₦airaland Forum

i'd been to the site map, idnt like see anything like tht, where should i go to after getting to site map

where is the site map

pls how do we go about it as in the site we will fill the application,thanks

the point has been made ,sex is not everything going by way of morals it is bad in GOD'S eyes

thts for u shashan



Accurate Knowledge Essential

8 Christian baptism is not for everyone. Jesus ordered his followers: “Go . . . and make disciples of people of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the holy spirit, teaching them to observe all the things I have commanded you.” (Matthew 28:19, 20) Before being baptized, people must be ‘taught to observe all the things Jesus commanded his disciples.’ Hence, forced baptisms of those lacking faith based on accurate knowledge of God’s Word are valueless and contrary to the commission Jesus gave his true followers.—Hebrews 11:6.

9 What does it mean to be baptized “in the name of the Father”? It means that the baptismal candidate recognizes our heavenly Father’s office and authority. Jehovah God is thus acknowledged as our Creator, “the Most High over all the earth,” and the Universal Sovereign.—Psalm 83:18; Isaiah 40:28; Acts 4:24.

10 To be baptized ‘in the name of the Son’ means to recognize Jesus’ office and authority as God’s only-begotten Son. (1 John 4:9) Those qualified for baptism accept Jesus as the one through whom God has provided “a ransom in exchange for many.” (Matthew 20:28; 1 Timothy 2:5, 6) Baptismal candidates must also acknowledge the “superior position” to which God has exalted his Son.—Philippians 2:8-11; Revelation 19:16.

11 What is the significance of baptism ‘in the name of the holy spirit’? This indicates that the baptismal candidates recognize that the holy spirit is Jehovah’s active force, used in various ways in harmony with his purpose. (Genesis 1:2; 2 Samuel 23:1, 2; 2 Peter 1:21) Those qualifying for baptism acknowledge that the holy spirit helps them to understand “the deep things of God,” to carry on the Kingdom-preaching work, and to display the spirit’s fruitage of “love, joy, peace, long-suffering, kindness, goodness, faith, mildness, self-control.”—1 Corinthians 2:10; Galatians 5:22, 23; Joel 2:28, 29.

shashan and co, u guys need a thorough clarification of the bible, i hav answers to all ur questions but i guess this is not the right place discuss that.try and go overthe article again and this time around be flexible wt ur mind dnt be like the pharisees[blocked head and stiff necked],
read it wt an open mind and u will get the message.

shashan or wht is ur name,to be baptizedhe the in name of the father son and holy spirit,i will get back to u on the issue,bye 4 now,

open ur heart mind and soul for the truth and the truth shall set u free

Is Jesus Christ actually God?

John 17:3, RS: “[Jesus prayed to his Father:] This is eternal life, that they know thee the only true God [“who alone art truly God,” NE], and Jesus Christ whom thou hast sent.” (Notice that Jesus referred not to himself but to his Father in heaven as “the only true God.”)

John 20:17, RS: “Jesus said to her [Mary Magdalene], ‘Do not hold me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to my brethren and say to them, I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.’” (So to the resurrected Jesus, the Father was God, just as the Father was God to Mary Magdalene. Interestingly, not once in Scripture do we find the Father addressing the Son as “my God.”)

See also pages 411, 416, 417, under the heading “Trinity.”

Does John 1:1 prove that Jesus is God?

John 1:1, RS: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God [also KJ, JB, Dy, Kx, NAB].” NE reads “what God was, the Word was.” Mo says “the Logos was divine.” AT and Sd tell us “the Word was divine.” The interlinear rendering of ED is “a god was the Word.” NW reads “the Word was a god”; NTIV uses the same wording.

What is it that these translators are seeing in the Greek text that moves some of them to refrain from saying “the Word was God”? The definite article (the) appears before the first occurrence of the·os′ (God) but not before the second. The articular (when the article appears) construction of the noun points to an identity, a personality, whereas a singular anarthrous (without the article) predicate noun before the verb (as the sentence is constructed in Greek) points to a quality about someone. So the text is not saying that the Word (Jesus) was the same as the God with whom he was but, rather, that the Word was godlike, divine, a god. (See 1984 Reference edition of NW, p. 1579.)

