and answers below.
env x= ¡®(){ :;};echo exploit ¡® bash ¨Cc ¡®cat/etc/passwd
What is the Shellshock bash vulnerability attempting to do on an vulnerable Linux host?
A. Add new user to the passwd file
B. Display passwd contents to prompt
C. Change all password in passwd
D. Remove the passwd file.
Answer: B

This international organization regulates billions of transactions daily and provides security guidelines to protect personally identifiable information (PII). These security controls provide a baseline and prevent low-level hackers sometimes known as script kiddies from causing a data breach.
Which of the following organizations is being described?
A. Payment Card Industry (PCI)
B. International Security Industry Organization (ISIO)
C. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
D. Center for Disease Control (CDC)
Answer: B

What does a firewall check to prevent particular ports and applications from getting packets into an organizations?
A. Transport layer port numbers and application layer headers
B. Network layer headers and the session layer port numbers
C. Application layer port numbers and the transport layer headers
D. Presentation layer headers and the session layer port numbers
Answer: A

An attacker changes the profile information of a particular user on a target website (the victim). The attacker uses this string to update the victim's profile to a text file and then submit the data to the attacker’s database.

What is this type of attack (that can use either HTTP GET or HRRP POST) called?
A. Cross-Site Request Forgery
B. Cross-Site Scripting
C. SQL Injection
D. Browser Hacking
Answer: A

What is the process of logging, recording, and resolving events that take place in an organization?
A. Metrics
B. Security Policy
C. Internal Procedure
D. Incident Management Process
Answer: D

Jesse receives an email with an attachment labeled ¡°Court_Notice_21206.zip¡±. Inside the zip file is a file named ¡°Court_Notice_21206.docx.exe¡± disguised as a word document. Upon execution, a windows appears stating, ¡°This word document is corrupt.¡± In the background, the file copies itself to Jesse APPDATA\local directory and begins to beacon to a C2 server to download additional malicious binaries. What type of malware has Jesse encountered?
A. Trojan
B. Worm
C. Key-Logger
D. Micro Virus
Answer: A

While performing online banking using a web browser, a user receives an email that contains a link to an interesting Web site. When the user clicks on the link, another web browser session starts and displays a video of cats playing a piano. The next business day, the user receives what looks like an email from his bank, indicating that his bank account has been accessed from a foreign country. The email asks the user to call his bank and verify the authorization of a funds transfer that took place.
What web browser-based security vulnerability was exploited to compromise the user?
A. Cross-Site Request Forgery
B. Cross-Site Scripting
C. Web form input validation
D. Clickjacking
Answer: A

An attacker changes the profile information of a particular user on a target website (the victim). The attacker uses this string to update the victim's profile to a text file and then submit the data to the attacker¡¯s database.

What is this type of attack (that can use either HTTP GET or HRRP POST) called?
A. Cross-Site Request Forgery
B. Cross-Site Scripting
C. SQL Injection
D. Browser Hacking
Answer: A

While using your bank¡¯s online servicing you notice the following string in the URL bar:
¡°http://www.MyPersonalBank/Account?
Id=368940911028389&Damount=10980&Camount=21¡± You observe that if you modify the Damount & Camount values and submit the request, that data on the web page reflect the changes.
What type of vulnerability is present on this site?
A. SQL injection
B. XSS Reflection
C. Web Parameter Tampering
D. Cookie Tampering
Answer: C

Which of the following describes the characteristics of a Boot Sector Virus?
A. Overwrites the original MBR and only executes the new virus code
B. Modifies directory table entries so that directory entries point to the virus code instead of the actual program
C. Moves the MBR to another location on the hard disk and copies itself to the original location of the MBR
D. Moves the MBR to another location on the RAM and copies itself to the original location of the MBR
Answer: C

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Share some Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 MB6-892 exam questions and answers below.
You are the purchasing agent for your company. You need to create a request for quotation (RFQ) for a product that is not in the item drop-down list.
Which type of line item should you create?
A. Category
B. Open
C. Solicitation
D. Item
Answer: A

Your company receives a shipment of not-stocked items from your supplier. You need to receive the items into inventory. What should you do?
A. Register the itemand create a product receipt.
B. Create a stock movement journal for the item.
C. Register the item and create an item arrival journal.
D. Create a receipts list from the purchase order.
Answer: D

