₦airaland Forum

TenQ:
Google AI is your friend

You will note that the daughters of Hubal are the daughters of Allah. Hubal is the visible idol representing Allah. This is why a sacrifice to Hubal was a sacrifice to Allah

honesttalk21:
Your demand sets an unrealistic and contradictory standard. No theistic tradition demonstrates its Creator through empirical displays of power; Judaism, Christianity, Islam, and philosophy all depend on logical reasoning, and coherence. It is arbitrary to hold Islam to a different standard. Islam's assertion of Allah as the Creator is based on a non-mythical, non-composite God without images, lineage, or a pantheon aligning with Abrahamic monotheism and supported by metaphysical reasoning rather than spectacle. You provide no counter-evidence, only dismissal. If observable power is a requirement, then all forms of theism would fail equally, not just Islam. I will expect you to show otherwise.
Your last has been previously addressed.

honesttalk21:
You should send the weblink for this. Why is the phrase in betwen quotation marks? Is it fallible AI you rely on? It's making a lot of sense now.

honesttalk21:
Qur’an 53:49 does not refer to Allah as a star deity; instead, it refutes the idea that Sirius is divine. In Semitic language, the phrase Lord of X indicates authority over X rather than being the same as X. Even the verse you quote and choose to deliberately misread or misinterprete shows this: And that it is He (Allah) who is the Lord of Sirius. By this who is the Lord of Sirius? ? ?
For instance, if Allah were called the Lord of the heavens and the earth, it wouldn’t mean He is the sky or the ground, which is clearly illogical. Historically, Sirius (al-Shiʿra) was worshipped in pre-Islamic Arabia. The verse places the star under Allah’s authority to remove its divine status, not to assign one to it. Allah is not considered the god of Sirius in a pagan context; rather, He is the Lord of (over) Sirius. The mistake lies in confusing lordship (rububiyyah) with identity (uluhiyyah). Recognizing this distinction undermines the claim.

TenQ:
You are repeating your position to which I have given you a clear answer. You can't force me to say what I did not explicitly state about As-Samad (collection). Go back and look at what I said.

At least, you now know that Allah is the god/lord of Sirius. It is like saying that Allah is the Moon-god

Again, Ahad is not ONE but ONE-OF. One of the tricks of the deceiver to imprison your mind

If you deny this, show me any verse with Ahad in the Qur'an that means ONE apart from the fake translation in Qur'an 112:1. Note: The word Ahad appears about 93 times in the Qur'an and EVERY TIME it connotes ONE-OF many or group/ ANY-OF etc. Ahad is always a Selection of One out of a GROUP.

Royal we!?
And you think this is wisdom!?

Royal we is ALWAYS the King AND his Cabinet. , meaning that he is NOT acting ALONE but with his council.

If Allah is using the royal we, then he depends upon his creation for his powers OR like Legion, he is many!

Have you confirmed that the daughters of Allah are the daughters of Hubal? Have you confirmed that Allah is the god/Lord of Sirius? These have serious implications. Have you confirmed that Taoheed is UNIFICATION?

Sorry. No amount of struggles will make Islam of God the Creator.

I am still waiting for any evidence that Allah is the Creator!

TenQ:
No wonder, there exist no iota of evidence that Allah is the Creator other than he is aka
Hubal,
As-Samad (the collection) and
Lord of Sirius (star constellation).Each of these names are of pre-islamic Arab deities such that Allah is indeed Taoheed (unification) of these Deities.

So you have any evidence that Allah is the Creator other than Mohammed's claims?

TenQ:
Sorry it is too late

Lord of Sirius is exactly like saying the Moon god or the sun-god or the sea-god.

No difference!





Don't you see the connection with Allah swearing by the stars or by the fig or by Mecca or by the Pen.
Allah these show the human being writing and impasonating God. Why should the Creator swear by the mundane?

