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Share some CCNP Data Center 300-180 exam questions and answers below.
At any given time, each server can be associated with how many service profiles?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
E. unlimited
Answer: A

Which log file in Cisco UCS Manager contains information about which user took a specific action?
A. user access log
B. system change log
C. audit log
D. access control log
Answer: C

A customer is configuring the dynamic vNIC connection policy in a Cisco UCS domain.
Why is the dynamic vNIC policy required?
A. It is only required if you are configuring VM-FEX.
B. It is only required if you are configuring Adapter-FEX.
C. It is mainly for the Cisco UCS Manager to communicate with the fabric interconnect.
D. It is required for Cisco UCS instances that include servers with VIC adapters on which you have installed VMs and configured dynamic vNICs.
Answer: D

Which statement is true about system event logs?
A. By default, they require manual clearing.
B. They report operating system crashes and errors.
C. They are also referred to as system error logs.
D. They can only be accessed from Cisco UCS Manager.
Answer: A

Refer to the exhibit.

Using RBAC for security in a Cisco UCS environment, what is seen in the exhibit?
A. custom role
B. default role
C. LDAP group map
D. external service profile
Answer: B

What should you do when you see faults during the initial setup and discovery process?
A. Take note and address the faults.
B. You can safely ignore these faults.
C. Log them and try to address the first one.
D. Reboot until the error messages go away.
Answer: B

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Share some CCNA Data Center 200-155 exam questions and answers below.
Which two options are primary elements of a tenant? (Choose two)
A. firewall rules
B. contracts
C. EPG
D. access policies
E. switch domains
Answer: BC

Which model is a deployment model in cloud computing?
A. automate cloud
B. layered cloud
C. private cloud
D. collapsed cloud
Answer: A

Which two protocols are encapsulated in FCoE? (Choose two.)
A. iSCSI
B. Fibre Channel
C. CIFS
D. DNSF
E. SCSI
Answer: BE

Which statement about a bridge domain is true?
A. A bridge domain must be liked to one internal network and one external network
B. A bridge domain must be linked to a physical domain
C. A bridge domain typically has at least one subnet that Is associated with it
D. A bridge domain must have at least one external network that is associated with it
Answer: C

The ARC is responsible for which two processes? (Choose two)
A. network policy configuration
B. fabric segmentation
C. BGP end-node emulation
D. ISL blocking per STP implementation
E. switch firmware management
Answer: AD

What are two advantages to running Fabric Path in the data center over using Spanning Tree? (Choose two.)
A. provides multi chassis Ether Channel capabilities
B. allows every switch to send BPDUs to each other to ensure the L2 topology is synchronized
C. has L2 multipath forwarding capacities
D. uses B02 1 q trunks to ensure VLANs are propagated through the topology
E. uses TIL field to provide loop mitigation
Answer: BD

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Share some CCNA Wireless 200-355 exam questions and answers below.
A customer is expecting wireless traffic in excess of 20 Gbps to traverse a single controller. Which wireless controller model fulfills this requirement?
A. Cisco 5760 Wireless Controller
B. Cisco Wireless Services Module 2
C. Cisco 2504 Wireless Controller
D. Cisco 8510 Wireless Controller
E. Cisco 5500 Wireless Controller
F. Cisco Virtual Wireless Controller
Answer: A

Which RRM feature allows an access point to avoid non-IEEE 802.11 interference?
A. DCA
B. TPC
C. RF groups
D. coverage hole detection
Answer: A

An engineer wants to deploy a 2504 controller as the anchor controller for a guest WLAN that resides on a 5508 controller in a different mobility group.
What configuration change must be applied to support this deployment strategy?
A. UDP 16666 and IP Protocol 97 must be enabled on the 2504 controller
B. UDP 5246 and TCP Protocol 97 must be enabled on the router
C. The 2504 controller must be added to the same mobility group as the 5508.
D. DHCP Option 43 must be added to the neighboring switchport
Answer: C

A help desk engineer is attempting to perform a remote packet capture on the wireless network.
Which access point mode is necessary to perform this function?
A. sniffer
B. SE-Connect
C. monitor
D. rogue detector
E. FlexConnect
Answer: A

