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Share some ENUAE 500-451 exam questions and answers below.
Which three components are part of a Unified Access solution? (Choose three.)
A. One Policy (Cisco ISE)
B. One Management (Cisco Prime)
C. One Network (wired, wireless, VPN access)
D. One Controller (Converged)
E. One Solution
F. One Security
Answer: A,B,C

When Cisco Catalyst 3850 Switches are implemented in a stack configuration, which command is used to verify the role of each switch in the stack, and what are the two roles supported?
A. show switch stack role; active/standby
B. show switch detail; active/standby
C. show switch member; master/member
D. show stack detail; master/member
Answer: B

Which platform supports SSO?
A. Nexus 1000V Series Switches
B. Catalyst 2960 Series Switches
C. Catalyst 3850 Series Switches
D. Catalyst 3750-X Series Switches
Answer: C

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500-701 Cisco Video Infrastructure Design

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Share some CCNA Wireless 200-355 exam questions and answers below.
A wireless engineer is designing a network for the London branch of a company. Which 5-GHz band allows the branch to use the highest EIRP?
A. 2.4-GHz ISM
B. UNII-1
C. UNII-2
D. UNII-2 Extended
Answer: D

What is the difference between the IEEE, the WiFi Alliance, and the FCC, ETSI, and TELEC?
A. The IEEE and FCC are responsible for the standards that apply to wireless networks. The WiFi Alliance, ETSI, and TELEC are the governmental agencies that regulate compliance with local standards.
B. The IEEE is responsible for Layer 1 and Layer 2 protocols. The WiFi Alliance is responsible for interoperability testing. The FCC, ETSI, and TELEC are responsible for radio frequency and transmission power-level regulations and standards in the U.S., Europe, and Japan.
C. The IEEE is responsible for Layer 1 and Layer 2 protocols. The FCC, ETSI, and TELEC are responsible for interoperability testing and compliance. The WiFi Alliance is responsible for radio frequency and transmission power-level regulations and standards on a global basis.
D. The IEEE and FCC are responsible for the Layer 3 protocol support and frequency and power-level regulations in the United States. ETSI and TELEC are responsible for frequency and power-level regulations in Europe and Japan. The WiFi Alliance is responsible to interoperability testing.
Answer: B

When deploying a Cisco Cloud Wireless Infrastructure, what two destination ports must be open? (Choose two.)
A. TCP/5246
B. UDP/5246
C. TCP/5247
D. UDP/5247
E. TCP/7351
F. UDP/7351
G. TCP/7734
H. UDP/7734
Answer: F, G

A help desk ticket states that a wireless access point has not joined its controller and is flashing rapidly.
How can the help desk administer the access point with the default settings?
A. console
B. SSH
C. Telnet
D. HTTP
E. HTTPS
Answer: A

Which interface is used to connect the foreign and anchor controllers?
A. management
B. service
C. virtual
D. dynamic
Answer: A


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How is TIP defined?
A. TIP multiplexes RTP ports to reduce the number of video streams required in calls between any H.323 and SIP endpoint. Whether they are immersive endpoints or non-immersive endpoints.
B. TIP allows communication between any immersive and non-immersive endpoint.
C. TIP allows communication between any endpoint, regardless of what protocol is used
D. TIP multiplexes RTP ports to reduce the number of video streams required in cars between immersive endpoints.
Answer: A

What is a function of a call control solution?
A. To make, monitor and maintain calls
B. To provide an audio and video interface for the user
C. To join 3 or more participants in a meeting.
D. To schedule calls
Answer: A

When writing new App in Tropo, in what format should the App Scripts be saved?
A. .js
B. .json
C. .mp4
D. .xml
Answer: B

Which product is a Call Control Server that supports both voice and video communication?
A. Cisco Telepresence Management Suite
B. Cisco Content Server
C. Cisco Meeting Server
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Answer: D

Which conferencing solution is designed for highly scalable meetings, training and events?
A. Cisco Meeting Server
B. Cisco WebEx
C. Spark
D. TelePresence Server
Answer: B

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Share some MCSA 70-461 exam questions and answers below.
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server database that supports an application. The application contains a table that has the following definition:
CREATE TABLE Inventory
(ItemID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
ItemsInStore int NOT NULL,
ItemsInWarehouse int NOT NULL)
You need to create a computed column that returns the sum total of the ItemsInStore and ItemsInWarehouse values for each row. Which Transact-
SQL statement should you use?
A. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS ItemsInStore + ItemsInWarehouse
B. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD ItemsInStore - ItemsInWarehouse = TotalItemss
C. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems = ItemsInStore + ItemsInWarehouse
D. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS SUM(ItemsInStore, ItemsInWarehouse);
Answer: A