TenQ:
Just search for the phrase "daughters of Hubal"

honesttalk21:
Your answer is not supported by what you actually wrote:


The phrase Lord of Sirius (Q 53:49) criticizes the worship of stars and does not equate Allah with a star, which contradicts your interpretation. And that is he (Allah) Lord of Sirius; why you choose to misrepresent this I don't know.

In Qur'anic Arabic, "Ahad" signifies complete and indivisible oneness; your interpretation of it as one among many does not hold up in Q 112:1 or in classical dictionaries. For sake of mischief you feign amnesia about word meanings and context especially in Arabic and other Semitic language?
The use of We in royal contexts is a common Semitic expression of majesty, similar to its usage in the Bible, and does not imply plurality or dependence. Your new definition must be some new protocol and differs from the age long norm.
Regarding the Creator, the Qur'an clearly states this multiple times in example, Q 6:102; 21:30; 39:62. You can choose to refute this all you want but that remains untrue unless you want to provide same for the Christian God. Tending towards Jesus as God in the form of man will only cause you more confusion.

honesttalk21:
If that worked I wouldn't have asked for your link. Results I get clearly differs from yours.

honesttalk21:
Is there no huwa;He,before the Lord? Is He before this same as the moon god?
Or you want to translate it as he Lord of Sirius?

Use your translator to translate the transliteration wa-annahu rabb al-shi‘ra.

TenQ:
Sorry it is too late

Lord of Sirius is exactly like saying the Moon god or the sun-god or the sea-god.

No difference!




Don't you see the connection with Allah swearing by the stars or by the fig or by Mecca or by the Pen.
Allah these show the human being writing and impasonating God. Why should the Creator swear by the mundane?

TenQ:
Quran 53:49
"And that He (Allah) is the Lord of Sirius (the Mighty Star)"

honesttalk21:
This statement indicates that Allah is both the creator and the authority over Sirius, the brightest star visible at night. It highlights Allah's control over all heavenly bodies and rejects the notion of worshipping stars or other gods.

When you say King Charles is the Lord of England does it mean King Charles is England? You must make your view make sense.

TenQ:
https://courses.lumenlearning.com/atd-herkimer-worldcivilization/chapter/culture-and-religion-in-pre-islamic-arabia/#:~:text=The%20chief%20god%20in%20pre,idolatry%20of%20pre%2DIslamic%20religion.

TenQ:
Muslims!
They will twist anything to defend Allah and his prophet!
Allah is the god of the Moon?
Allah is the god of the Sea?
Allah is the god of the Desert?

honesttalk21:
Specifically answer, does Sirius have a Lord? Is Lord of Sirius the sane as Lord Sirius? Let us know If you truly understand the English language you type in.

1. Does Ahad mean one-of many? By lexicons; No, it does not. Classical Arabic dictionaries clearly differentiate Ahad from Wahid. According to Lisan al-Arab (Ibn Manzur), Ahad signifies a complete oneness that cannot be divided or viewed as plural. It is not used to refer to counted items. Taj al-ʿArus states that Ahad is only used in negation or in reference to God, indicating uniqueness and indivisibility. Lane’s Lexicon explains that Ahad represents one in essence in a way that excludes plurality in essence unlike wahid, which can mean one among many. This is why the Qur'an 112:1 uses Ahad instead of Wahid. Your assertion that Ahad always means one-of is incorrect according to lexical definitions.

honesttalk21:
2. Is the Royal We silly? Does Allah have a council? No, the plural of majesty is a feature found in various Semitic languages. In the Hebrew Bible, God says, Let us make man (Genesis 1:26), yet Judaism remains firmly monotheistic. In Arabic, kings and rulers use We without suggesting shared authority. The Qur'an makes it clear that Allah does not have a council: He has no partner in dominion (Q 25:2). The Royal We does not imply shared authority; this is a misunderstanding.