A company has all IEEE 802.11a/802.11g devices; however, its network administrator recommends installing 802.11n access points to provide greater performance. Which feature on an 802.11n AP provides better performance to legacy devices?
A. channel aggregation
B. transmit beam-forming
C. maximal-ratio combining
D. spatial multiplexing
Answer: B

Which two statements about WiMAX technology are true? (Choose two.)
A. WiMAX is defined by 802.11i.
B. Typically, fixed WiMAX networks have a higher-gain directional antenna installed near the client.
C. WiMAX is capable of working as a long-range system over several miles.
D. WiMAX works only for licensed frequencies.
Answer: B, C

An engineer wants to set up guest wireless that requires users to log in via a splash page prior to accessing the network.
Which authentication method should be configured?
A. LDAP
B. RADIUS
C. local authentication
D. WebAuth
E. PSK
Answer: D

What is the approximate time difference for a client to perform an intracontroller roam compared to an intercontroller roam?
A. 1 ms
B. 10 ms
C. 20 ms
D. 30 ms
Answer: B

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Share some CCNA Collaboration 210-065 exam questions and answers below.
Which Cisco TelePresence multipoint platform utilizes only Cisco Unified Communications Manager for call control?
A. Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Control Unit
B. Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Switch
C. Cisco TelePresence Server
D. Cisco TelePresence Media Bridge Server
E. Cisco TelePresence System 500-32
F. Cisco TelePresence SX20
Answer: B

Which two methods are used to navigate the menu options of an auto attendant on an MCU? (Choose two.)
A. KPML
B. DTMF
C. PiP
D. PoP
E. FECC
F. SCCP
Answer: B, E

Topic 1, Video Concepts
Which four features are provided by Cisco TelePresence Management Suite? (Choose four.)
A. Scheduling of video conference calls
B. Built-in-bridge functionality for multiparty video conferences
C. SIP-H.323 protocol interworking
D. Centralized management of conference resources
E. SMTP email event notification
F. Endpoint configuration backup and restore
G. Cisco TelePresence endpoint automated redundancy
H. Automated resource optimization
Answer: A,D,E,F

A customer reports that in a CTS1300 room, a microphone switches to a segment that has no one talking.
Which step is first in the troubleshooting process?
A. Replace the microphones to stop phantom switching.
B. Reseat the microphone cables.
C. Recalibrate the microphones.
D. Reboot the codec.
E. Replace the audio expansion box because the microphones connect to an AV expansion box.
Answer: C

Management wants to modify Cisco TMS to allow users to configure the call behavior with their associated devices and dial from a single ID.
Which feature needs to be enabled and configured?
A. Smart Scheduler
B. Low-touch Provisioning
C. FindMe
D. CMR Provisioning
Answer: C

A technician enters the diag system normal command for a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint. Which action must be done in the CLI before entering this command?
A. Logging must be enabled.
B. Calling services must be stopped.
C. All forced upgrades must be cleared.
D. The Telephone_Srvr service must be restarted.
Answer: B

Which conference types can occur at anytime without the need for the conference to be scheduled, and can be created as permanent conferences?
A. ad hoc conferences
B. auto-dialed participants
C. Multiway conferences
D. scheduled conferences
E. rendezvous conferences
Answer: E

A Cisco TelePresence Server is operating in locally managed mode. In which two ways can a Cisco EX60 user who is connected to a conference that is hosted on a Cisco TelePresence Server change the screen layout? (Choose two.)
A. using the remote control
B. using DTMF keys 2 and 8
C. using FECC
D. via the Cisco TelePresence server GUI
Answer: B, C

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The type of compressor used by Huawei air-cooled precision air conditioner is ( ).
A. Screw type
B. Centrifugal
C. Scroll
D. Reciprocating
Answer: C

High sensible heat ratio is the only difference between a precision air conditioner and a residential air conditioner.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

When using the PoE (Power over Ethernet) interface, there are two functions of passing and supplying power.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Valve-regulated lead-acid battery safety valve has ( ) function. (Multiple choice)
A. Adjust the battery pressure inside and outside
B. filter acid mist
C. Flame retardant
D. Anti-battery internal pollution
Answer: ABD

The northbound interface of Huawei monitoring system NetEco can be accessed ( ).
A. Fire system
B. higher level network management
C. Lighting System
D. Refrigeration system
Answer: B