Your database contains two tables named DomesticSalesOrders and InternationalSalesOrders. Both tables contain more than 100 million rows. Each table has a Primary Key column named SalesOrderId. The data in the two tables is distinct from one another.
Business users want a report that includes aggregate information about the total number of global sales and total sales amounts.
You need to ensure that your query executes in the minimum possible time.
Which query should you use?
A. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM (
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION ALL
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
) AS p
B. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM (
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
) AS p
C. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION
SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
D. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION ALL
SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
Answer: A


You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a heap named OrdersHistorical.
You write the following Transact-SQL query:
• INSERT INTO OrdersHistorical
• SELECT * FROM CompletedOrders
You need to optimize transaction logging and locking for the statement.
Which table hint should you use?
A. HOLDLOCK
B. ROWLOCK
C. XLOCK
D. UPDLOCK
E. TABLOCK
Answer: E


You are a database developer of a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
You are designing a table that will store Customer data from different sources. The table will include a column that contains the CustomerID from the source system and a column that contains the SourceID.
A sample of this data is as shown in the following table.



You need to ensure that the table has no duplicate CustomerID within a SourceID. You also need to ensure that the data in the table is in the order of SourceID and then CustomerID.
Which Transact- SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL IDENTITY,
CustomerID int NOT NULL IDENTITY,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
B. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL,
CustomerID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
C. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED,
CustomerID int NOT NULL UNIQUE,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
D. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL,
CustomerID int NOT NULL,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT PK_Customer PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED
(SourceID, CustomerID));
Answer: D

You support a database structure shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)



You need to write a query that displays the following details:
• Total sales made by sales people, year, city, and country
• Sub totals only at the city level and country level
• A grand total of the sales amount
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID
GROUP BY GROUPING SETS((SalesPerson.Name, Country, City, DatePart(yyyy,
SaleDate)), (Country, City), (Country), ())
B. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID
GROUP BY CUBE(SalesPerson.Name, Country, City, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate))
C. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID
GROUP BY CUBE(SalesPerson.Name, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate), City, Country)
D. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID
GROUP BY ROLLUP(SalesPerson.Name, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate), City, Country)
Answer: A

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A network engineer is considering enabling load balancing with EIGRP. Which consideration should be analyzed?
A. EIGRP allows a maximum of four paths across for load balancing traffic.
B. By default, EIGRP uses a default variance of 2 for load balancing.
C. EIGRP unequal path load balancing can result in routing loops.
D. By default, EIGRP performs equal cost load balancing at least across four equal cost paths.
Answer: D

In IPv6, SLAAC provides the ability to address a host based on a network prefix that is advertised from a local network router. How is the prefix advertised?
A. routing table
B. router advertisements
C. routing protocol
D. routing type
Answer: B

An engineer is configuring a GRE tunnel interface in the default mode. The engineer has assigned an IPv4 address on the tunnel and sourced the tunnel from an Ethernet interface. Which option also is required on the tunnel interface before it is operational?
A. tunnel destination address
B. keepalives
C. IPv6 address
D. tunnel protection
Answer: A

On which two types of interface is Frame Relay switching supported? (Choose two.)
A. serial interfaces
B. Ethernet interfaces
C. fiber interfaces
D. ISDN interfaces
E. auxiliary interfaces
Answer: A,D

Which statement is true?
A. RADIUS uses TCP, and TACACS+ uses UDP.
B. RADIUS encrypts the entire body of the packet.
C. TACACS+ encrypts only the password portion of a packet.
D. TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization.
Answer: D

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A technician configures RIP on a new N-Series switch to connect to an existing switch that runs RIP. The routing table is not populating even after the network statements are added.What is a possible cause of this issue?
A. The existing switch has not been configured with the command “hostroutesaccept”.
B. The new switch’s interface is in the wrong subnet to form a RIP relationship.
C. The “ip helper-address” command has not been configured on the existing switch.
D. The other switch is not a root bridge and cannot form an RIP relationship.
Answer: B

A technician needs to create multiple subnets to make sure there are at least 20 available IP addresses per subnet.Which three subnets meet the requirements for the 172.21.254.0/25 network. (Choose three.)
A. 172.21.254.48/27
B. 172.21.254.0/27
C. 172.21.254.96/27
D. 172.21.254.16/27
E. 172.21.254.64/27
F. 172.21.254.98/27
Answer: B,C,E

A technician must deploy powering source equipment at a customer site.Which equipment should the technician deploy?
A. VoIP phones
B. Ethernet switches
C. Network surveillance cameras
D. Thin client
Answer: B