honesttalk21:
3. Does The Lord of Sirius is Allah mean Allah is Sirius? No, in Arabic, the phrase rabb al-X means master or creator of X, not that it identifies with X. If Lord of Sirius indicated identity, then Allah would also be considered the heavens (Q 37:5), mankind (Q 114:1), and everything else He is the rabb of. This interpretation contradicts fundamental Arabic grammar. I want you to detail your negation of this for your false claim regarding Sirius.

honesttalk21:
4. Did pre-Islamic Arabs worship Sirius? Yes, this is supported by evidence from pre-Islamic Arab religion. The star al-Shiʿra (Sirius) was revered by tribes like Khuzaʿah, as noted by early Muslim historians such as Ibn Kathīr and al-Tabari. The Qur'an 53:49 is addressing the practice of star-worship, not endorsing it.

Particularly Ahad does not mean one-of many (as lexicons show), the Royal We does not imply a divine council, Lord of Sirius does not mean Allah is a star, and while Sirius worship did occur, the Qur'an condemns it. Your arguments are flawed linguistically, grammatically, and historically.

honesttalk21:
What's the twist? In simple English with the King Charles example tell me the difference; twisted and untwisted? I think your questions as subtly addressed in my review of the web address you shared.

honesttalk21:
Thanks for sharing. You should ask the sight managers to explain how or why Lumen Learning presents conflicting information by referring to Hubal as the chief god while stating that the goddesses were associated with Allah instead of Hubal? Historically, Allah was recognized as the supreme creator, while Hubal was the main idol at the Kaaba. The polytheists referred to the goddesses as the daughters of Allah, but never as the daughters of Hubal. It's ironic that assigning divine daughters to either the supreme God or a moon idol is theologically inconsistent, and the source seems to struggle with its own unclear mythology.

TenQ:
When you woud not read.


Go check who Abdullah's fathers sacrifices were meant for. Tell me the relationship between Allah and Hubal as the sacrifice to Hubal was a sacrifice to Allah.

TenQ:
When you woud not read.


Go check who Abdullah's fathers sacrifices were meant for. Tell me the relationship between Allah and Hubal as the sacrifice to Hubal was a sacrifice to Allah.

TenQ:
The Creator is known by backing up His Messengers with signs impossible to recreate by humans. Thus we trust Moses and Elijah when they speak of YHWH as the Creator.

What evidence other than excuses do we have for Allah as the creator?

Quran 17:59
"And nothing prevented Us from sending the signs except that the people of old denied them. And We sent to Thamud the she-camel as a clear sign, but they wronged her. And We send not the signs except as a warning."



Allah your knowledge of Allah is based on one man called Mohammed with not one sign! SMH!

honesttalk21:
Sorry, you are mixing up polytheistic practices with theological beliefs, which actually contradicts your argument. The Story of the Abdullah Sacrifice shows Abdullah's father, Abdul-Muttalib, made a vow to sacrifice one of his sons. When the lot fell on Abdullah, he was redeemed with 100 camels. This sacrifice took place at the Kaaba, which had many idols, including Hubal. However, there are key points you’re overlooking:
1. Sacrificing at the Kaaba doesn't equate all idols to the same god as the Kaaba housed 360 idols, so sacrificing there doesn’t mean Hubal is the same as Allah or Al-Lat or any other idol.

2. Even polytheists recognized Allah as the supreme being. They saw Allah as the creator while using idols as intermediaries (Quran 29:61, 39:3). This is the reason they are criticized not for denying Allah’s existence, but for associating others with Him.

3. Your reasoning is flawed if sacrificing to Hubal equals sacrificing to Allah, then why did the early Muslims' first action after taking Mecca involve destroying Hubal while declaring Allah? Why destroy an idol if it represented the same deity? The goddesses were referred to as daughters of Allah in polytheistic beliefs, not daughters of Hubal.There’s no pre-Islamic text that supports your argument.