You are working with a vendor who supplies you with apparel and sporting good products. You are negotiating a new purchase agreement with the vendor.
The agreement terms you have arranged with the vendor are for a 3 percent discount on all of the sporting good products when the order volume over the next month is at least 50,000 USD.
Which commitment type should you use?
A. product quantity
B. product value
C. product category value
D. value
Answer: D

You are the accounts payable coordinator for your company. You want to apply fees on the items and purchase orders so that your company can track charges levied on services such as freight, transport, postage, and insurance. What are three methods of charges that you can set up in Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. automatic set up of charges
B. set up charge codes
C. manual set up of charges
D. charges groups
E. price charges
Answer: A,B,D

You are working with a vendor who supplies you with apparel and sporting good products. You are negotiating a new purchase agreement with the vendor.The agreement terms you have arranged with the vendor are for a 3 percent discount on all of the sporting good products when the order volume over the next month is at least 50,000 USD.Which commitment type should you use?
A. product quantity
B. product value
C. product category value
D. value
Answer: D

A matching discrepancy exceeds a tolerance percentage or amount, and match variance icons are displayed in the Vendor invoice form. What are the three types of matching that can be performed in this scenario? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. two-way matching
B. three-way matching
C. cash discount matching
D. invoice totals matching
E. terms of payment patching
Answer: A,B,D


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Share some Platform as a Service (PaaS) 1Z0-500 exam questions and answers below.
Which component must be allowed connectivity to the Internet to communicate with the Oracle Cloud?
A. Cloud Agent
B. Enterprise Manager Agent
C. Data Collector
D. Gateway
Answer: D


Which Oracle Management Cloud component requires SSH and SQL access to the Oracle Enterprise Manager repository database?
A. APM Agent
B. Cloud Agent
C. Data Collector
D. Gateway
Answer: A

When diagnosing a server response time issue using the Application Performance Monitoring service, what is the smallest sample period that you can select to display?
A. Last day
B. Last 6 hours
C. Last 60 mins
D. Last 15 mins
E. Last 10 mins
F. Last 1 min
Answer: E

You need to confirm that deployment of the Application Performance Monitoring (APM) service was successful at a customer site.Which three steps should you perform?
A. Examine the Gateway logs.
B. Verify the APM Java Agent directory structure.
C. Examine the Data Collector directory structure.
D. Examine the APM Java Agent logs.
E. Use the Oracle Cloud MyServices user interface.
F. Use the Application Performance Monitoring web user interface.
Answer: C,D,F

When diagnosing a server response time issue using the Application Performance Monitoring service, what is the smallest sample period that you can select to display?
A. Last day
B. Last 6 hours
C. Last 60 mins
D. Last 15 mins
E. Last 10 mins
F. Last 1 min
Answer: E

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Which of the following statements are correct regarding the function of VRRP?
A. VRRP can improve the reliability of default gateway.
B. VRRP increase the convergence speed of routing protocol.
C. VRRP is mainly used for traffic balance.
D. VRRP can provide one default gateway for different network segments, it simplifies the gateway configuration for PC.
Answer: A

Two Eudemons in dual-system hot backup can be working in Active-Active mode or Active-Standby mode.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

The Eudemon generates a blacklist upon detecting an attack.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Different virtual firewall instances on an Eudemon must be configured with the same security policy.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

What is the maximum bits of a Class C address can be used for subnet?
A.6
B.8
C.12
D.14
Answer: A

How many user-defined security zones at most are configured on an Eudemon?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: A

Which of the following is the priority value of the DMZ on the Eudemon?
A. 10
B. 50
C. 75
D. 85
Answer: B

Which of the following technologies can reduce the scale of broadcast domain?
A. VLAN
B. Trunk
C. RARP
D. STP
Answer: A

What are the types of firewalls developed so far?
A. Packet filtering firewall
B. Proxy firewall
C. Anti-virus firewall
D. Stateful firewall
Answer: ABD

The urgent pointer in the flag field of an IPv4 packet header is generally used for OOB data transmission.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A


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A Unity system LUN has a daily snapshot schedule with a Retention Policy of seven days. A hardware failure results in a double fault of theLUN. Which snapshot behavior will be experienced?
A. All of the snapshots will be unavailable to restore data from
B. Data restoration is available from the oldest snapshot, all others are unavailable
C. All of the snapshots will be available torestore data from
D. Data restoration is available from the newest snapshot, all others are unavailable
Answer: D