What are three benefits of using dynamic routing protocols over static routing? (Choose three.)
A. Can be implemented with one command to produce routes in the RIB
B. Lower administrative distance compared to static routes
C. Automatically adapts to changing topology to provide alternative paths
D. Is easier to troubleshoot over static routes in the event of a failure
E. Less overall administration, management, and maintenance of the routing table
F. Is scalable to very large multi-router, multi subnet networks
Answer: C,E,F

The “show ip ospf database” command outout indicates Type 5 LSAs.What does presence of Type 5 LSA indicate?
A. A routing loop between multiple OSPF routers
B. A Stub Area learned through an OSPF virtual-link
C. A Description of destinations external to the AS
D. An ABR existing in the network topology
Answer: C

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Which three statements are true about redistribution of routes from L3Outs in an ACI Fabric?(Choose 3)
A. Routes are not redistributed to leaf switches where the same VRF is present
B. ACI fabric runs MP-BGP
C. Security import subnets control the forwarding of packets into and out o L3Out connections(data plane).
D. Routes learned from L3Outs on border leaf switches are not redistributed into MP-BGP at the ingress lead.
E. Route control subnets control the exchange of routing information(Prefixes) into and out of the fibric (control place).
Answer: BCE

Refer to the exhibit.



SwitchA and switchB have these zonesets currentlyactive and are connected by an ISL that isconfigured to transport VSA Enhanced zoning is configured for VSAN, and merge-control is set torestrict.
Which statement about this configuration is true?
A. Enhanced zoning is configured, so the user is promptedon the CLI to permit or deny Zone2 intotheactive zone set.
B. Zone merge fails because the currently active zone sets are not identical.
C. Zone merge succeeds and the resulting zone set matches switch B.
D. Zone merge fails because merge-control set torestrict, which means that merges are neverpermitted.
E. Zone merge succeeds but Zone2 is dropped from the active zone set because it is not currentlyincluded in the active zone set in switcha.
Answer: E

Which cisco UCS Director features enables you to view the REST API URL for every report display in cisco UCS Director?
A. Orchestration features set
B. REST API Brower
C. Automation feature set
D. Report metadata
Answer: D

Which option is the benefit of CiscoACE solution?
A. minimum scalability for application delivery
B. infrastructure simplification
C. centralized management for all application teams
D. completely isolated from network thus providing easy management
Answer: B

Which Sticky method is supported by Cisco ACE?
A. SIP
B. SSL session ID
C. scripted
D. HTIP return code parsing
Answer: B

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You have a Dynamics CRM organization. You need to recommend which technology can be used to integrate CRM to a telephony system and to provide call scripts from within CRM cases. Which technology should you recommend?
A. Microsoft Parature
B. the Engagement Hub
C. the interactive service hub
D. the Integrated Desktop Agent
Answer: D

Your team uses the Dynamics CRM knowledge base You do not use the interactive service hub.
You need to search for an article in the knowledge base.
From which two types of records can you search for the article? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Phone call
B. Email
C. Case
D. Queue Item
Answer: B

You implement Unified Service Desk in your Dynamics CRM organization.
You need to add a button to a Unified Service Desk toolbar that will load a CRM page to a hosted control when the button is clicked.
What are two Unified Service Desk components that you can use to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. forms
B. action calls
C. scriptlets
D. Window navigation rules
Answer: AB

You plan to create a service activity. You need to identify which types of participant can have defined work hours.
Which two participant types should you identify? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. resource group
B. site
C. user
D. equipment
Answer: BC

You have an equipment resource for a forklift. Several scheduling activities are configured to use the forklift. The forklift breaks down and is sent for repairs. You set the work hours for the forklift to unavailable. You need to identify what will occur to the scheduling activities that require the forklift. What should you identify?
A. The scheduling activities will be added to a queue.
B. The scheduling activities will continue as scheduled.
C. The scheduling activities will be scheduled automatically for the next available time.
D. The scheduling activities will be deactivated.
Answer: D



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You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application to be used on the Internet. The environment uses Active Directory with delegation to access secure resources. Users must be able to log on to the application to maintain their personal preferences. You need to use the least amount of development effort to enable users to log on.What should you do?
A. Enable Forms authentication
B. Enable Windows authentication
C. Generate server SSL certificates and install them in IIS
D. Enable Digest authentication
Answer: B

The date of the run must be displayed in Views\Runlog\GetLog.cshtml. The timestamp must not be displayed.
You need to display the date of the run according to the business requirements.
Which code segment should you use?
A. @Html.DisplayFor(model => log.ShortDate)
B. @log.RunDate.ToString()
C. @log.RunDate.ToShortDateString()
D. @Html.DisplayFor(model => log.RunDate)
Answer: A


