₦airaland Forum

SIRTee15:
Above is a lie.
The 7 Christians believed in the 2nd coming of CHRIST AND RESSURECTION OF THE DEAD IN FLESH.
And then Maximilian said to him: “Believe us, for in truth Our Lord has raised us before the day of the great resurrection. And so that you might believe firmly in the resurrection of the dead, verily we are raised as you see, and live. And like the child is in the womb of his mother without feeling harm or hurt, in the same wise we have been living and sleeping, lying here without feeling anything.”

And after giving this witness, they inclined their heads to the earth, and gave up their spirits at the command of Our Lord Jesus Christ, and so died.

So I asked again, if u are saying these men are Christians and the Quran calls them believers....what is their believe?

So??

We Muslims believe in 2nd coming of Christ and resurrection of the dead in flesh too

The back story to that was that prior to their resurfacing, there had been argument among Christians wether there is going to be resurrection of body in the last day and they saw them as a proof.

Qasim6:
What exactly are you working? What do you mean no Christian sect ever believed Jesus was a mere prophet all his life?

The Ebionites which scholars believed to have held a view closer to that of the original Apostles believed Jesus was a mere man, a prophet, they denied his divinity and pre-existence. So what are you talking about?

Ebionites believed Jesus was adopted as Son of God at his baptism, then became the Messiah in order to fulfil the scriptures.
Ebionites believed Jesus was crucified, died a martyr and resurrected in a spiritual body.
Yes the rejected divine birth of Jesus and followed the gospel of Matthew as the scripture.
They also believed he was the prophet spoke about by Moses.
So they cannot be called believers according to the Qur'an. Try harder.

I repeat, no gnostic Christian ever believed Jesus was a mere prophet throughout his life time. There's always an elevation along the way- either in his life or death.

SIRTee15:
U didn't answer my question. We know Allah claimed he's omnipotent and omniscience, but we need to put the claim to test to prove its credibility.
claim is not enough, the evidence backing up such claim should never be in doubt
But Allah's thinking is depicting him as he's dependent on another existence if he decides to have a son, that's the issue.
Why should Allah's ability to bring forth a son be dependent on another being if he's all powerful.
we know Allah will never have a son, but if he decides to have one, he still cannot do it; because he has no compatible spouse that WILL HELP HIM BRING FORTH THE SON.
Above is the crux of the matter.
If Allah is all powerful, why should he think he needs help from another existence to produce a son. Why is he incapable of bringing forth a Son by himself.

Note this are hypothetical statement made by Allah himself in the Quran, so dont bring up the issue of debating theoretical impossibilities.

"Allah bringing forth a son" what does that even mean.?
It will still go back to Allah willing this son into existence which simply means creating a son, how is that son different from all of his other creations?
God is telling us the Idea of him having a son is beneath him.

The only way there can be that special son you are thinking about is if we have a man God and a woman God and they procreate to give us a son God. Anything short of that you are just a creation of God.

The Idea that God is omnipotent exclude things that are beneath him
God cannot become a man
God cannot cease to exist
God cannot have a son
God cannot lie
Things like these are beneath God.

SIRTee15:
so if sleeping with a prepubescent girl is a sin, then explain why the Quran writes that husband should wait 3 months before divorcing their prepubescent wives.
If the husband is not sleeping with his prepubescent girl, why would he have to wait 3 months to be sure she's not pregnant b4 divorcing her.

It is permissible to give young girls in marriage in Islam, and that has always been the case every where in the world.

But if the girl is not matured yet for intercourse, be it she is yet to see her period or not ready physically then it is not permissible for her guardian to give her to her husband till she's able for it. as we see in the case of the prophet marriage with Aisha.

So Qur'an 65:4 that you are alluding to is not talking about prepubescent girls. because even if they have been married, they have no business in the man household as of yet.