A system administrator is browsing their local management station for a Unity license file. Which file extension is used for Unity license files?
A. .lic
B. .rsa
C. .ulf
D. .cer
Answer: C

A Unity system LUN has a daily snapshot schedule with a Retention Policy of seven days. A hardware failure results in a double fault of theLUN. Which snapshot behavior will be experienced?
A. All of the snapshots will be unavailable to restore data from
B. Data restoration is available from the oldest snapshot, all others are unavailable
C. All of the snapshots will be available torestore data from
D. Data restoration is available from the newest snapshot, all others are unavailable
Answer: D

In UnityVSA, what is the maximum storage capacity offered by the WOLslicense?
A. 4TB
B. 10TB
C. 25TB
D. 50TB
Answer: D

A system administrator is browsing their local management station for a Unity license file. Which file extension is used for Unity license files?
A. .lic
B. .rsa
C. .ulf
D. .cer
Answer: C

Which Unity feature provides a high bandwidth connection for large file transfers, enables proactive Service Request generation and usage license reporting, and operates on a 24x7 basis?
A. EMC Service Center
B. Software Licensing Central
C. Unisphere Central
D. EMC Secure Remote Services
Answer: D

In UnityVSA, what is the maximum storage capacity offered by the WOLslicense?
A. 4TB
B. 10TB
C. 25TB
D. 50TB
Answer: D

A system administrator has installed the Units' Connection Unity on a Microsoft Windows host The Windows host is connected to the same physical subnet as a newly installed Unity storage system When the utility is run, it does notdiscover any Unity storage systems. What should be checked on the host that may be preventing the utility from discovering any Unity storage systems'?
A. Java SE version
B. Ethernet adapter flow control
C. Network Access Filter Driver
D. Hostfirewall services
Answer: B

When defining which resources on the destination system the replicated item will use for an asynchronous session, which settings must be provided?
A. Replication Mode, RPO, and Replicate To
B. Name, Pool, and Storage Processor
C. Ethernet Port, Subnet/Prefix Length, and Gateway
D. Management IP Address, User Name, and Password
Answer: A

When a storage resource has a snapshot taken of it, where are writes to the storage resource written?
A. New space allocated from the storage resource parent pool
B. New space allocated in 256 MB stripes from FAST Cache
C. Existing space of the storage resource
D. Existing space from the Reserves LUN Pool
Answer: C

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Scenario: A Citrix Administrator installed AutoCAD 2014 on a vDisk image and asked users to test the application. Users are reporting that the application is NOT available on their Desktop OS machines. The administrator started a test machine and verified that the application is there.What should the administrator do to allow the users to see the application?
A. Promote the vDisk.
B. Restart the target devices.
C. Change the vDisk access mode to Private.
D. Change the target device type to Production.
Answer: B

Scenario: An application that renders locally and creates a large number of temporary files on the local drive is installed on the Desktop OS machines. A Citrix Administrator creates a vDisk in Private mode with this application installed. The administrator is in the process of updating a vDisk from Private mode to Standard mode and needs to determine the write cache type.Which cache type would provide the best performance?
A. Cache on server
B. Cache on device hard drive
C. Cache on device hard drive encrypted
D. Cache in device RAM with overflow on hard disk
Answer: D

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator updates all of the machines within a Delivery Group. After the update, an application stops working. The IT manager tells the administrator to revert all machines to the previous image.How should the administrator revert all machines to the previous image?
A. By selecting 'Rollback machine update' for the Delivery Group
B. By deleting the snapshot associated with the template virtual machine
C. By selecting 'Rollback machine update' for the Session Machine Catalog
D. By deleting the difference disks of the virtual machines within the Delivery Group
Answer: C

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator configures a profile management policy in Citrix Studio for the members of a particular organizational unit (OU). The administrator must verify that the filter is applied correctly to the newly created policy.How could the administrator verify that the filter is correctly applied?
A. Using the Modeling Wizard
B. Using a Policy Template Comparison
C. Running rsop.msc on the Delivery Controller
D. Running gpresult /v from the command line
Answer: A

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator must provide a new application to 50 users and wants to use the most cost-effective application delivery method. These users perform well-defined tasks and do NOT require personalization or offline access to applications.What type of application delivery method should the administrator consider?
A. Persistent virtual desktops
B. Hosted Server OS machine
C. Virtual machine hosted apps
D. Locally streamed virtual hard disk
Answer: B