DRAG DROP
You need to implement security according to the business requirements.
You have the following code:

Which code segments should you include in Target 1, Target 2, Target 3 and Target 4 to modify RunLogController? To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the correct targets. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

Answer:

14 .The RunLog/Views/InsertLog.cshtml view must display the /Images/stopwatch.png image and the ¡°Insert Run Data¡± header text below the image.
The view should resemble the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
The application must display the image above the field set.
You need to add the HTML code to /Runlog/Views/InsertLog.cshtml to display the image and header text.
Which code segment should you use?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: D

You need to display the "miles" unit description after the distance in the GetLog view.
Which line of code should you use to replace line GL21? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. @log.Distance miles
B. @Htrml.DisplayFor(model => log.Distance) miles
C. @log.Distance.ToString() @Html.TextArea("miles"
D. @Html.DisplayFor(model => log.Distance.ToString() + " miles"
Answer: A, B

You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that uses forms authentication to verify that the user is logged in. Authentication credentials must be encrypted and secure so no user identity is exposed. You need to ensure that user credentials are persisted after users log on.Where should you store the credentials? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. In Session on the server
B. In a cookie stored in the browser
C. In ViewData in the application
D. In TempData on the server
Answer: A, B

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Which BGP community is used to prevent the advertisement of the BGP prefix to other BGP peers?
A.no-advertise
B.additive
C.no-export
D.local-as
E.none
Answer: A

In multicast Inter-AS VPN context, which BGP attribute should you use to overcome the Option B limitation due to a rewritten originator next-hop address in the network.
A. weight
B. originator
C. connector
D. AS Path
Answer: C

Refer to the exhibit. All links have same bandwidth configured AS 4, AS 4 and AS 7 run OSPF as IGP using default metric values.
Which two statements are correct in regards to MSDP SA messages received by R5 located in AS 7? (Choose two)
A. All MSDP SA messages from R1 and R2 via R4 will be dropped
B. All MSDP SA messages from R1 and R2 via R3 will be accepted
C. All MSDP SA messages from R1 and R2 via R3 will be dropped
D. All MSDP SA messages from R1 and R2 via R3 will be dropped and all MSDP SA messages from R2 via R4 will be dropped
E. All MSDP SA messages from R1 and R2 via R4 will be accepted
F. All MSDP SA messages from R1 via R3 will be accepted and all MSDP SA messages from R2 Via R4 will be accepted
Answer: A, B

An support engineer has been tasked to protect an ISP infrastructure from the growing number of encrypted DDoS attacks. The solution should also validate the eBGP peering.
Which solution accomplishes these goals?
A. BGP FlowSpec
B. BTSH
C. BGP Route Dampening
D. BGP LS
E. RTBH
Answer: E

Which are the two advantages if an ISP chooses a platform that runs Cisco IOS-XR Software instead of Cisco IOS Software? (Choose two.)
A.Cisco IOS XR Software functions as a message-passing operating system.
B.The system's scheduler is priority-based.
C.The context switching is based on Cisco Express Forwarding.
D.VoIP traffic is hardware-processed for real-time response.
E.Communication between client and server is realized by a dedicated mechanism.
Answer: AB

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An organization is deploying services in a private cloud. Consumers are calling IT because they are seeing performance issues within the deployed services. How should IT troubleshoot and identify these performance issues?
A. Cloud administrator uses the monitoring tools
B. Service manager uses the monitoring tools
C. Cloud architect uses the metering tools
D. Cloud administrator uses the metering tools
Answer: B

A company has an IT organization that is separated into teams that support different underlying technologies. Each team has its own budget and manages its own tools. They have a clear understanding of current performance, capacity, and events. Team response to assigned help desk tickets is satisfactory.The company intends to deploy a private cloud and provide services to internal customers. What service operation management challenge may this company face?
A. Inability to provide accurate pricing models
B. Inability to calculate fixed costs
C. Time consuming root cause analysis
D. Lack of control over service placement
Answer: D

You have been asked by a recently formed DevOps team to qualify the principles for Continuous Delivery. Which method falls outside the practice of continuous delivery?
A. Use component-based architecture
B. Tie code releases to operational constraints
C. Automate the delivery pipeline
D. Deploy smaller code segments more often
Answer: C

An IT organization for a medium sized grocery retailer is considering adopting ITaaS. As a first step, they performed an inventory of all existing IT capabilities to determine the ones that could be offered as stand-alone services to their lines of business through a service catalog.As a cloud architect on the IT team, what would you recommend?
A. Patch Management
B. Authentication
C. Network
D. Storage
Answer: A