There are cases of Women that have matured physically and in age but never see their period a condition known as Amenorrhea. are these women not deserve to be married ?.
So that verse is clearly describing women that are advanced in age, they are matured physically but they never see their period. Because prepubescent married girl wouldn't even be in the man household for a start.

SIRTee15:
irrelevant to the discussion here. The issue here is objective morality which can only come from God.
humans are free to shift the age of consent as they like. Even if they move it to 2yrs, it doesnt change the objective morality from God.
That's why I asked u, is pedophilia a sin in Islam?

So what is the Objective morality of God in Christainity concerning marriageable age for girls? and what has it been over the centuries?
Did the early church fathers not talk about it at all?
Because I really want to know your take with the way you guys are always quick to play this pedophile card against Islam and our Prophet.

Qasim6:
So??

We Muslims believe in 2nd coming of Christ and resurrection of the dead in flesh too

The back story to that was that prior to their resurfacing, there had been argument among Christians wether there is going to be resurrection of body in the last day and they saw them as a proof.

Do U believe Jesus is the one that will resurrect the dead bodies because that's what the 7 sleepers believed.


And then Maximilian said to him: “Believe us, for in truth Our Lord has raised us before the day of the great resurrection. And so that you might believe firmly in the resurrection of the dead, verily we are raised as you see, and live. And like the child is in the womb of his mother without feeling harm or hurt, in the same wise we have been living and sleeping, lying here without feeling anything.”

And after giving this witness, they inclined their heads to the earth, and gave up their spirits at the command of Our Lord Jesus Christ, and so died.

SIRTee15:
Ebionites believed Jesus was adopted as Son of God at his baptism, then became the Messiah in order to fulfil the scriptures.
Ebionites believed Jesus was crucified, died a martyr and resurrected in a spiritual body.
Yes the rejected divine birth of Jesus and followed the gospel of Matthew as the scripture.
They also believed he was the prophet spoke about by Moses.
So they cannot be called believers according to the Qur'an. Try harder.

I repeat, no gnostic Christian ever believed Jesus was a mere prophet throughout his life time. There's always an elevation along the way- either in his life or death.

So??
You are still letting this Christianity understanding of the term "son of God" get in your head.

I also believe Jesus is son of God the way the Jews would have understood the term in the first century or how Jesus followers would have understood it while he was walking on this earth.

What we can gather about what the Ebionites believed are brought to us by their opponents i.e the gentile Christians i.e the Pauline Christians, For some reason we don't know non of their writings survive. So we can not say their opponent present them accurately.

Just so you know, the gospel of Matthew they used is not the same as the one we have now o
The one they used was written in Hebrew and it was described in way that it is different from the forged one we have now.

So what do you mean they can't be called believers by the Qur'an?

SIRTee15:
Do U believe Jesus is the one that will resurrect the dead bodies because that's what the 7 sleepers believed.


And then Maximilian said to him: “Believe us, for in truth Our Lord has raised us before the day of the great resurrection. And so that you might believe firmly in the resurrection of the dead, verily we are raised as you see, and live. And like the child is in the womb of his mother without feeling harm or hurt, in the same wise we have been living and sleeping, lying here without feeling anything.”

And after giving this witness, they inclined their heads to the earth, and gave up their spirits at the command of Our Lord Jesus Christ, and so died.

No, I don't believe that

Why do you think the word Lord automatically means Jesus ?

Qasim6:
So??
You are still letting this Christianity understanding of the term "son of God" get in your head.

I also believe Jesus is son of God the way the Jews would have understood the term in the first century or how Jesus followers would have understood it while he was walking on this earth.

What we can gather about what the Ebionites believed are brought to us by their opponents i.e the gentile Christians i.e the Pauline Christians, For some reason we don't know non of their writings survive. So we can not say their opponent present them accurately.

Just so you know, the gospel of Matthew they used is not the same as the one we have now o
The one they used was written in Hebrew and it was described in way that it is different from the forged one we have now.