The Quran explicitly criticizes the idols Al-Lat, Al-'Uzza, and Manat in verses 53:19-23, rejecting the polytheist belief that they were daughters of Allah. Instead, it describes them as mere names you and your fathers invented. In Quran 39:3, polytheists claimed they worshipped idols to draw closer to Allah, highlighting that Allah is the true creator and that the idols are false intermediaries. Furthermore, in Quran 29:61-63, when asked about the creation of the heavens and the earth, polytheists acknowledged Allah as the creator while still worshipping idols.

Note specifically that although the goddesses were referred to as daughters of Allah by polytheists, the Quran refutes this claim, stating they were not divine but simply fabricated names.

During the conquest of Mecca in 630 CE, Muhammad pbuh destroyed the statue of Hubal and declared, Truth has come, and falsehood has vanished (17:81). If Hubal were equivalent to Allah, there would be no reason to destroy it, which demonstrates the distinction between the false idol and the true God.

The Hanifs, a group of Arabian monotheists, worshipped Allah exclusively and rejected all idols, including Hubal.

For centuries before Islam, Christian and Jewish Arabs referred to God as Allah and did not worship Hubal.

Hubal represents a physical idol, while Allah is the Creator that polytheists recognized but disrespected by falsely attributing the title of daughters to the idols.

honesttalk21:
Wow! WHY? Your argument shoots itself in the foot with a pretty big contradiction. You're saying that a Creator proves his messengers are legit through miracles, like with Moses and Elijah, but then you dismiss Islam for supposedly not having those same signs. That move actually undermines your whole point.

Think about that verse you mentioned, Quran 17:59. It actually says that Allah did send signs, like the she-camel to Thamud, but stopped sending more because people kept rejecting them even after seeing the miracles. It's not saying Islam has no signs; it's explaining why certain signs stopped happening. So, when you claim Islam has not one sign, you're going against the very text you're quoting.

Islamic tradition is full of miracle claims with the Quran being a linguistic miracle that no one can duplicate (2:23, 10:38, 11:13), the night journey, the splitting of the moon (54:1-2), and a bunch of other stuff in the hadith. You might not believe them, but you can't honestly say Islam doesn't claim any miracles. They're all over the place in the tradition.

Here's where your logic falls apart! You weren't around when Moses' staff turned into a snake, or when the Red Sea split, or when Elijah called down fire. You believe in those events because of written accounts, texts written way later by people you've never met. That's faith based on transmitted stories, which is exactly how Muslims believe in Muhammad pbuh's signs too.

If you accept the miracles of Moses and Elijah based on ancient writings, why do you need different proof for Muhammad pbuh's signs, when they're also written down and passed down in a similar way? Muslims trust their historical accounts just like you trust yours. Both rely on the same kind of evidence in scripture, tradition, and faith.

Your demand for hard, provable evidence is the real issue. No religious tradition can offer repeatable, lab-tested miracles for its core beliefs. You can't pull out Moses' staff or make Elijah call down fire. These are historical claims accepted on faith, not scientific proof. Expecting Islam to meet some scientific standard that your own tradition doesn't is a double standard.

Your argument proves too much. If written testimony isn't good enough for Islam's miracle claims, then it's not good enough for Judaism's or Christianity's either. If some guy named Mohammed pbuh isn't credible without seeing the signs yourself, then Moses and Elijah who were also individual prophets whose miracles you didn't witness fail the same test. If you apply your standard consistently, it tears down your own beliefs, too.

All Abrahamic faiths are built on the same thing; testimony, scripture, tradition, and faith. Muslims trust their sources just like you trust yours. The question isn't whether miracles were claimed, they clearly were in all these traditions but whether you're going to judge fairly. Your argument doesn't point out Islam's weakness; it just reveals the holes in your own reasoning.

honesttalk21:
These aren't twists it's your sorry misunderstandings. The moon god? That's incorrect. Hubal was linked to moon worship, but Allah is the creator of both the moon and the sun, as stated in the Quran (41:37). The sea god? Also wrong. Allah created the seas (25:53) and is not a deity of the sea. The desert god? No, Allah is a universal creator who is worshipped by Arabs as well as by pre-Islamic Christians and Jews who used the same name. You're mixing up geographical context with restrictions.