In addition to the service template, what other information do you need to create a standardized service offering?
A. Rules, policies, and constraints
B. Policies, orchestration, and rules
C. Limits, rules, and constraints
D. Constraints, rules, and orchestration
Answer: A

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The following SAS program is submitted:
data work .sets;
do until (prod gt 6);
prod +1 ;
end ;
run;
what is the value of the variable PROD in the output data set?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. (missing numeric)
Answer:B

Giben the SAS data set SASUSER.HOUSES:



The following SAS prograrm is submitted:
The following output is desired:
Style price
CONDO $78,700
TWOSTORY $62,550
Which DEFINE statement completes the program and produces the desired output?
A. define style / width=9;
B. define style / order width=9;
C. define style / group width=9;
D. define style /display width=9;
Answer: C

Given the contents of the SAS data set PERM.JAN_SALES:
PERM.JAN _ SALES
VARIABLE NAMETYPE
Idnum character variable
Sales_date numeric date value
A comma delimited raw data file needs to be created from the PERM.JAN_SALES data set .the SALES_DATE values need to be in a MMDDYY10 from.
Which SAS program corretly creates this raw data file?
A.




B.



C.




D.



Answer: B

The following SAS program is submitted;
Libname temp¡¯SAS¡¯ data library¡¯;
Data work .new;
Set temp.jobs;
Format newdate mmddyy10;
Mdate=month(newdate);
Ddate=weekday(newdate);
run;
proc print data= work new;
run;
The variable NEWDATE contains the SAS date value for April 15 ,2005.
What output is produced if April 15 , 2005 falls on a Friday?
A. Obs newdate mdate ddate
1 04/15/2005 APR 6
B. Obs newdate mdate ddate
1 04/15/2005 46
C. Obs newdate mdate ddate
1 04/15/2005 APR 7
D. Obs newdate mdate ddate
1 04/15/2005 APR 47
Answer: B

The following SAS program is submitted:



What is the value of the TOTALPASSENGERS variable in the output data set ?
A. 0
B. 100
C. 200
D.( missing numeric value)
Answer:B


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A Citrix Engineer needs to set the rate at which connections are proxied from the NetScaler to the server.Which values should the engineer configure for Surge Protection?
A. UDP Threshold and Start Port
B. Grant Quota and Buffer Size
C. TCP Threshold and Reset Threshold
D. Base Threshold and Throttle
Answer: D

Which mechanism does the NetScaler use to enable a safe and speedy data exchange between a client/server initial TCP handshake?
A. TCP Fast Open (TFO)
B. TCP Burst Rate Control
C. TCP Hystart
D. TCP Time Stamp
Answer: A

Which reason can cause fail over in a NetScaler Management and Analytics System (NMAS) High Availability pair?
A. A secondary server loses connectivity in the LAN.
B. The engineer manually forces the secondary server to shut down.
C. A primary server encounters a critical software issue.
D. A primary server does NOT receive the SNMP traps from the instances connected.
Answer: C

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to configure Application Firewall to handle SQL injection issues. However, after enabling SQL injection check, the backend server started dropping user requests.
The Application Firewall configuration is as follows:
add appfw profile Test123 –startURLAction none- denyURLAction none-crossSiteScriptingAction none –SQLInjectionAction log stats- SQLInjection TransformSpecialChars ON –SQLInjectionCheckSQLWildChars ON- fieldFormatAction none- bufferOverflowAction none- responseContentType “application/octet-stream” –XMLSQLInjectionAction none- XMLXSSAction none-XMLWSIAction none- XMLValidationAction none
What does the engineer need to change in the Application Firewall configuration?
A. Enable-XMLSQLInjectionAction none
B. Enable-XMLValidationAction none
C. Disable- SQLInjectionCheckSQLWildChars ON
D. Disable- SQLInjectionTransformSpecialChars ON
Answer: C

A Citrix Engineer has received the following message after setting up Application Firewall in Learning mode.
August 28 6 03:14:27 Bleep.0.0.2.08/28/2017:03:14:27 GMT VPXExtProd01 0-PPE-0: default GUI CMD_EXECUTED 1670370 0: User CitrixAdmin- Remote_ip Bleep.19.Bleep.Bleep-Command “show appfw learningdata WebPub_vs_af_1 startURL”- Status “ERROR: Communication error with aslearn”
What can the engineer perform to resolve the issue?
A. Reinstall the Application Firewall license.
B. Reboot the NetScaler appliance.
C. Disable the Application Firewall feature.
D. Delete the Profile database and restart the aslearn process.
Answer: B