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to add a new application to an existing XenDesktop Delivery Group. The application must only be available to the Human Resources (HR) user group.How could the administrator meet the requirements of the scenario?
A. By creating a new Group Policy Object and setting security to the HR user group
B. By editing the application in Citrix Studio and limiting the visibility to the HR user group
C. By creating a new Citrix HDX Policy in Citrix Studio and filtering the policy to allow access to the HR user group only
D. By creating a new application folder in Citrix Studio for the HR user group and moving the application to the new folder
Answer: B

Scenario: Newly hired employees report they are NOT able to connect to their Desktop OS machines. Some of the employees have provided screenshots that show an error message indicating that no license is available. The license console shows that all device/user licenses have been allocated. Three weeks ago the company sold a subsidiary, freeing up 100 licenses, so the IT team is certain that licenses are available.Which command-line interface utility should a Citrix Administrator use to address this issue?
A. lmdiag.exe
B. lmdown.exe
C. udadmin.exe
D. lmadmin.exe
Answer: C

A Citrix Administrator must limit the Helpdesk team supporting Human Resources (HR) to only manage and view resources for the HR department.Which two steps must the administrator complete within Citrix Studio to meet the requirements of the scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Apply the custom filter to the HR Helpdesk team.
B. Remove all current roles for the HR Helpdesk team.
C. Remove all current scopes for the HR Helpdesk team.
D. Create a new custom role and link it to the HR Helpdesk team.
E. Create a new custom scope and link it to the HR Helpdesk team.
Answer: C, E

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On which two types of interface is Frame Relay switching supported? (Choose two.)
A. serial interfaces
B. Ethernet interfaces
C. fiber interfaces
D. ISDN interfaces
E. auxiliary interfaces
Answer: A,D

Which two routing protocols are supported by Easy Virtual Network? (Choose two.)
A. RIPv2
B. OSPFv2
C. BGP
D. EIGRP
E. IS-IS
Answer: B,D

In IPv6, SLAAC provides the ability to address a host based on a network prefix that is advertised from a local network router. How is the prefix advertised?
A. routing table
B. router advertisements
C. routing protocol
D. routing type
Answer: B

A network engineer is considering enabling load balancing with EIGRP. Which consideration should be analyzed?
A. EIGRP allows a maximum of four paths across for load balancing traffic.
B. By default, EIGRP uses a default variance of 2 for load balancing.
C. EIGRP unequal path load balancing can result in routing loops.
D. By default, EIGRP performs equal cost load balancing at least across four equal cost paths.
Answer: D

Which statement is true?
A. RADIUS uses TCP, and TACACS+ uses UDP.
B. RADIUS encrypts the entire body of the packet.
C. TACACS+ encrypts only the password portion of a packet.
D. TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization.
Answer: D

An engineer is configuring a GRE tunnel interface in the default mode. The engineer has assigned an IPv4 address on the tunnel and sourced the tunnel from an Ethernet interface. Which option also is required on the tunnel interface before it is operational?
A. tunnel destination address
B. keepalives
C. IPv6 address
D. tunnel protection
Answer: A

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Refer to the exhibit.



Based on the configuration, why are routers R1 and R2 not exchanging OSPF routes?
A. The OSPF process numbers are different.
B. There is no backbone area configured.
C. The router IDs are different.
D. OSPF is not enabled on the interfaces.
Answer: B

Which technology can block interfaces and provide a loop-free topology?
A. STP
B. VSS
C. VLAN
D. vPC
Answer: A

Which two modes does LACP support? (Choose two.)
A. on
B. passive
C. associated
D. link
Answer: A, B

Which protocol should be run on the LAN side of two edge routers (that are terminating primary and backup WAN circuits) to provide quick failover in case of primary WAN circuit failure?
A. VTP
B. STP
C. VRRP
D. RIP
Answer: C

Refer to the exhibit.