So what do you mean they can't be called believers by the Qur'an?

Jesus being the Son of God has been thrashed. U failed to bring one single evidence in that debate.
Jews believed in a Son of God that's divine.


So Is there a Jesus being the Son of God that's accepted in the Quran?
Was Jesus crucified, died and resurrected according to the Qur'an.
Ebionites believed in the above so they can't be Muslims.

Stop all these deflecting choose and pick argument U like to do.
How did U get to know about the ebionites...
Was it not thru the writings of the early church fathers.
They left nothing behind for us to know who they were. Everything we know was from the church fathers.
So why do U want to choose and pick what to believe from those who wrote about them when U know nothing about the ebionites without these Christian documents.

Qasim6:
No, I don't believe that

Why do you think the word Lord automatically means Jesus ?

Then bring me what they said.
Since U reject what was written about them by Christians, bring me what U know about them from non Christian sources.

SIRTee15:
ARE U OK?
if the husband is not harming the little girl, why did your Quran say men should wait 3 months b4 divorcing a prepubescent girl.

Yes i am OK. You are the one with the half truth called lies! The Qur'an refers to those who are not doing menstruation and this includes menopausal ladies.

If the husband is not wounding the poor girl in the other room, why would your Allah say the husband should wait 3 months and be sure the girl is not pregnant b4 kicking her out of his house.
answer my question.

You lack knowledge as the Iddah (waiting period) is for all women who are divorced or widowed! This is why i say you guys just lie you have holy spirit that guides you! Does Holy spirit guide you to form all these lies now?

According to the Islamic Shari`ah, the iddah is a waiting period with certain exigencies required of a woman when the appropriate condition exists; either divorce or death of her husband.

As for divorce , the ‘iddah for a pregnant woman is until she delivers her child.

The ‘iddah for one who still menstruates, is three menstrual cycles, whereas for one who is either too young or too old to menstruate, it is three months.

As for the widow whose husband has passed away, if she is pregnant then her ‘iddah is until she delivers her child; otherwise, it is four months and ten days.

And Allah knows best.

Where is the wound coming from to the menopausal women?

SIRTee15:
Jesus being the Son of God has been thrashed. U failed to bring one single evidence in that debate.
Jews believed in a Son of God that's divine.


So Is there a Jesus being the Son of God that's accepted in the Quran?
Was Jesus crucified, died and resurrected according to the Qur'an.
Ebionites believed in the above so they can't be Muslims.

Stop all these deflecting choose and pick argument U like to do.
How did U get to know about the ebionites...
Was it not thru the writings of the early church fathers.
They left nothing behind for us to know who they were. Everything we know was from the church fathers.
So why do U want to choose and pick what to believe from those who wrote about them when U know nothing about the ebionites without these Christian documents.

You thrashed nothing bro, you are just deceiving yourself.

Let's go to the gospel of John where the term was used extensively.

In John 10:30 where Jesus was reported to have said "I and the Father are one" and the Jews tried to stone him he said to them “I have shown you many good works from the Father. For which of these do you stone me?” they said he claimed to be God and Jesus responded back that is it not written in your Law, ‘I have said you are “gods"’? That he is only claiming to be Son of God.

Why did Jesus used that to debunk their claim of blasphemy? Was he using what they would have considered to be blasphemous title to refute their accusation of blasphemy?

And Why did they not accused him of blasphemy for calling himself son of God if what they believed that meant was he's claiming to be divine?


Of course the Qur'an let us know the meaning of the title "son of God"

Q21:26 And they say, “The Most Merciful has taken a son.” Exalted is He! Rather, they are [but] honored servants.

Even if the Ebionites believed in death and resurrection of Jesus, they did not see it as vicarious atonement. Because they continue to follow the law and Paul was apostate to them. In my book they are Muslims of their time.

Qasim6:
You thrashed nothing bro, you are just deceiving yourself.