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To ensure that an institution¡¯s anti-money laundering program is current, which step should be taken?
A. The program should be evaluated and updated at least every six months be the Board of
Directors
B. The program should be reviews by a federal law enforcement officer for gaps in controls
C. The program should be sent to the institution¡¯s government regulator on a periodic basis
D. The program should be reassessed at least annually
Answer: D

Which three are examples of best practices terms of ensuring an adequate AML program?
A. Engage an independent party to perform a periodic review of the program
B. Review applicable domestic and international AML guidance
C. Perform a risk analysis on a regular basis and compare it to the coverage of the AML program
D. Review the accuracy of account opening applications
Answer: B, C, D

What is most valuable when using the internet as an investigative source?
A. A team of AML investigators
B. A reference list of websites known to yield credible information
C. A combination of independent thinking and technical skills
D. A powerful search engine
Answer: B

How do drug traffickers and other criminals use the fine art industry to disguise illicit proceeds?
A. They use forged or fraudulent invoicing of priceless works of art by auction houses
B. They commingle legitimate and illicit proceeds by principals for payment of fine art
C. They immediately resell priceless works of art after purchase from a foreign auction house
D. They use anonymous agents to buy the art and have the payment wired from offshore havens
Answer: D

Which two aspects of the security broker dealer industry increase its exposure to money laundering? Choose 2 answers
A. The routine use of wire transfers from, to or through multiple jurisdictions
B. They easy conversion of holdings to cash with significant loss of principal
C. Disposing of cash through securities purchases
D. Fast paced transactions conducted electronically
Answer: C, D

Which three characteristics make non-profit organizations vulnerable to misuse for terrorist financing?
A. Enjoying the public trust
B. Having access to a considerable sources of funds
C. Being listed as government nonprofit organization
D. Having a global presence for national and international operations and financial transactions
Answer: A, B, D

What are three risk factors a financial institution should examine with regard to a proposed new product?
A. The complexity of the product
B. The need to verify the identification of the customer
C. Whether the product is easily transferable
D. Whether other financial institutions are marketing the product
Answer: A, B, C

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In the power industry, the main advantage of achieving AMLI remote meter reading with eLTE-IoT is broad coverage, massive connectivity, ease of deployment and expansion.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

The southbound device sends an AT command to SoftRadio through the serial port. As a result, SoftRadio does not display any information. What are possible causes? (Multiple choice)
A. SoftRadio received an unrecognized AT command
B. There is a problem with the southbound connection to P 'and SoftRadio did not receive the data
C. The AT command which has been sent did not end with /r/n
D. All of the above is possible
Answer: BC

Smart home network includes the basic home network and smart Internet.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Which way is needed to use by GSM band tillage deployment NB-IoT?
A. Independent deployment
B. In-band deployment
C. guard band deployment
D. Low-band deployment
Answer: A

Which port is SoftRadio connected to platform?
A. 8843
B. 8743
C. 8090
D. Need to confirm with Huawei platform supporter
Answer: D

Which of the following scenes belongs to the control message delivery process? (Multiple choice)
A. Wisdom Street Light Application remote open street light in a region
B. Fleet Management Application Set the vehicle engine reporting cycle
C. smoke sensor reported home smoke anomalies
D. smart home phone APP remote query home appliances state
Answer: ABD

Wired copy meter, what is the lowest cost on the wiring?
A. M-bus
B. RS-485
C. ZigBee
D. RS232
Answer: A

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Which statement is true regarding the MOVE NODEDATA command?
A. only node data for a single node can be moved
B. the command only supports movements to primary storage pools
C. node data for any device class based storage pool can be moved
D. only node data that resides in a sequential-access storage pool can be moved
Answer: C

A large filesystem will be restored. Backup data is spread across one hundred tapes and all four tape drives are currently used. What can be done to optimize the restore process?
A. update the client to use more mount points for the restore
B. tune the client option, resource utilization
C. set up more parallel restore sessions
D. use MOVE NODEDATA to consolidate data on a disk pool
Answer: A

What is the purpose of specifying the option ENABLEDEDUPCACHE YES on the client?
A. to reduce the load on the client during client backup or archive deduplication processing
B. to provide a cached copy on the local client system of all objects that are sent toa storage pool during client backup or archive deduplication processing
C. to ensure that the client uses the server database index to identity extents that need to be sent to the server during client backup or archive processing
D. to create a referencedatabase on the client that is used to identify data extents that have already been sent to the server during client backup or archive processing
Answer: A