TenQ:
The polytheistic Arabian religion formed the basis of Islam with the except collapsing all other idols and religions under the banner of Allah alone and Islam. Otherwise, Islam is a Taoheed of many religions that you still practice a lot of what they do like kissing the black stone, running between the two hills, practice of hajj etc.
Mohammed himself bowed to the three daughters of Allah before retracting to say it was satan that spoke to him.


Lame arguments of people not believing in miracles. Can you tell me the people Allah said did not believe in his miracles of she-camel to Thamud?
Contrast with the Jews and Christians who believes every miracle sent to them because it happened with witnesses.

Did Allah say he split the moon on Mohammed was copying the poem of Imru' al-Qais (d. ~550 CE), a famous pre-Islamic poet of the Mu'allaqat. Did Allah claim he split the moon?

I wasn't around when Moses split the red Sea BUT there were multiple witnesses amongst the Jews. Every miracle of God has witnesses. Only Allah and Mohammed do not have witnesses for anything miraculous. Same with Elijah, there were multiple witnesses during his time.

Your argument of claims with the Quran being a linguistic miracle that no one can duplicate is the most laughable claim you have made.

If the Qur'an is a linguistic miracle, how come you Muslims need hundreds of books to comprehend what Allah is saying in it. The book is so messed up that without external sources the Qur'an is meaningless. As a proof, Who is Israel in the Qur'an? Who is the servant that was taken to the furthest mosque by night? Which of the sons of Adam killed the other? The Qur'an is a linguistic confusion!

The Qur'an miracles are like then claim of the Yoruba that Olodumare sent a chicken to spread the earth for mankind to dwell. LOL!


I said. Go to your historical sources and
Go check who Abdullah's fathers sacrifices were meant for. Tell me the relationship between Allah and Hubal as the sacrifice to Hubal was a sacrifice to Allah.

honesttalk21:
Islam refined existing pre-Islamic practices that had become corrupted by paganism, discarding intercessory figures such as Hubal and focusing worship entirely on Allah, as highlighted in the Qur'an (25:53, 41:37).

honesttalk21:
Miracles underscore the importance of faith, not merely large gatherings.

honesttalk21:
The Qur'an possesses unmatched eloquence. Historical individuals and occurrences align consistently. Criticisms frequently overlook the necessary context, intended purpose, and semantic nuances.

TenQ:
Indeed, Islam is a refined paganism discarding 359 gods for Allah and attributing many of the attributes of YHWH to this Allah and borrowing aspects of the religion of many religions including Judaism and Christianity. Islam is indeed a Taoheed of Religions


Mohammed was commanded to Read but according to you Muslims, he remained an illiterate. If Jesus commanded a stone to read, the stone will grow a mouth with eyes and begin to read.

Tell me why a command was given three times and Mohammed still couldn't read?



I just couldn't help but smile at the gross self delusion affecting the followers of Islam the religion of Mohammed.

Let's put your claim to test: The Qur'an posseses an unmatched eloquence

Qur'an 17:1
"Exalted is He 1 who took His 2 Servant by night from al-Masjid al-Haram to al-Masjid al-Aqsa, whose surroundings We 3 have blessed, to show him 4 of Our 5 signs. Indeed, He 6 is the Hearing, the Seeing."

One verse has SIX pronouns and thus, we want to test the eloquence of Allah of the Qur'an

Question :
Without seeking help from outside sources other than the eloquent Quran
1. Who is this servant as to me the servant looks like Abraham or Moses?
2. Where is the farthest Mosque and what is it's name?
3. Who is the person referenced in each of the pronouns He, His, We, Him, Our, He
4. Is Mohammed the all-hearing, the seeing?