A customer requires a web application implementation, but the web server has communication only to the application server and users, and the database server has communication only to the application server.
What firewall design is the best fit for this scenario?
A. transparent mode with the servers on the same subnet
B. routed mode with three security zones
C. transparent mode with three security zones
D. routed mode with two security zones
Answer: B

Which protocol is best when there are circuit connections with two different ISPs in a multihoming scenario ?
A. VRRP
B. BGP
C. IPsec
D. SSL
Answer: B

Which router type injects external LSAs into the OSPF database using either other routing protocols or static routes?
A. backbone router
B. ABR
C. internal router
D. internal router
E. ASBR
Answer: E

Which technology allows multiple instances of a routing table to coexist on the same router simultaneously?
A. VRF
B. Cisco virtual router
C. Instanced virtuer router
D. IS-IS
Answer: A

Which algorithm does IS-IS use to determine the shortest path through a network?
A. Bellman-Ford routing algorithm
B. Johnson's algorithm
C. Dijkstra's algorithm
D. Floyd-Warshall algorithm
Answer: C

A network administrator wants to provide high availability in a data center environment by making sure that there is no reconvergence of Layer 2 and Layer 3 protocols when there is a Layer 3 switch failure.
Which Cisco Nexus feature fulfills this purpose?
A. ISSU
B. VSS
C. vPC
D. MEC
Answer: C

What is the next action taken by the Cisco NAC Appliance after it identifies a vulnerability on a client device?
A. denies the client network resource access
B. repairs the effected devices
C. generates a Syslog message
D. permits the client but limits to guest access
Answer: A


What is the maximum number of routers that each OSPF area (including the backbone) should contain?
A. 30
B. 10
C. 50
D. 60
Answer: C

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Which of the following statements are correct regarding the function of VRRP?
A. VRRP can improve the reliability of default gateway.
B. VRRP increase the convergence speed of routing protocol.
C. VRRP is mainly used for traffic balance.
D. VRRP can provide one default gateway for different network segments, it simplifies the gateway configuration for PC.
Answer: A

IP network can provide various packet forwarding service, the service demands that users care during packet forwarding include .
A. Throughput
B. Delay
C. Jitter
D. Loss of packet
Answer: ABCD

To enable an Eudemon in routing mode to work like a router, you need to assign IP addresses to interfaces and enable dynamic or static routing protocols on the Eudemon.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

TRUE/FALSE: Only Router-LSAs and Network-LSAs are involved in intra-area route calculations.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Which of the following options are performance parameters of the firewall?
A. Throughput
B. Maximum number of connections
C. Number of new connections per second
D. Process delay
Answer: ABCD

QoS can provide different quality of service according to different demands, which of the following are functions of QoS?
A. Providing private bandwidth for users
B. Reducing loss of packet
C. Congestion management and avoidance
D. Specifying priority of packets
Answer: ABCD

The multi-channel protocol is used to establish at least two channels (sessions) for communications or services.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Which solution provides deep transaction analysis by combining both packet-trace and server-trace data?
A.AppSensor Xpert
B.AppMapper Xpert
C.AppResponse Xpert
D.AppTransaction Xpert
Answer: D

AppInternals Xpert comes with which components? (Select 3)
A.AppTransaction Xpert
B.Server Management Platform
C.AppMapper Xpert
D.Transaction Trace Warehouse
E.BrowserMetrix
Answer: BDE

AppSensor Xpert provides information to which solutions? (Select 2)
A.AppResponse Xpert
B.AppInternals Xpert
C.Riverbed Performance Management Dashboards
D.AppTransaction Xpert Packet Trace Warehouse
Answer: AC

AppMapper Xpert can leverage packet data collected by AppTransaction Xpert Agents using which solution?
A.AppTransaction Xpert
B.AppInternals Xpert
C.AppTransaction Xpert Packet Trace Warehouse
D.AppResponse Xpert
E.AppSQL Xpert
Answer: C

Which solution supports packet capture directly from WAN acceleration devices?
A.AppResponse Xpert
B.AppInternals Xpert
C.AppSensor Xpert
D.AppTransaction Xpert
Answer: D

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You have been asked to design an XtremIO storage array solution that will be used for two large applications workloads. One overload will generate approximately 150,000 write IOPs with an average 4 kB 1/0 size. The second write workload will have an average I/O size of 128 kB and will generate approximately 2 GB/s of throughput. At a minimum, how many X-Bricks are needed in a single cluster to meet this requirement?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: A

When using the XtremIO PoC Toolkit, what is the purpose of the Age phase?
A. Continuously write to a specific range of logical block addresses to test Flash durability
B. Overwrite each LUN multiple times to ensure they contain all unique data
C. Test the performance of the All-Flash array with non-production static data
D. Scatter writes across the entire array to simulate ordinary use of the system
Answer: D