In low-voltage power distribution systems, the role of the PE line is to provide a return path for the fault current in the event of a power system failure.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Huawei dynamic environment monitoring system's components have ( ). (Multiple choice)
A. NetEco server
B. ECC800
C. Smart ETH socket
D. Skylight actuator
Answer: ABCD

Which fire extinguishing agent is mainly used in data center fire protection system?
A. Heptafluoropropane
B. water
C. Haloalkanes
D. Halon 1301
Answer: A

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Share some HCNP-R&S H12-224-ENU exam questions and answers below.
IP QoS models include:
A. Best-Effort
B. Integrated Service
C. Differentiated Service
D. FIFO Service
Answer: ABC

Which of the following technologies can reduce the scale of broadcast domain?
A. VLAN
B. Trunk
C. RARP
D. STP
Answer: A

By which can an IP-based advanced ACL filter packets?
A. Source IP address and its subnet mask
B. Destination lP address and its subnet mask
C. Protocol type
D. TCP or UDP port number
E. Priority of the data packet
F. Service type of the data packet
Answer: ABCDEF

ICMP packets are sent in a Smurf attack and UDP packets are sent in a Fraggle attack.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

IP network can provide various packet forwarding service, the service demands that users care during packet forwarding include .
A. Throughput
B. Delay
C. Jitter
D. Loss of packet
Answer: ABCD

Two Eudemons in dual-system hot backup mode use Huawei Redundancy Protocol (HRP) to back up key information (such as configuration commands and session status) between the active and standby devices.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Which of the following options are performance parameters of the firewall?
A. Throughput
B. Maximum number of connections
C. Number of new connections per second
D. Process delay
Answer: ABCD

Which of the following are factors that affect QoS?
A. Bandwidth
B. Delay
C. Jitter
D. Loss of packet
Answer: ABCD

Status detection is an advanced communication filtering mechanism. It checks the application layer protocol and monitors the status of the connection-based application layer protocol. For all connections, the status information about each connection is maintained by ASPF and is used to dynamically determine whether to permit or deny data packets to firewalls.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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You have a database that stores sales and order information. Users must be able to extract information from the tables on an ad hoc basis. They must also be able to reference the extracted information as a single table. You need to implement a solution that allows users to retrieve the data required, based on variables defined at the time of the query. What should you implement?
A. the COALESCE function
B. a view
C. a table-valued function
D. the TRY PARSE function
E. a stored procedure
F. the ISNULL function
G. a scalar function
H. the TRY CONVERT function
Answer: C

Which two database objects should you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. a user-defined table-valued function
B. a CRL function
C. a stored procedure
D. a user-defined scalar function
Answer: A,C

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Share some CCNP Security 300-206 exam questions and answers below.
Where do you apply a control plane service policy to implement Management Plane Protection on a Cisco router?
A. Control-plane interface management 0/0
B. Control-plane service policy
C. Control-plane router
D. Control-plane host
Answer: D

What are two reasons for implementing NIPS at enterprise Internet edges? (Choose two.)
A. Internet edges typically have a lower volume of traffic and threats are easier to detect.
B. Internet edges typically have a higher volume of traffic and threats are more difficult to detect.
C. Internet edges provide connectivity to the Internet and other external networks.
D. Internet edges are exposed to a larger array of threats.
E. NIPS is more optimally designed for enterprise Internet edges than for internal network configurations.
Answer: C,D

Which statement about the configuration of Cisco ASA NetFlow v9 (NSEL) is true?
A. Use a sysopt command to enable NSEL on a specific interface.
B. To view bandwidth usage for NetFlow records, you must have QoS feature enabled
C. NSEL tracks the flow continuously and provides updates every 10 seconds.
D. You must define a flow-export event type under a policy.
E. NSEL can be used without a collector configured.
Answer: D

Which cloud characteristic is used to describes the sharing of physical resource between various entities?
A. Elasticity
B. Ubiquitous access
C. Multitenancy
D. Resiliency
Answer: D

Which option must be configured on a transparent Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance for it to be managed over Layer 3 networks?
A. Static routes
B. Routed interface
C. Security context
D. BVI
Answer: D