Let's go to the gospel of John where the term was used extensively.

In John 10:30 where Jesus was reported to have said "I and the Father are one" and the Jews tried to stone him he said to them “I have shown you many good works from the Father. For which of these do you stone me?” they said he claimed to be God and Jesus responded back that is it not written in your Law, ‘I have said you are “gods"’? That he is only claiming to be Son of God.

Why did Jesus used that to debunk their claim of blasphemy? Was he using what they would have considered to be blasphemous title to refute their accusation of blasphemy?

And Why did they not accused him of blasphemy for calling himself son of God if what they believed that meant was he's claiming to be devine?


Of course the Qur'an let us know the meaning of the title "son of God"

Q21:26 And they say, “The Most Merciful has taken a son.” Exalted is He! Rather, they are [but] honored servants.

Even if the Ebionites believed in death and resurrection of Jesus, they did not see it as vicarious atonement. Because they continue to follow the law and Paul was apostate to them. In my book they are Muslims of their time.

are you serious!!!

Kingsempires:
are you serious!!!

About what?

Qasim6:
About what?

about what you Quran explained

Qasim6:
Of course the Qur'an let us know the meaning of the title "son of God"

Q21:26 And they say, “The Most Merciful has taken a son.” Exalted is He! Rather, they are [but] honored servants.

so the bible didn't explained the meaning of "son of God" is now your Quran that explained it abi

Kingsempires:
about what you Quran explainedso the bible didn't explained the meaning of "son of God" is now your Quran that explained it abi

What is the meaning of "Son of God" according to the Bible?

AntiChristian:
Yes i am OK. You are the one with the half truth called lies! The Qur'an refers to those who are not doing menstruation and this includes menopausal ladies.



You lack knowledge as the Iddah (waiting period) is for all women who are divorced or widowed! This is why i say you guys just lie you have holy spirit that guides you! Does Holy spirit guide you to form all these lies now?



Where is the wound coming from to the menopausal women?

Oga explain the highlighteg to me.
Those I highlighted....who are they?
Remember U brought the evidence, so explain the evidence U brought with your own hands.

Qasim6:
You thrashed nothing bro, you are just deceiving yourself.
.

Ok, I have heard U.
I sha know it's impossible for me to ignore evidence and be accepting illogical claims from someone who haven't brought one single evidence since this argument began.

Son of God as divine in the dead sea scrolls text.

Qasim6:
You thrashed nothing bro, you are just deceiving yourself.

Let's go to the gospel of John where the term was used extensively.

In John 10:30 where Jesus was reported to have said "I and the Father are one" and the Jews tried to stone him he said to them “I have shown you many good works from the Father. For which of these do you stone me?” they said he claimed to be God and Jesus responded back that is it not written in your Law, ‘I have said you are “gods"’? That he is only claiming to be Son of God.

Why did Jesus used that to debunk their claim of blasphemy? Was he using what they would have considered to be blasphemous title to refute their accusation of blasphemy?

And Why did they not accused him of blasphemy for calling himself son of God if what they believed that meant was he's claiming to be divine?

That verse U quoted has nothing to do with Jesus being the Son of God. The verse is about Jesus being God.

Let's see what Jesus himself said about being the Son of God. Directly from his mouth not some illogical or wuruwuru deduction.
Mark 14

Again the high priest asked him, “Are you the Messiah, the Son of the Blessed One?”

62 “I am,” said Jesus. “And you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Mighty One and coming on the clouds of heaven.”

63 The high priest tore his clothes. “Why do we need any more witnesses?” he asked. 64 “You have heard the blasphemy. What do you think?”

In case U not aware, Jesus' statement as the Son of Man coming from the clouds is a reference to Daniel 7.13
13 “In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man,[a] coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence
That was why the high Priest shouted blasphemy.

Qasim6:
Even if the Ebionites believed in death and resurrection of Jesus, they did not see it as vicarious atonement. Because they continue to follow the law and Paul was apostate to them. In my book they are Muslims of their time.