Based on best practice, what is the maximum number of paths a host should have to an XtremIO volume?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: C

A customer has a large ESX server environment they are considering deploying to XtremIO for a VDI implementation. To determine a baseline of the environment, you are proceeding with documenting each server's CPU, NIC, and disk utilization statistics. The customer has provided you with direct CU access to the servers to conduct this assessment. Which utility should be used to monitor these performance parameters?
A. esxtop
B. resxtop
C. top
D. iostat
Answer: B

A new 500 GB VM disk is created on a database that resides on an XtremIO LUN. The VMware administrator plans to provision the disk using the thick provisioned eager zeroed format.
How much physical XtremIO capacity will be allocated during this process?
A. 5 GB
B. 10 GB
C. 50 GB
D. None
Answer: D

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Share some Software as a Service - Oracle Enterprise Resource Planning Cloud 1Z0-963 exam questions and answers below.
Your customer is implementing the full suite of Cloud procurement. They would like to know how best they can utilize the Contract Terms library.
Identify three applications from where users can access the Contract Terms library for setting up ¡°contract terms¡± for different documents.
A. Supplier Model
B. Self Service Procurement
C. Sourcing
D. Procurement Contracts
E. Purchasing
Answer: C,D,E


During an implementation, the super user is requesting you to explain how to set up “risks” to be used in the Procurement Contracts by all users. You are in the middle of the year and currently there are few “risks” that are already defined and the organization is planning to introduce new “risks” from New Year’s Day.Identify the two steps the user should follow to fulfill this requirement.
A. Wait until year end, inactivate the old risks data on year end, and create and activate new risks from the same day.
B. Provide an end date as year end for the old risk data,create new risks now, and provide New year’s Day as start date.
C. Create new risks now, enable those at year end, and disable the old data on year end.
D. The user needs to delete old risks and create new risks around the year end.
Answer: A,B

In a Procurement implementation, your customer has a requirement for a given business unit to enable ¡°funds check¡± on purchase orders. This requires that budgetary control be enabled.
What configuration must you complete to enable budgetary control in that business unit?
A. Enable budgetary control in both the Configure Requisition Business Function and Configure Procurement Business Function by selecting the business unit in scope.
B. Enable budgetary control by selecting the business unit in scope using the task Configure Procurement and Payables Options.
C. Enable budgetary control by selecting the business unit in scope using the task Configure Procurement Business Function.
D. Enable budgetary control by selecting the ledger and business unit by using the task Manage Budgetary Control.
Answer: B

An organization has been receiving incomplete Supplier Profile Data during the supplier onboarding and qualification process.
Identify the way to ensure that the required Supplier Profile data is entered by a supplier during the qualification process.
A. Create an initiative with questions mapped to supplier attributes.
B. Create an initiative with questions classified by Subject.
C. Create an initiative with questions classified by Standards Organization.
D. Create an initiative with questions Responder Type is internal.
Answer: A

On completion of a Negotiation Award using a negotiation template, you are trying to create a purchasing document and system provides you the option to create a Blanket Purchase Agreement (BPA) only, whereas you expected to get an option to create a Contract Purchase Agreement (CPA).
Identify the reason for this.
A. The negotiation outcome is defined as ¡°Blanket Purchase Agreement¡± in the negotiation template.
B. The Business Function for the associated Business Unit is ¡°Requisition Only¡± and did notallow Purchase Agreement Generation.
C. The Profile Option PO_PRC_AGENT_CATEGORY_ASSIGNMENT is set to the current user.
D. The negotiation outcome is defined as ¡°Contract Purchase Agreement¡± in the negotiation template.
Answer: D

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Share some VCP6-CMA 2V0-620 exam questions and answers below.
Which two components can be used when configuring Enhanced Linked Mode? (Choose two.)
A. vCenter Server Appliance
B. vRealize Operations Manager
C. vSphere Management Appliance
D. vCenter Server for Windows
Answer: A, D

Which vSphere 6 Enterprise Edition feature will allow an organization to ensure that critical multi-threaded applications have the maximum possible uptime?
A. Fault Tolerance
B. High Availability
C. Distributed Resource Scheduler
D. App HA
Answer: A