When it is configured in accordance to Cisco best practices, the switchport port-security maximum command can mitigate which two types of Layer 2 attacks? (Choose two.)
A. rogue DHCP servers
B. ARP attacks
C. DHCP starvation
D. MAC spoofing
E. CAM attacks
F. IP spoofing
Answer: C,E

Which two options are protocols and tools that are used by the management plane when discussing Cisco ASA general management plane hardening? (Choose two.)
A. ICMP unreachables
B. NetFlow
C. syslog
D. Routing Protocol Authentication
E. Cisco URL Filtering
F. threat detection
G. Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding
Answer: B, C

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Which IBM Watson service is pre-trained and does not allow for any customization?
A. Natural Language Understanding
B. Speech to Text
C. Discovery
D. Tone Analyzer
Answer: A

How can a developer prevent IBM Bluemix from logging data in an API request to an IBM Watson service?
A. Set a header parameter called X-Stop-Training-Watson to true in the HTTP request.
B. Disable training from in the IBM Bluemix dashboard.
C. Pass a parameter called DisableTraining=false in the API request.
D. Set a header parameter called X-Watson-Learning-Opt-Out with the value true in the HTTP request.
Answer: D

Which statement best describes the unsupervised learning process when performing clustering on a large data set?
A. The system understands the significance of the data points and a cognitive sub-process clusters the data, removing the need for a human supervisor.
B. A neural network is deployed in unsupervised mode to determine to which cluster a data point belongs.
C. Examples of data points and their associated cluster are fed into the system allowing it to learn and generalize for the rest of the data set.
D. Data points are compared at random and the differences between their features are used to determine whether they belong in the same cluster or not.
Answer: D

Which actions depict configuring IBM Watson Discovery service collection?
A. Converting, enriching and normalizing sample data.
B. Switching from a default configuration to a custom configuration using uploaded personal data.
C. Testing which query methods result in accurate answers.
D. Determining how much space must be allocated to an environment.
Answer: A

In the context of a IBM Watson cognitive virtual agent, what type of input data can the IBM Watson Conversation service consume?
A. images
B. speech
C. string of text
D. audio
Answer: A

How is a training data set constructed from user questions for the IBM Watson Natural Language Classifier?
A. Group the questions into classes.
B. Use an XML formatted data set.
C. Upload documents with similar questions.
D. Create an intents index in a spreadsheet.
Answer: A

Which two Natural Language Processing artifacts are part of the Watson Knowledge Studio? (Choose two.)
A. mention detection
B. parsing rules
C. part-of-speech tagging
D. sentence tokenization
E. relation detection
Answer: D,E

Which statement best describes the unsupervised learning process when performing clustering on a large data set?
A. The system understands the significance of the data points and a cognitive sub-process clusters the data, removing the need for a human supervisor.
B. A neural network is deployed in unsupervised mode to determine to which cluster a data point belongs.
C. Examples of data points and their associated cluster are fed into the system allowing it to learn and generalize for the rest of the data set.
D. Data points are compared at random and the differences between their features are used to determine whether they belong in the same cluster or not.
Answer: D


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Evaluate the following two queries:
Which statement is true regarding the above two queries?
A. Performance would improve query 2 only if there are null values in the CUST__CREDIT__LIMIT column.
B. There would be no change in performance.
C. Performance would degrade in query 2.
D. Performance would improve in query 2.
Answer: B

Which two tasks can be performed by using Oracle SQL statements?
A. changing the password for an existing database
B. connecting to a database instance
C. querying data from tables across databases
D. starting up a database instance
E. executing operating system (OS) commands in a session
Answer: C,E

Which statements are true? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The data dictionary is created and maintained by the database administrator.
B. The data dictionary views can consist of joins of dictionary base tables and user-defined tables.
C. The usernames of all the users including the database administrators are stored in the data dictionary.
D. The USER_CONS_COLUMNS view should be queried to find the names of the columns to which a constraint applies.
E. Both USER_OBJECTS and CAT views provide the same information about all the objects that are owned by the user.
F. Views with the same name but different prefixes, such as DBA, ALL and USER, use the same base tables from the data dictionary
Answer: C,D,F