Please answer these questions according to their number Without seeking help from outside sources other than your eloquent Quran

Note:
If it is true I'm Islam that there are 124,000 prophets/Messengers of Allah in the world, the farthest mosque should be somewhere in Tematagi Atoll
The farthest place from Mecca on Earth is its antipodal point in the South Pacific Ocean, near Tematagi Atoll in French Polynesia.
Or these people never had a messenger of Allah sent to them?

honesttalk21:
Islam wasn't about polishing up pagan beliefs; it was absolute cleansing of the original monotheistic faith of Abraham from the pagan influences that had crept in during the pre-Islamic era, bringing it back to the pure concept of Tawhid (as highlighted in the Qur'an 3:67).

honesttalk21:
The word Iqraʾ means to recite, not just read written text. The fact that Muhammad pbuh was unlettered (Qur'an 7:157) actually reinforces the Qur'an's claims of divine origin, rather than weakening them.

honesttalk21:
Qur'an 17:1 is quite clear within itself that the Servant mentioned is Muhammad pbuh, al-Masjid al-Aqsa is specifically named, and the use of multiple pronouns reflects a Semitic tradition of expressing majesty, not some kind of confusion much like in Genesis 1:26. Then, the phrase All-Hearing, All-Seeing is exclusively used to refer to God, not the Prophet pbuh. The verse clearly distinguishes between the servant and the Divine Actor, revealing that the accusation of deification is a misrepresentation (Qur'an 18:110).

TenQ:
This is just a claim and has nothing to do with the truth. No matter how Eckanka or Grail message claim to be of God, we both know the answer: it's a baseless claim just as the claims of Islam is.



Muslims with lies
IQRA mean read rather than recite

To recite means that Mohammed had already memorised a message AND he is expected to vocalize what he had already memorised. Understanding, Mohammed hadn't been given any Qur'an as of this time meaning that IQRA cannot mean recite.

Secondly, if Jibril meant that Mohammed should repeat words from him then Mohammed's response of "I cannot RECITE" is dumb because every normal human being can repeat words said to them.

Thirdly, if truly Mohammed cannot RECITE due to cognitive disorders, the reason cannot be because he cannot read as claimed by you Muslims.

Fourthly, the verse
Recite, and your Lord is the most Generous—who taught by the pen —taught man that which he knew not."
Allah teaches by what is WRITTEN by the Own and not what was recited. Thus IQRA is about READING and not RECITATION.

Thus, it is self delusion to redefine IQRA as RECITE rather than READ.

Unlettered prophet actually reinforce that IQRA is about READING


Do not lump up the answers to my questions. The use of multiple pronouns has nothing to do with Semitic languages as Hebrew is one and the use of personal pronouns are regular as with other languages. The only places in the bible where personal pronouns change within a verse is when Demons are speaking.

Let me present my questions again: don't hide by lumping up the answers.

According to you Muslims, Allah has many Messengers and anyone of them could have been taken to the farthest mosque. Show from the Qur'an alone this servant.

Let's put your claim to test: The Qur'an posseses an unmatched eloquence

Qur'an 17:1
"Exalted is He 1 who took His 2 Servant by night from al-Masjid al-Haram to al-Masjid al-Aqsa, whose surroundings We 3 have blessed, to show him 4 of Our 5 signs. Indeed, He 6 is the Hearing, the Seeing."

One verse has SIX pronouns and thus, we want to test the eloquence of Allah of the Qur'an

Question :
Without seeking help from outside sources other than the eloquent Quran
1. Who is this servant as to me the servant looks like Abraham or Moses?
2. Where is the farthest Mosque and what is it's name?
3. Who is the person referenced in each of the pronouns He, His, We, Him, Our, He
4. Is Mohammed the all-hearing, the seeing?


Please answer these questions according to their number Without seeking help from outside sources other than your eloquent Quran AND with evidence!