An administrator deploys vCenter Server using the embedded Platform Services Controller. After testing the deployment for a couple of months, it is determined that the environment would be better served with an external Platform Services Controller.What should the administrator do to meet this new requirement?
A. Deploy a fresh instance of vCenter Server with an external Platform Services Controller.
B. Perform a fresh install of an external Platform Services Controller.
C. Migrate the embedded Platform Services Controller to an external Platform Services Controller.
D. Upgrade the embedded Platform Services Controller to an external Platform Services Controller.
Answer: A

Which vSphere 6 Standard Edition feature will allow an organization to ensure that critical multi-threaded applications have the maximum possible uptime?
A. Fault Tolerance
B. High Availability
C. Distributed Resource Scheduler
D. App HA
Answer: B

Which vSphere 6.x feature will allow an organization to utilize native snapshots?
A. Virtual Volumes
B. Virtual SAN
C. VMFS3
D. VMFS5
Answer: A

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Share some Other Oracle Certification 1Z0-533 exam questions and answers below.
You are designing a monthly projection Planning application. A starting point projection file is received with the current month data. Data forms, Business Rules, and Essbase data load rules, and reports should always focus on the current projection month. What is most efficient way to design the components to reduce maintenance each month?
A. Manually update the forms each month and use a "CurMth" substitution variable for Business Rules, Essbase data load rules, and reports.
B. Manually update the forms each month; Use "CurMo" Global variable for Business Rules and use a "CurMth" substitution variable for Essbase data load rules, and reports.
C. Use the Planning data form utility to update data forms and use a "CurMth" substitution variable for Business Rules, Essbase data load rules, and reports.
D. Use a "CurMth" substitution variable for data forms, Business Rules, Essbase data load rules, and reports.
E. Use the Planning data form utility to update data forms; Use "CurMo" Global variable for Business Rules and use a "CurMth" substitution variable for Essbase data load rules, and reports.
Answer: E

Identify the two statements about the Planning Import security utility.
A. Imports Planning application access for users and groups
B. Imports users and groups into Planning
C. Requires the source text file to be named PLANSECFILE.txt
D. Can be scheduled to run nightly using an encrypted password
E. Clears existing security definitions by default before the import takes place
Answer: A,D

Identify the two true statements with regard to Versions and Scenarios.
A. Versions control data entry based on time periods set by the administrator.
B. There is only one Version to one Scenario.
C. Versions allow several "what-if" Scenarios.
D. Users must have the same security settings in the Version dimension as they have in the Scenario dimension.
E. Versions can be top down or bottom up.
Answer: C,D

You are designing the storage properties for your Planning application.What two design principles should you follow related to the dynamic calc storage property?
A. Dynamically calculated members should roll up to stored members.
B. You cannot calculate and store dynamic calculated members in calc scripts and business rules.
C. Consider dynamic calc members on sparse parents with 100 t children.
D. Tagging upper-level members of sparse dimensions can reduce block size.
E. If you use a large number of dynamic calcs, you should consider increasing the Dynamic Calculator Cache.
F. Consider Dynamic Calc and Store over Dynamic Calc.
Answer: B,E

The budget office analyst needs to enter and plan data, use the Planning spreading feature that allow users to spread budget data based on last year's actuals, and modify data forms. What two roles should be provisioned for this user?
A. Grid Spread
B. Planner
C. Interactive User
D. Mass Allocate
E. Offline User
Answer: B,C

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Share some IBM Certified Specialist C9020-568 exam questions and answers below.
What is the amount of storage needed in an IBM SAN Volume Controller with IBM Spectrum Virtualize software for a 250 TB DB2 database with max compression?
A. 50 TB
B. 71.4 TB
C. 83.3 TB
D. 100 TB
Answer: A

Which data type will have the best compression ratio with Real-time Compression?
A. Databases
B. File and print
C. JPEG images
D. Encrypted data
Answer: A

Which statement is true regarding a customer who has existing LTO-3 Tapes and Drives looking to upgrade to LTO-6?
A. Retain the written tapes and a LTO-3 drive for later recovery; new media required with LTO-6.
B. None of the tape cartridges will be writable, however, the data can still be read by the LTO-6 drives.
C. Tapes written by LTO-3 drives will not be readable by LTO-6 drives; unused tapes can be formatted for LTO-6.
D. Retain the written tape cartridges for later recovery; any unused media can be used for later writes with a lower capacity than LTO-6 specific cartridges.
Answer: A

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