Which three statements are true regarding the data types?
A. Only one LONG column can be used per table.
B. ATIMESTAMP data type column stores only time values with fractional seconds.
C. The BLOB data type column is used to store binary data in an operating system file.
D. The minimum column width that can be specified for a varchar2 data type column is one.
E. The value for a CHAR data type column is blank-padded to the maximum defined column width.
Answer: A,D,E

Which two statements are true regarding multiple-row subqueries? (Choose two.)
A. They can contain group functions.
B. They always contain a subquery within a subquery.
C. They use the < ALL operator to imply less than the maximum.
D. They can be used to retrieve multiple rows from a single table only.
E. They should not be used with the NOT IN operator in the main query if NULL is likely to be a part of the result of the subquery.
Answer: A,E

Which two statements are true about sequences created in a single instance database? (Choose two.)
A. CURRVAL is used to refer to the last sequence number that has been generated
B. DELETE would remove a sequence from the database
C. The numbers generated by a sequence can be used only for one table
D. When the MAXVALUE limit for a sequence is reached, you can increase the MAXVALUE limit by using the ALTER SEQUENCE statement
E. When a database instance shuts down abnormally, the sequence numbers that have been cached but not used would be available once again when the database instance is restarted
Answer: A,D

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You plan to create on image of Windows 10 that contains a push button reset solution. The solution will have custom settings for each edition of Windows 10.You need to prepare the push-button reset solution.What should you include in the solution?
A. an unattended file and a bare metal recovery configuration
B. an unattended file and extensibility scripts
C. extensibility scripts and system restore points
D. a bare metal recovery configuration and Scanstate packages
Answer: D

You are preparing a push-button reset solution.You extract a Windows Recovery Environment (Windows RE) boot image from an image of Windows 10.You plan to use scanstate.exe to capture several Windows desktop applications.Which two folders from the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) should you include in We Windows RE build environment?
A. User State Migration Tool (USMT) and Windows Preinstallation Environment
B. Windows Preinstallation Environment and Common
C. User State Migration Tool (USMT) and Windows Setup
D. Windows Setup and Deployment Tools
Answer: C

You have a computer that runs Window 10. The computer starts in UEFI mode and has a 64-bit processor.You insert a USB key in the computer. The USB key has a drive letter of F.You need to ensure that you can start the computer by using Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) from the USB key.Which two commands should you run? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. makewinpemedia.cmd /UFD C:WinPE F:
B. makewinpemedia.cmd /ISO C:WinPE F:
C. copype.cmd amd64 C:WinPE
D. dism.exe /Export-Image /SourceImageFile:CWinPEboot.wim /SourceIndex:1 /DestinationImageFile:Fboot.wim
E. copype.cmd x86 C:WinPE
Answer: AC

You deploy an image of Windows 10 to a computer, and then you install Microsoft Office 2016 on the computer.You plan to deliver the computer to a customer.You need to ensure that the computer meets the terms of the OEM license agreement. The solution must ensure that the customer can customize the Windows operating system, create user accounts, name the computer, and perform other tasks.Which sysprep.exe parameter should you specify?
A. /mode
B. /generalize
C. /oudit
D. /oobe
Answer: D

You deploy Windows 10 and Microsoft Office 2016 to a test computer.You plan to capture an image of the test computer, and then to deploy the image to computers that will be sold to your customers.You need to ensure that when a customer first starts an Office application, the customer is prompted to try, buy, or activate Office.
What should you run on the test computer before the capture?
A. officedeploymenttool.exe
B. setup.exe /admin
C. oemsetup.cmd Mode=OEM
D. setup.exe /configure
Answer: D

You are testing the push-button reset feature.When you attempt to recover a computer, you discover that after each restart the computer enters the Installing Windows phase.You discover that a third-party antivirus application is captured in the customization package.You need to modify the image to ensure that the push-button reset can complete successfully.What should you do first?
A. Run scanstate.exe and specify the /hardink parameter.
B. Copy the subfolders of the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) files from the User State Migration Tool (USMT) and Windows Setup.
C. In the Scanstate configuration file, modify the Migrate attribute for the antivirus application.
D. Run dism.exe and specify the /Cleanup-Wim and Cleanup-MountPoints parameters.
Answer: C