Antichristian and honesttalk do U agree with him?
Qasim is calling Ebionites Muslims.
People who believed in the death and resssurection of Jesus can be called Muslims.
I thought the Qur'an is the eternal word of God, So U mean the definition of Muslim was different during the time of Jesus.
So are U saying during the time of Jesus, someone who believed in the death and resssurection of Jesus, who also believed Jesus is the adopted Son of God can be called a Muslim?
what then is the usefulness of the injil that Jesus brought if this heresy abound amongst true Muslims believers who were followers of Isa.
What exactly did Isa taught? If Isa didn't teach that he's the adopted Son of God, where did the ebionites muslims learn it from? Who taught them?

Me I don't understand again, because what Qasim is arguing here is really confusing.
AntiChristian and honesttalk pls clarify.

Qasim6:
No, I don't believe that

Why do you think the word Lord automatically means Jesus ?

because Lord in Christianity is always used for Jesus Christ. God is used for Father.

If U disagree pls bring counter evidence otherwise rest.

Qasim6:
Just so you know, the gospel of Matthew they used is not the same as the one we have now o
The one they used was written in Hebrew and it was described in way that it is different from the forged one we have now.

How do U know what's in the Hebrew Mathew gospel. Do I have it's contents.
What we know is that it contains the logia of Jesus.
And Didache - a eucharist used by Jewish Christians in the first century has lots of passages on the logia of Jesus from the gospel of Mathew we have today.
In fact U will think Didache is a repetition of the Mathew gospel.
.and FYI- Didache was believed to have been written in the 50- 70AD.

SIRTee15:
Oga explain the highlighteg to me.
Those I highlighted....who are they?
Remember U brought the evidence, so explain the evidence U brought with your own hands.

Did you mention menopausal woman?

Didn't you mention wound?

Show us where you saw wound or injury for both menopausal and prepubescent girls?

Qasim6:
It is permissible to give young girls in marriage in Islam, and that has always been the case every where in the world.

But if the girl is not matured yet for intercourse, be it she is yet to see her period or not ready physically then it is not permissible for her guardian to give her to her husband till she's able for it. as we see in the case of the prophet marriage with Aisha.

So Qur'an 65:4 that you are alluding to is not talking about prepubescent girls. because even if they have been married, they have no business in the man household as of yet.

There are cases of Women that have matured physically and in age but never see their period a condition known as Amenorrhea. are these women not deserve to be married ?.
So that verse is clearly describing women that are advanced in age, they are matured physically but they never see their period. Because prepubescent married girl wouldn't even be in the man household for a start.

I keep saying it Modern enlightened Muslims are becoming ashamed of their Quran that in the near future they will pioneer the effort to reinterpret the book by writing their own tafsir and hadiths.
I can bet that Qasim has never met an 18 year old girl with primary ammenorrhea in his life- that's because they are so rare.
By age 16, 99.99% of all teenage girls would have attained menarche. Yet he's hanging his hope on a select group of extremely rare girls to safe his book from embarrassment.
well lets see what the TAFSIR OF THE VERSE HAS TO SAY

Kathir - Ibn Al Kathir
The `Iddah of Those in Menopause and Those Who do not have Menses
Allah the Exalted clarifies the waiting period of the woman in menopause. And that is the one whose menstruation has stopped due to her older age. Her `Iddah is three months instead of the three monthly cycles for those who menstruate, which is based upon the Ayah in (Surat) Al-Baqarah. see 2:228 The same for the young, who have not reached the years of menstruation. Their `Iddah is three months like those in menopause. This is the meaning of His saying;

Qasim and Honesttalk will come here now and argue Ibn Kathir is on his own and didn't speak for Muhammed. so let me bring another great Islamic scholar and what he said about the verse....