What did the apostle John mean when he wrote John 1:1? Did he mean that Jesus is himself God or perhaps that Jesus is one God with the Father? In the same chapter, verse 18, John wrote: “No one [“no man,” KJ, Dy] has ever seen God; the only Son [“the only-begotten god,” NW], who is in the bosom of the Father, he has made him known.” (RS) Had any human seen Jesus Christ, the Son? Of course! So, then, was John saying that Jesus was God? Obviously not. Toward the end of his Gospel, John summarized matters, saying: “These are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, [not God, but] the Son of God.”—John 20:31, RS.

Does Thomas’ exclamation at John 20:28 prove that Jesus is truly God?

John 20:28 (RS) reads: “Thomas answered him, ‘My Lord and my God!’”

There is no objection to referring to Jesus as “God,” if this is what Thomas had in mind. Such would be in harmony with Jesus’ own quotation from the Psalms in which powerful men, judges, were addressed as “gods.” (John 10:34, 35, RS; Ps. 82:1-6) Of course, Christ occupies a position far higher than such men. Because of the uniqueness of his position in relation to Jehovah, at John 1:18 (NW) Jesus is referred to as “the only-begotten god.” (See also Ro, By.) Isaiah 9:6 (RS) also prophetically describes Jesus as “Mighty God,” but not as the Almighty God. All of this is in harmony with Jesus’ being described as “a god,” or “divine,” at John 1:1 (NW, AT).

The context helps us to draw the right conclusion from this. Shortly before Jesus’ death, Thomas had heard Jesus’ prayer in which he addressed his Father as “the only true God.” (John 17:3, RS) After Jesus’ resurrection Jesus had sent a message to his apostles, including Thomas, in which he had said: “I am ascending . . . to my God and your God.” (John 20:17, RS) After recording what Thomas said when he actually saw and touched the resurrected Christ, the apostle John stated: “These are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing you may have life in his name.” (John 20:31, RS) So, if anyone has concluded from Thomas’ exclamation that Jesus is himself “the only true God” or that Jesus is a Trinitarian “God the Son,” he needs to look again at what Jesus himself said (vs. 17) and at the conclusion that is clearly stated by the apostle John (vs. 31).

Does Matthew 1:23 indicate that Jesus when on earth was God?

Matt. 1:23, RS: “‘Behold, a virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and his name shall be called Emman′u-el’ (which means, God with us [“God is with us,” NE]).”

In announcing Jesus’ coming birth, did Jehovah’s angel say that the child would be God himself? No, the announcement was: “He will be great, and will be called the Son of the Most High.” (Luke 1:32, 35, RS; italics added.) And Jesus himself never claimed to be God but, rather, “the Son of God.” (John 10:36, RS; italics added.) Jesus was sent into the world by God; so by means of this only-begotten Son, God was with mankind.—John 3:17; 17:8.

It was not unusual for Hebrew names to include within them the word for God or even an abbreviated form of God’s personal name. For example, Eli′athah means “God Has Come”; Jehu means “Jehovah Is He”; Elijah means “My God Is Jehovah.” But none of these names implied that the possessor was himself God.

What is the meaning of John 5:18?

John 5:18, RS: “This was why the Jews sought all the more to kill him, because he not only broke the sabbath but also called God his Father, making himself equal with God.”

It was the unbelieving Jews who reasoned that Jesus was attempting to make himself equal with God by claiming God as his Father. While properly referring to God as his Father, Jesus never claimed equality with God. He straightforwardly answered the Jews: “Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of his own accord, but only what he sees the Father doing.” (John 5:19, RS; see also John 14:28; John 10:36.) It was those unbelieving Jews, too, who claimed that Jesus broke the Sabbath, but they were wrong also about that. Jesus kept the Law perfectly, and he declared: “It is lawful to do good on the sabbath.”—Matt. 12:10-12, RS.

Does the fact that worship is given to Jesus prove that he is God?

At Hebrews 1:6, the angels are instructed to “worship” Jesus, according to the rendering of RS, TEV, KJ, JB, and NAB. NW says “do obeisance to.” At Matthew 14:33, Jesus’ disciples are said to have “worshiped” him, according to RS, TEV, KJ; other translations say that they “showed him reverence” (NAB), “bowed down before him” (JB), “fell at his feet” (NE), “did obeisance to him” (NW).