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Share some MCSA 70-762 exam questions and answers below.
You are a database developer for a company. The company has a server that has multiple physical disks. The disks are not part of a RAID array. The server hosts three Microsoft SQL Server instances. There are many SQL jobs that run during off-peak hours. You must monitor the SQL Server instances in real time and optimize the server to maximize throughput, response time, and overall SQL performance. You need to create a baseline set of metrics to report how the computer running SQL Server operates under normal load. The baseline must include the resource usage associated with the server processes. What should you do?
A. A. Create a sys.dm_os_waiting_tasks query.
B. Create a sys.dm_exec_sessions query.
C. Create a Performance Monitor Data Collector Set.
D. Create a sys.dm_os_memory_objects query.
E. Create a sp_configure 'max server memory' query.
F. Create a SQL Profiler trace.
G. Create asys.dm_os_wait_stats query.
H. Create an Extended Event.
Answer: D

HOTSPOT
You have a database named Sales that contains the following database tables: Customer, Order, and Products.
The Products table and the Order table are shown in the following diagram.



The customer table includes a column that stores the data for the last order that the customer placed.
You plan to create a table named Leads. The Leads table is expected to contain approximately 20,000 records. Storage requirements for the Leads table must be minimized.
The Leads table must include the columns described in the following table.



The data types chosen must consume the least amount of storage possible.
You need to select the appropriate data types for the Leads table.
In the table below, identify the data type that must be used for each table column.
NOTE: Make only one selection in each column.



Answer:




You are a database developer for a company. The company has a server that has multiple physical disks. The disks are not part of a RAID array. The server hosts three Microsoft SQL Server instances. There are many SQL jobs that run during off-peak hours. You must monitor the SQL Server instances in real time and optimize the server to maximize throughput, response time, and overall SQL performance. You need to collect query performance data while minimizing the performance impact on the SQL Server.What should you do?
A. Create a sys.dm_os_waiting_tasks query.
B. Create a sys.dm_exec_sessions query.
C. Create a Performance Monitor Data CollectorSet.
D. Create a sys.dm_os_memory_objects query.
E. Create a sp_configure 'max server memory' query.
F. Create a SQL Profiler trace.
G. Create a sys.dm_os_wait_stats query.
H. Create an Extended Event.
Answer: C

You are developing and application to track customer sales. You need to return the sum of orders that have been finalized, given a specified order identifier. This value will be used in other Transact-SOL statements. You need to create a database object. What should you create?
A. extended procedure
B. CLR procedure
C. user-defined procedure
D. DML trigger
E. scalar-valued function
F. table-valued function
Answer: F

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Share some Implementation Engineer E20-393 exam questions and answers below.
In UnityVSA, what is the maximum storage capacity offered by the WOLslicense?
A. 4TB
B. 10TB
C. 25TB
D. 50TB
Answer: D

How is encryption set for a Unity storage system?
A. Clicking the "Mode" checkbox on the Manage Encryption page
B. Selecting "Status' on the Manage Encryption page
C. Automatically set at the factory
D. First time the license is applied
Answer: D

A Unity system LUN has a daily snapshot schedule with a Retention Policy of seven days. A hardware failure results in a double fault of theLUN. Which snapshot behavior will be experienced?
A. All of the snapshots will be unavailable to restore data from
B. Data restoration is available from the oldest snapshot, all others are unavailable
C. All of the snapshots will be available torestore data from
D. Data restoration is available from the newest snapshot, all others are unavailable
Answer: D

When the LUN Snapshot Attach to Host operation is performed, what does theUnity system optionally do before beginning the attach process?
A. Creates a snapshot of the LUN
B. Detaches the host from the snapshots of any other LUN
C. Creates a copy of the snapshot
D. Deletes all other existing snapshots of the LUN
Answer: C

A system administrator has installed the Units' Connection Unity on a Microsoft Windows host The Windows host is connected to the same physical subnet as a newly installed Unity storage system When the utility is run, it does notdiscover any Unity storage systems. What should be checked on the host that may be preventing the utility from discovering any Unity storage systems'?
A. Java SE version
B. Ethernet adapter flow control
C. Network Access Filter Driver
D. Hostfirewall services
Answer: B

A system administrator has installed the Units' Connection Unity on a Microsoft Windows host The Windows host is connected to the same physical subnet as a newly installed Unity storage system When the utility is run, it does notdiscover any Unity storage systems.
What should be checked on the host that may be preventing the utility from discovering any Unity storage systems'?
A. Java SE version
B. Ethernet adapter flow control
C. Network Access Filter Driver
D. Hostfirewall services
Answer: B