Abbas - Tanwîr al-Miqbâs min Tafsîr Ibn ‘Abbâs
(And for such of your women as despair of menstruation) because of old age, (if ye doubt) about their waiting period, (their period (of waiting) shall be three months) upon which another man asked: “O Messenger of Allah! What about the waiting period of those who do not have menstruation because they are too young?” (along with those who have it not) because of young age, their waiting period is three months. Another man asked: “what is the waiting period for those women who are pregnant?” (And for those with child) i.e. those who are pregnant, (their period) their waiting period (shall be till they bring forth their burden) their child. (And whosoever keepeth his duty to Allah) and whoever fears Allah regarding what he commands him, (He maketh his course easy for him) He makes his matter easy; and it is also said this means: He will help him to worship Him well.


Even Jalalayn talk him own.....

Jalal - Al-Jalalayn
And [as for] those of your women who (read allā’ī or allā’i in both instances) no longer expect to menstruate, if you have any doubts, about their waiting period, their prescribed [waiting] period shall be three months, and [also for] those who have not yet menstruated, because of their young age, their period shall [also] be three months — both cases apply to other than those whose spouses have died; for these [latter] their period is prescribed in the verse: they shall wait by themselves for four months and ten [days] [Q. 2:234]. And those who are pregnant, their term, the conclusion of their prescribed [waiting] period if divorced or if their spouses be dead, shall be when they deliver. And whoever fears God, He will make matters ease for him, in this world and in the Hereafter.

Now Qasim, I will ask YOU the question again....IS SEX WITH A PREPUBESCENT GIRL A SIN ACCORDING TO THE QURAN?
honesttalk, u can help your brother answer the question.

I wont bother calling AntiChristian or Abutwin, those ones no kuku get shame...they will say anything to cover up the Quran even if it doesnt make sense. Their conscience is long dead.

Qasim6:
So what is the Objective morality of God in Christainity concerning marriageable age for girls? and what has it been over the centuries?
Did the early church fathers not talk about it at all?
Because I really want to know your take with the way you guys are always quick to play this pedophile card against Islam and our Prophet.

Marriage is for adult women.
read proverbs 31. 10-31. That's the expectation for a wife in the bible.
If u think a prepubescent girl can meet those expectation, then I dont think we should be having this discussion in the first place.

AntiChristian:
Did you mention menopausal woman?

Didn't you mention wound?

Show us where you saw wound or injury for both menopausal and prepubescent girls?

are u suffering from cognitive dissonance. I'm asking u about prepubescent girls, what's my business with menopausal women.
What's a girl too young to menstruate doing with a matured adult male in the other room?

Qasim6:
"Allah bringing forth a son" what does that even mean.?
It will still go back to Allah willing this son into existence which simply means creating a son, how is that son different from all of his other creations?
God is telling us the Idea of him having a son is beneath him.

The only way there can be that special son you are thinking about is if we have a man God and a woman God and they procreate to give us a son God. Anything short of that you are just a creation of God.

The Idea that God is omnipotent exclude things that are beneath him
God cannot become a man
God cannot cease to exist
God cannot have a son
God cannot lie
Things like these are beneath God.

u still dont get, u are even making things worse for your Allah.
In today's modern world, u dont need a partner to have a child. Human genetic cloning has made such concept a possibility.
They now grow human embryo and zygote in the lab from just one person NOT two. We had the first human clone few years ago in china!!!
The reason it's not common is because of ethical issues, the technology is there.
How come Allah didnt know of cloning when he was dictating the Quran to muhammed.
If humans can generate another human from within him, what stop almighty Allah from doing the same. How come he didnt know that was a possibility.
Sorry but looks like a serious knowledge deficit on the part of Allah which shows he's NOT ALL KNOWING.

SIRTee15:
are u suffering from cognitive dissonance. I'm asking u about prepubescent girls, what's my business with menopausal women.
What's a girl too young to menstruate doing with a matured adult male in the other room?