The Greek word rendered “worship” is pro·sky·ne′o, which A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature says was also “used to designate the custom of prostrating oneself before a person and kissing his feet, the hem of his garment, the ground.” (Chicago, 1979, Bauer, Arndt, Gingrich, Danker; second English edition; p. 716) This is the term used at Matthew 14:33 to express what the disciples did toward Jesus; at Hebrews 1:6 to indicate what the angels are to do toward Jesus; at Genesis 22:5 in the Greek Septuagint to describe what Abraham did toward Jehovah and at Genesis 23:7 to describe what Abraham did, in harmony with the custom of the time, toward people with whom he was doing business; at 1 Kings 1:23 in the Septuagint to describe the prophet Nathan’s action on approaching King David.

At Matthew 4:10 (RS), Jesus said: “You shall worship [from pro·sky·ne′o] the Lord your God and him only shall you serve.” (At Deuteronomy 6:13, which Jesus is evidently here quoting, appears the personal name of God, the Tetragrammaton.) In harmony with that, we must understand that it is pro·sky·ne′o with a particular attitude of heart and mind that should be directed only toward God.

Do the miracles performed by Jesus prove that he is God?

Acts 10:34, 38, RS: “Peter opened his mouth and said: ‘ . . . God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and with power; . . . he went about doing good and healing all that were oppressed by the devil, for God was with him.’” (So Peter did not conclude from the miracles that he observed that Jesus was God but, rather, that God was with Jesus. Compare Matthew 16:16, 17.)

John 20:30, 31, RS: “Now Jesus did many other signs [“miracles,” TEV, Kx] in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; but these are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing you may have life in his name.” (So the conclusion we should properly draw from the miracles is that Jesus is “the Christ,” the Messiah, “the Son of God.” The expression “Son of God” is very different from “God the Son.”)

Pre-Christian prophets such as Elijah and Elisha performed miracles similar to those of Jesus. Yet that certainly is no proof that they were God.

Is Jesus the same as Jehovah in the “Old Testament”?

The Bible’s View

“He Who Has Seen Me Has Seen the Father”—In What Sense?

ON ONE occasion Philip, a disciple of Jesus, asked: “Lord, show us the Father, and we shall be satisfied.” (John 14: In answer to this question, Jesus declared: “Have I been with you so long, and yet you do not know me, Philip? He who has seen me has seen the Father.” (John 14:9) What did Jesus mean by that statement?

Before answering this question, let us consider a peculiar interpretation of Jesus’ words. Some individuals believe that if one who has seen Jesus has seen the Father also, Jesus must be Almighty God, fully equal to his Father, Jehovah.

Individuals who believe that also cite many passages from the “Old Testament” that refer to Jehovah God, but which Christian Bible writers (in the “New Testament”) apply to Jesus Christ. To illustrate: Through the prophet Isaiah, God said: “I, I am the LORD, and besides me there is no savior.” (Isa. 43:11) And in prayer to God the psalmist stated: “For with thee is the fountain of life; in thy light do we see light.” (Ps. 36:9) However, Christian Bible writers declare the savior of mankind and the source of life and light to be Jesus Christ.—John 1:4; 5:26; 8:12.

Do parallel passages such as these and the fact that the Son of God said, “He who has seen me has seen the Father,” prove that Jesus is Almighty God? Let us see.

Repeatedly the Scriptures refer to Jesus Christ as the one “sent” from God as his chief representative. (See, for example, John 3:17, 28, 34; 5:23, 24, 30, 37.) Interestingly, the Bible often describes persons who represent others as if they were the ones represented. Consider two examples:

(1) Matthew’s Gospel relates that, after delivering the Sermon on the Mount, Jesus entered into Capernaum, where “a centurion came forward to him, beseeching him” to heal his slave. (Matt. 8:5-13) Yet from the parallel account at Luke 7:1-10 we learn that the centurion “sent to [Jesus] elders of the Jews, asking him to come and heal his slave.”

(2) In the Gospel of Mark we read that “James and John, the sons of Zebedee, came forward to him,” asking: “Grant us to sit, one at your right hand and one at your left, in your glory.” (Mark 10:35-37) However, Matthew relates that this request to Jesus actually was made by “the mother of the sons of Zebedee,” as their representative.—Matt. 20:20, 21.

Of course, no one would conclude from these Bible accounts that those Jewish elders were coequal with the centurion, or the mother of James and John coequal with her sons. Similarly, no one should conclude that Jesus is coequal with God simply because things stated about Jehovah God in certain parts of the Bible are applied to Jesus Christ in others. The real reason for this is that Jesus represents God.