Which file must be edited to configure Disaster Recovery Manager?
A. RECOVERY.INSTRUCTIONS.STORAGE
B. RECOVERY.INSTRUCTIONS.INSTALL
C. RECOVERY.INSTRUCTIONS.TAPE
D. RECOVERY.INSTRUCTIONS.PRIMARY
Answer: B

What is the purpose of the UPDATE NODE BKREPLRULEDEFAULT= server command?
A. update the node settings by changing the default replication rule for Space Management data
B. update thenode settings by changing both the default replication rule for backing up and archiving data
C. update the node settings by changing the default replication rule for archiving data
D. update the node settings by changing the default replication rule for backing up data
Answer: D

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Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices?
A. R(config-if)#cdp run
B. R(config-if)#cdp enable
C. R(config)#cdp run
D. R(config)#cdp enable
Answer: C

What is the authoritative source for an address lookup?
A. a recursive DNS search
B. the operating system cache
C. the ISP local cache
D. the browser cache
Answer: A

A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Answer: A

Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Answer: B,D,E

What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?
A. Addresses in a private range will be not routed on the Internet backbone.
B. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
C. The NAT process will be used to translate this address in a valid IP address.
D. Several automated methods will be necessary on the private network.
E. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.
Answer: A

What is true about DTP? (Choose Three.)
A. Layer 2 protocol
B. Layer 3 protocol
C. Proprietary protocol
D. enabled by default
E. disabled by default
Answer: ACD

A cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOSimage.
What function does the router perform next?
A. It checks the configuration register
B. It attempts to boot from a TFTP server
C. It loads the first image file in flash memory
D. It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions
Answer: A

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Share some CCIE Security 400-251 exam questions and answers below.
Which three statements about Cisco Flexible NetFlow are true? (Choose three.)
A. The packet information used to create flows is not configurable by the user.
B. It supports IPv4 and IPv6 packet fields.
C. It tracks all fields of an IPv4 header as well as sections of the data payload.
D. It uses two types of flow cache, normal and permanent.
E. It can be a useful tool in monitoring the network for attacks.
Answer: B, C, E

Which three statements are true regarding RFC 5176 (Change of Authorization)? (Choose three.)
A. It defines a mechanism to allow a RADIUS server to initiate a communication inbound to a NAD.
B. It defines a wide variety of authorization actions, including "reauthenticate."
C. It defines the format for a Change of Authorization packet.
D. It defines a DM.
E. It specifies that TCP port 3799 be used for transport of Change of Authorization packets.
Answer: A, C, D

Which three attributes may be configured as part of the Common Tasks panel of an authorization profile in the Cisco ISE solution? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN
B. voice VLAN
C. dACL name
D. voice domain permission
E. SGT
Answer: A, C, D

Which two statements describe the Cisco TrustSec system correctly? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco TrustSec system is a partner program, where Cisco certifies third-party security products as extensions to the secure infrastructure.
B. The Cisco TrustSec system is an approach to certifying multimedia and collaboration applications as secure.
C. The Cisco TrustSec system is an Advanced Network Access Control System that leverages enforcement intelligence in the network infrastructure.
D. The Cisco TrustSec system tests and certifies all products and product versions that make up the system as working together in a validated manner.
Answer: C, D

Which three statements about the Cisco IPS sensor are true? (Choose three.)
A. You cannot pair a VLAN with itself.
B. For a given sensing interface, an interface used in a VLAN pair can be a member of another inline interface pair.
C. For a given sensing interface, a VLAN can be a member of only one inline VLAN pair, however, a given VLAN can be a member of an inline VLAN pair on more than one sensing interface.
D. The order in which you specify the VLANs in a inline pair is significant.
E. A sensing interface in inline VLAN pair mode can have from 1 to 255 inline VLAN pairs.
Answer: A, C, E

Which three statements are true regarding Security Group Tags? (Choose three.)
A. When using the Cisco ISE solution, the Security Group Tag gets defined as a separate authorization result.
B. When using the Cisco ISE solution, the Security Group Tag gets defined as part of a standard authorization profile.
C. Security Group Tags are a supported network authorization result using Cisco ACS 5.x.
D. Security Group Tags are a supported network authorization result for 802.1X, MAC Authentication Bypass, and WebAuth methods of authentication.
E. A Security Group Tag is a variable length string that is returned as an authorization result.
Answer: A, C, D

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Share some HCNA-Big Data H13-711-ENU exam questions and answers below.
Which of the following ways or interface is provided by Loader for job management? (Multiple choice)
A. Web UI
B. Linux command line
C. Rest interface
D. Java API
Answer: ABCD