Surah At-Talaq, verse 4 of the Quran addresses the issue of waiting period (iddah) for women after divorce.

Translation of the meaning of this verse is
And those who no longer expect menstruation among your women - if you doubt, then their period is three months, and [also for] those who have not menstruated. And for those who are pregnant, their term is until they give birth. And whoever fears Allah - He will make for him of his matter ease.

This verse is specific to the waiting period in cases of divorce and does not condone or promote any form of harm or exploitation of women.

Your major concern is about those who have not menstrated isn't It?

With regards to this the historical interpretation by classical scholars is to allow marriage with prepubescent girls, which was common in many ancient cultures. However, the consummation of marriage was generally expected to occur after the girl reached puberty. Even at that there are many "adult" women well over 30 that have terribly irregular periods. I dare say it is even genetic as I have seen this in someone about 50 and her 24 years old daughter.

In the modern context, this verse is often discussed in light of changing cultural norms and legal standards regarding the age of marriage. Many contemporary scholars emphasize the importance of physical and emotional maturity in marriage and argue that cultural practices should evolve with time while adhering to Islamic principles of justice and care.

So while this verse particularly reflects historical practices, contemporary interpretations may emphasize the need for physical and emotional maturity in marriage, considering modern understandings of human development and rights.

Note the practicalities of revelation in tandem with actual realities. There were no arbitrary revelations to push for sudden apparently draconian laws.

Do not feign ignorance of the illegal abusive behind the scenes gross abuse of minor girls worldwide nor regard this sentence as a form of justification.

SIRTee15:
we not talking about divorce here. we talking about marrying your adopted son ex wife.
if your adopted son is getting married, U as his adopted father will approve of the marriage and help join the couples hands in marriage.
In Yoruba culture, the bride will even sit on your lap on the wedding day as sign she's now your daughter in law and part of your family.

How u find it acceptable to have sex with someone who had called u daddy and who u referred to as daughter in law is really perplexing.
Your argument of divorce having problem getting married makes no sense. There are millions of divorcee looking for new husband, how come its your daughter in law your eyes dey chook.
sorry, I dont know bout u but I find it nauseating knowing a woman previously known by someone that calls me Father.
That quran says its permissible doesnt make it right.
We have our culture b4 Islam and our culture frown at such despicable act.

Did the marriage not follow from divorce?

Do you also say divorcees shouldn't remarry?

Is the axiom not about marrying the divorced wife of an adopted son?

The point is no matter human sentiment or emotions an adopted child can never equal biological. Therein is the lesson

If I may ask should we continue in ungodly activities because of an attachment to culture?

honesttalk21:
Did the marriage not follow from divorce?

Do you also say divorcees shouldn't remarry?

Is the axiom not about marrying the divorced wife of an adopted son?

The point is no matter human sentiment or emotions an adopted child can never equal biological. Therein is the lesson

If I may ask should we continue in ungodly activities because of an attachment to culture?

How is adoption ungodly. who made it ungodly.

SIRTee15:
are u suffering from cognitive dissonance. I'm asking u about prepubescent girls, what's my business with menopausal women.
What's a girl too young to menstruate doing with a matured adult male in the other room?

It's half truth when you mention wound for prepubescent girls and kept mute for menopausal woman! You are a liar!

The law goes together for both of them! Why separate them to achieve your false aim?

And is there any copulation mentioned therein?

honesttalk21:
Surah At-Talaq, verse 4 of the Quran addresses the issue of waiting period (iddah) for women after divorce.

Translation of the meaning of this verse is
And those who no longer expect menstruation among your women - if you doubt, then their period is three months, and [also for] those who have not menstruated. And for those who are pregnant, their term is until they give birth. And whoever fears Allah - He will make for him of his matter ease.

This verse is specific to the waiting period in cases of divorce and does not condone or promote any form of harm or exploitation of women.

Your major concern is about those who have not menstrated isn't It?