Is that why the Son of God said: “He who has seen me has seen the Father”? Yes, but more is involved in that expression than mere representation. The request, “Lord, show us the Father,” suggests that Philip wanted Jesus to provide for his disciples a visible manifestation of God, such as was granted in visions to Moses, Elijah and Isaiah in ancient times. (Ex. 24:10; 1 Ki. 19:9-13; Isa. 6:1-5) However, in such visions God’s servants saw, not God himself, but symbolic representations of him. (Ex. 33:17-22; John 1:18) Jesus’ reply indicated that Philip already had something better than visions of that type. Since Jesus perfectly reflected the personality of his Father, whom only the Son fully ‘knew,’ seeing Jesus Christ was like seeing God himself.—Matt. 11:27.

The miracles of the Son of God, for example, manifested the love and tender concern for human welfare that is characteristic of Jehovah God. It is no wonder that, after Jesus resurrected the dead son of a widow from the Galilean city of Nain, observers exclaimed: “God has visited his people!”—Luke 7:11-16.

Further opportunities for people to ‘see the Father’ (that is, to perceive his personality, will and purpose) were afforded by what Jesus said, both as to content and manner of utterance. Persons who listened to Jesus learned that God judges people according to their heart condition, rather than by external circumstances, such as wealth, education, ceremonial cleanness or national origin. (Matt. 5:8; 8:11, 12; 23:25-28; John 8:33-44) How different from the viewpoint fostered by the Jewish religious leaders!—Note John 7:48, 49.

The way Jesus spoke, too, made his hearers realize that they were hearing a message from God, “for he taught them as one who had authority, and not as their scribes.” (Matt. 7:29) Rather than speaking indirectly, in the name of other human teachers (as was customary among the scribes), Jesus often spoke in the first person, with the phrases: “I tell you,” “Truly, I say to you,” and “Truly, truly, I say to you.” (Note Matthew 5:20, 22; 6:2, 5, 16; John 1:51; 3:3, 5, 11; 5:19, 24, 25.) On occasion Jesus even declared the sins of certain persons forgiven, which led some to accuse him of blasphemously usurping a sole prerogative of God.—Mark 2:1-7; Luke 5:17-21; 7:47-49.

But Jesus never usurped the position of God. He readily admitted that the authority with which he spoke and acted did not originate with him. It was a delegated authority, for “the Father had given all things into his hands.” (John 13:3; compare Matthew 11:27; 28:18; John 3:35; 17:2.) Hence, Jesus declared: “Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of his own accord, but only what he sees the Father doing; for whatever he does, that the Son does likewise.”—John 5:19; compare John 5:30; 8:28, 42.

Since everything that Jesus did was in full harmony with the will of God, persons who observed Jesus were in a sense observing God in action. In his notes on John 14:9, Bible commentator Albert Barnes expresses it nicely: “Hath seen the Father. This cannot refer to the essence or substance of God, for he is invisible, and in that respect no man has seen God at any time. All that is meant when it is said that God is seen, is, that some manifestation of Him has been made; or some such exhibition as that we may learn his character, his will, and his plans. . . . The knowledge of the Son was itself, of course, the knowledge of the Father. There was such an intimate union in their nature and design, that he who understood the one did also the other.”—Compare John 10:30.

[Footnotes]

All Scripture quotations in this article are from the ecumenical edition of the Revised Standard Version, known as the Common Bible. This version is approved by both Catholic and Protestant authorities.

Further instances of representatives being spoken of as the ones they represent are found at Matthew 10:40; 18:5; Luke 9:48; John 4:1, 2.

Jesus—Was He God?

In the fourth century C.E. clerics of the Roman Catholic Church formulated the Trinity doctrine, which claims that Jesus was equal to his Father and part of a triune deity. However, many careful Bible students have held that the Scriptures actually do not support this widely taught doctrine.