A Unity system LUN has a daily snapshot schedule with a Retention Policy of seven days. A hardware failure results in a double fault of theLUN. Which snapshot behavior will be experienced?
A. All of the snapshots will be unavailable to restore data from
B. Data restoration is available from the oldest snapshot, all others are unavailable
C. All of the snapshots will be available torestore data from
D. Data restoration is available from the newest snapshot, all others are unavailable
Answer: D

Which Unity feature provides a high bandwidth connection for large file transfers, enables proactive Service Request generation and usage license reporting, and operates on a 24x7 basis?
A. EMC Service Center
B. Software Licensing Central
C. Unisphere Central
D. EMC Secure Remote Services
Answer: D

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Share some Palo alto Networks ACE Certification PCNSE7 exam questions and answers below.
Which Public Key infrastructure component is used to authenticate users for GlobalProtect when the Connect Method is set to pre-logon?
A. Certificate revocation list
B. Trusted root certificate
C. Machine certificate
D. Online Certificate Status Protocol
Answer: D

How is the Forward Untrust Certificate used?
A. It issues certificates encountered on the Untrust security zone when clients attempt to connect to a site that has be decrypted/
B. It is used when web servers request a client certificate.
C. It is presented to clients when the server they are connecting to is signed by a certificate authority that is not trusted by firewall.
D. It is used for Captive Portal to identify unknown users.
Answer: A

Which command can be used to validate a Captive Portal policy?
A. eval captive-portal policy
B. request cp-policy-eval
C. test cp-policy-match
D. debug cp-policy
Answer: C

Which command can be used to validate a Captive Portal policy?
A. eval captive-portal policy
B. request cp-policy-eval
C. test cp-policy-match
D. debug cp-policy
Answer: C

A company has a pair of Palo Alto Networks firewalls configured as an Acitve/Passive High Availability (HA) pair.
What allows the firewall administrator to determine the last date a failover event occurred?
A. From the CLI issue use the show System log
B. Apply the filter subtype eq ha to the System log
C. Apply the filter subtype eq ha to the configuration log
D. Check the status of the High Availability widget on the Dashboard of the GUI
Answer: D

A company is upgrading its existing Palo Alto Networks firewall from version 7.0.1 to 7.0.4.
Which three methods can the firewall administrator use to install PAN-OS 7.0.4 across the enterprise?( Choose three)
A. Download PAN-OS 7.0.4 files from the support site and install them on each firewall after manually uploading.
B. Download PAN-OS 7.0.4 to a USB drive and the firewall will automatically update after the USB drive is inserted in the firewall.
C. Push the PAN-OS 7.0.4 updates from the support site to install on each firewall.
D. Push the PAN-OS 7.0.4 update from one firewall to all of the other remaining after updating one firewall.
E. Download and install PAN-OS 7.0.4 directly on each firewall.
F. Download and push PAN-OS 7.0.4 from Panorama to each firewall.
Answer: A,E,F

A company.com wants to enable Application Override. Given the following screenshot:
Which two statements are true if Source and Destination traffic match the Application Override policy? (Choose two)
A. Traffic that matches "rtp-base" will bypass the App-ID and Content-ID engines.
B. Traffic will be forced to operate over UDP Port 16384.
C. Traffic utilizing UDP Port 16384 will now be identified as "rtp-base".
D. Traffic utilizing UDP Port 16384 will bypass the App-ID and Content-ID engines.
Answer: CD

Only two Trust to Untrust allow rules have been created in the Security policy
Rule1 allows google-base
Rule2 allows youtube-base
The youtube-base App-ID depends on google-base to function. The google-base App-ID implicitly uses SSL and web-browsing. When user try to accesss https://www.youtube.com in a web browser, they get an error indecating that the server cannot be found.
Which action will allow youtube.com display in the browser correctly?
A. Add SSL App-ID to Rule1
B. Create an additional Trust to Untrust Rule, add the web-browsing, and SSL App-ID's to it
C. Add the DNS App-ID to Rule2
D. Add the Web-browsing App-ID to Rule2
Answer: C

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