With regards to this the historical interpretation by classical scholars is to allow marriage with prepubescent girls, which was common in many ancient cultures. However, the consummation of marriage was generally expected to occur after the girl reached puberty. Even at that there are many "adult" women well over 30 that have terribly irregular periods. I dare say it is even genetic as I have seen this in someone about 50 and her 24 years old daughter.

In the modern context, this verse is often discussed in light of changing cultural norms and legal standards regarding the age of marriage. Many contemporary scholars emphasize the importance of physical and emotional maturity in marriage and argue that cultural practices should evolve with time while adhering to Islamic principles of justice and care.

So while this verse particularly reflects historical practices, contemporary interpretations may emphasize the need for physical and emotional maturity in marriage, considering modern understandings of human development and rights.

Note the practicalities of revelation in tandem with actual realities. There were no arbitrary revelations to push for sudden apparently draconian laws.

Do not feign ignorance of the illegal abusive behind the scenes gross abuse of minor girls worldwide nor regard this sentence as a form of justification.

u talk too much
why should Quran be asking prepubescent girls to wait for 3 months b4 being kicked out of their husband house if there was no prior sex.
the iddah was set up to prevent a woman leaving her failed marriage with pregnancy.
can a woman be pregnant without sex?
So obviously the husband has been sleeping with the young girl for Allah to say she must wait 3 months just to r/o pregnancy b4 leaving her husband house

AntiChristian:
It's half truth when you mention wound for prepubescent girls and kept mute for menopausal woman! You are a liar!

The law goes together for both of them! Why separate them to achieve your false aim?

menopausal women can endure rigours of sex, they had it all their life's.
young girl pelvis is still developing and any penetration can lead to injury.

AntiChristian:
And is there any copulation mentioned therein?

is pregnancy possible without copulation?
why is iddah set up by Allah? why is Allah saying wives should wait 3 months b4 divorce is completed.

SIRTee15:
Marriage is for adult women.
read proverbs 31. 10-31. That's the expectation for a wife in the bible.
If u think a prepubescent girl can meet those expectation, then I dont think we should be having this discussion in the first place.

Biblical Pedophilia
I don't think your Bible specifies any age for a woman to marry. Women are married without age restriction and this is the cultural law in the Bible. For example in Numbers 31, verse 17 and 18 states that all men (babies, young and old) be killed. In contrast, all women who were not virgins are to be killed. The emphasis is on VIRGINITY i.e. hymen! So women with hymen are spared! The Virgins are to be kept for the warriors as shown in bold below.

Numbers 31:17-18:
"Now therefore, kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman who has known a man intimately. But keep alive for yourselves all the young girls who have not known a man intimately."

All in bold is the fact that young girls were mentioned.

So we should agree that all the babies, and toddlers and young girls were among the 32,000 young girls spared for the warriors!

So what were they spared for?

Marriage or sex slave!

Numbers 31:18 mentions young girls, girls, women children and Amplified Bible mentions marriage!

New International Version
but save for yourselves every girl who has never slept with a man.

New Living Translation
Only the young girls who are virgins may live; you may keep them for yourselves.

English Standard Version
But all the young girls who have not known man by lying with him keep alive for yourselves.

Berean Standard Bible
but spare for yourselves every girl who has never had relations with a man.

King James Bible
But all the women children, that have not known a man by lying with him, keep alive for yourselves.

New King James Version
But keep alive for yourselves all the young girls who have not known a man intimately.

New American Standard Bible
However, all the girls who have not known a man intimately, keep alive for yourselves.

NASB 1995
“But all the girls who have not known man intimately, spare for yourselves.

NASB 1977
“But all the girls who have not known man intimately, spare for yourselves.

Legacy Standard Bible
But all the girls who have not known man intimately, spare for yourselves.

Amplified Bible
But all the young girls who have not known a man intimately, keep alive for yourselves [to marry].