In FusionInsight HG system, you must set the number of Partitions and the number of copies when creating a Kafka Topic. Setting multiple copies can enhance the DR capability of Kafka services.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

In a FusionInsight Hadoop cluster, the cluster size is 70 nodes. If the recommended deployment scheme is adopted, which partitions must not exist on the management node? (Multiple choice)
A. /srv/BigData/zookeeper
B. /srv/BigData/dbdata_om
C. /srv/BigData
D. /srv/BigData/jurnalnode
E. /srv/BigData/hadoop/data5
Answer: ABCD

Loader only supports data import and export between relational databases and Hadoop HBase.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

A table in HBase of FusionInsight HD includes the following regions: [10,20), [20,30), [30, + ∞], respectively numbered as ①, ②, ③, then which Region do 11,20,222 respectively belong to?
A. ①①③
B. ①②③
C. ①②②
D. ①①②
Answer: C

Which of the following design is mainly considered in the planning of Big data business consulting services program? (Multiple choice)
A. Big Data Business Model Design
B. Business scene panoramic planning
C. Typical scene requirement design
D. scene decomposition and business design
Answer: ABCD

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Share some HCS-Field-Server H20-651-ENU exam questions and answers below.
As shown below, RH2288 V3 server configures Intel 82580 network card, installs Suse11sp3 system, checks network card showing Unknown Device through the command lspci, the possible reason is: (Multiple Choice)



A. NIC installed loose
B. NIC driver is not installed
C. installed network card driver, but the system comes with pci.ids file is too old, cannot identify the new hardware
D. NIC and operating system are not compatible
Answer: ABCD

29 . Which command will be executed through the host command line by WMware host to generate log packages?
A. vm-collect
B. vm-support
C. collect
D. wm-collect -d log
Answer: B

The operating voltage of memory will influence its operating frequency.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

The E9000 is a high-performance enterprise-class high-end server for resilient computing and telecom computing, targeted at high-end computing platforms.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Setting the iBMC system send the alarm information to the third-party server in the form of Trap messages, it would be set in which menu?
A. Events and logs
B. Alarm settings
C. Network configuration
D. System settings
Answer: B

IBMC is the control unit to implement server management, the function that supported is: (Multiple Choice)
A. Remote control
B. Alarm management
C. IPMItool tool management
D. Web interface management
Answer: ABCD

The following description of the server firmware upgrade operation, the incorrect is:
A. iMana200 upgrade need to restart iMana200 then the new version will take effect
B. iMana200 needs to be upgraded twice
C. BIOS upgrade once
D. BISO upgrade needs to restart iMana200 to take effect
Answer: D

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Share some Security+ SY0-501 exam questions and answers below.
Which of the following would a security specialist be able to determine upon examination of a server's certificate?
A. CA public key
B. Server private key
C. CSR
D. OID
Answer: B

Which of the following attacks specifically impacts data availability?
A. DDoS
B. Trojan
C. MITM
D. Rootkit
Answer: D

HOTSPOT
Select the appropriate attack from each drop down list to label the corresponding illustrated attack
Instructions: Attacks may only be used once, and will disappear from drop down list if selected.
When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit.






Answer:



Explanation:
1: Spear phishing is an e-mail spoofing fraud attempt that targets a specific organization, seeking unauthorized access to confidential data. As with the e-mail messages used in regular phishing expeditions, spear phishing messages appear to come from a trusted source. Phishing messages usually appear to come from a large and well-known company or Web site with a broad membership base, such as eBay or PayPal. In the case of spear phishing, however, the apparent source of the e-mail is likely to be an individual within the recipient's own company and generally someone in a position of authority.
2: The Hoax in this question is designed to make people believe that the fake AV (anti-virus) software is genuine.


4: Phishing is the act of sending an email to a user falsely claiming to be an established legitimate enterprise in an attempt to scam the user into surrendering private information that will be used for identity theft.
Phishing email will direct the user to visit a website where they are asked to update personal information, such as a password, credit card, social security, or bank account numbers, that the legitimate organization already has. The website, however, is bogus and set up only to steal the information the user enters on the page.
5: Similar in nature to e-mail phishing, pharming seeks to obtain personal or private (usually financial related) information through domain spoofing. Rather than being spammed with malicious and mischievous e-mail requests for you to visit spoof Web sites which appear legitimate, pharming 'poisons' a DNS server by infusing false information into the DNS server, resulting in a user's request being redirected elsewhere. Your browser, however will show you are at the correct Web site, which makes pharming a bit more serious and more difficult to detect. Phishing attempts to scam people one at a time with an e-mail while pharming allows the scammers to target large groups of people at one time through domain spoofing.
References:

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