Volume 2 of The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology (1976) considers this matter. It acknowledges that there are “a few N[ew] T[estament] texts [that] raise the question whether the Son of God is also called God.” But what is the overall picture found in the “New Testament,” or Christian Greek Scriptures? This dictionary states:

“Jesus Christ does not usurp the place of God. His oneness with the Father does not mean absolute identity of being. Although the Son of God in his pre-existent being was in the form of God, he resisted the temptation to be equal with God (Phil. 2:6). In his earthly existence he was obedient to God, even unto death on the cross (Phil. 2:. He is the mediator, but not the originator, of salvation (2 Cor. 5:19; Col. 1:20; Heb. 9:15), the lamb of God who bears the sins of the world (Jn. 1:36). After the completion of his work on earth he has indeed been raised to the right hand of God (Eph. 1:20; 1 Pet. 3:22) and invested with the honour of the heavenly Kyrios, Lord (Phil. 2:9 f.). But he is still not made equal to God. Although completely coordinated with God, he remains subordinate to him. (cf. 1 Cor. 15:28). This is true also of his position as eternal high priest in the heavenly sanctuary according to Heb. (Heb. 9:24; 10:12 f.; cf. Ps. 110:1). He represents us before God (cf. also Rom. 8:34). If in Rev. 1:13 ff. the appearance of the heavenly son of man is described with features from the picture of the ‘Ancient of Days’ (God) of Dan. 7, this is not to say that Christ is equal with God. In Rev. a distinction is always made between God and the ‘Lamb’.”

Surely the overall view of the Scriptures points to the fact that Jesus was not God as the Trinity doctrine claims.

Is Jesus God?

Again let God’s Word clarify the matter. When the angel announced Jesus’ birth to Mary, he said: “The Holy which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.” (Luke 1:35, Dy) Jesus never claimed to be God. However, the Jews accused him of making himself God, but he corrected them and said: “I am the Son of God.”—John 10:33-36, Dy.

Just before he died Jesus cried out: “My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?” (Matthew 27:46, Dy) After his resurrection he said: “I ascend to my Father and to your Father, to my God and your God.” (John 20:17, Dy) On another occasion he said: “The Father is greater than I.” (John 14:28, Dy) Obviously God, Jehovah (or, Yahweh), does not need to pray to anyone. But Jesus prayed often to his Father in heaven, at times “with a strong cry and tears . . . And whereas indeed he was the Son of God, he learned obedience by the things which he suffered.” (Hebrews 5:7, 8, Dy) Almighty God, the Father, could never die. But our hope of salvation rests on the fact that Jesus did die.

For these and many other very cogent reasons, true Christians maintain that Jesus is not God, but, rather, his Son, and therefore that Mary is not the “Mother of God.” Moreover, Jesus once said: “God is spirit, and those who worship must worship in spirit and truth.” (John 4:24, JB) On the other hand, the cult of Mary has diverted the devotion and worship of millions of sincere people from the Creator to a creature. This is tragic in view of the Bible’s condemnation of those “who changed the truth of God into a lie and worshipped and served the creature rather than the Creator.”—Romans 1:25, Dy.

Lech Walesa, the popular Polish leader, is reported to have said, when under heavy strain: “No, no. I’m not scared. I always have Mother Mary behind me.” But is he looking to the true source of protection? Students of the Bible, when under stress, will follow this inspired counsel: “Do not be anxious over anything, but in everything by prayer and supplication along with thanksgiving let your petitions be made known to God; and the peace of God that excels all thought will guard your hearts and your mental powers by means of Christ Jesus.”—Philippians 4:6, 7.

[Footnotes]

“In popular usage, ‘devotion to Mary’ is synonymous with the ‘cult of Mary.’”—New Catholic Encyclopedia, Volume 9, page 364, paragraph 4.

[Picture on page 23]

Virgen del Pilar

not really,just tht since we dnt fix time c or talk when u r free i might be bizzy,thts all, we can always fix atime to talk

ur yahoo id, probably ur phone num if u dnt mind

how can u get close to a lady wtout havn sex wt her as in real close stayn together 2 4

jay baby who r u, hope u r not this harsh real life

kiki can get to meet
use ur messenger

kiki,hello

tru to wht mamaput said,use of rug is an asthmatic patient room is bad cause it collect dust so dnt lie on the rug preferable carpet or tile if u can afford it so u will mop it well,

all u need to do is to study urself carefully,try and know ur own caause of ur asthma whter is certain food or pest or dust,when u'd done tht then u will know which way to go and when under attack do lesws work drink much water and try sit at a uprightposition angle 90 on a chair,if u feel the attack at night b4 u sleep,dnt botha eating tht 9t, caus eating will increase the attack,

[color=#000099][/color] go and meet stella obj for advise