Note:
If it is true I'm Islam that there are 124,000 prophets/Messengers of Allah in the world, the farthest mosque should be somewhere in Tematagi Atoll
The farthest place from Mecca on Earth is its antipodal point in the South Pacific Ocean, near Tematagi Atoll in French Polynesia.
Or these people never had a messenger of Allah sent to them?

honesttalk21:
Dismissing Islam as baseless in the same way as something like Eckankar is a weak claim, not a real argument. Islam has clear links to Abraham historically, a consistent theological framework centered on the concept of Tawhid, well-preserved early manuscripts, and historical accounts from the time it emerged. Eckankar and the Grail Message simply don't have any of that. Scorn isn't a substitute for reasoned discussion, engage with the facts or admit you can't.

honesttalk21:
The notion that Iqra means read, not recite presents a false dichotomy.
In classical Arabic, the word iqra (ق ر أ) doesn't just mean read written text. It encompasses reciting, proclaiming, conveying, rehearsing, or gathering. This is why the word Qur'an shares the same root. Restricting iqra to mere literacy is a contemporary interpretation, not aligned with its classical usage.

The idea that Recite requires prior memorization is incorrect. Recitation does not necessitate prior memorization. It includes receiving and vocalizing speech, especially common in oral cultures. Simply saying repeat after me constitutes recitation. The Prophet's response, I am not a qariʾ, signifies I am not commissioned/trained to proclaim, rather than I am incapable of echoing sounds.

honesttalk21:
Illiteracy does not equate to cognitive deficiency.No Muslim claims Muhammad pbuh was unable to repeat words due to a mental deficit. His illiteracy (ummi) refers to his inability to read or write, not to any speech impairment. Your objection is based on a claim Islam never asserted.

honesttalk21:
The phrase Taught by the pen does not redefine iqra. Qur'an 96:4 describes God's general method of teaching humanity, not the specific mode of the first revelation. You're confusing epistemology (how knowledge exists) with the method of revelation (how it was delivered).

honesttalk21:
Qur'an 17:1 - Answered solely from the Qur'an. Who is the Servant?
The Qur'an consistently uses abdihi;His servant,to refer specifically to Muhammad pbuh in places including Q18:1, 25:1. There is no verse that uses this title for Abraham or Moses in this particular form.

honesttalk21:
What is the farthest mosque?
The verse identifies it as al-Masjid al-Aqsa. In Arabic, masjid refers to a place of prostration, not necessarily a constructed building.

honesttalk21:
The explanation of pronouns without external sources simply are He / His / He (at the end) is God's essence

We / Our is divine majesty (plural of majesty) used elsewhere in the Qur'an

Him is the Servant

The Hearing, the Seeing is explicitly God, both grammatically and contextually

honesttalk21:
This is a standard Semitic rhetorical device, not a source of confusion. Hebrew scripture employs the same technique.

honesttalk21:
Farthest does not imply antipode.
Al-Aqsa is farthest relative to Mecca, not in a global mathematical sense. You're projecting modern cartography onto 7th-century Arabic usage, which is an anachronism.

honesttalk21:
So, your argument is built upon modern English assumptions, disregards classical Arabic semantics, and repeatedly makes category errors. Simply declaring something baseless does not constitute a refutation; precision is required.

TenQ:
What are your historical sources leading up to Abraham?
Provide your evidences otherwise, you are exactly like the Eckanka or Grail message.



Give me instances where a person can recite things he doesn't have in memory before!

This show the illogicality of your claim.

From a command given to RECITE!
The response I can NOT RECITE is a cognitive defect. QED!

It makes sense for a command be given as READ! The response I can NOT READ for an unlettered person is correct.




Illiteracy is not a cognitive defect, However an inability to RECITE is a cognitive defect.
Toddlers in kindergarten RECITE all day long even things they don't understand yet.



Muslims with lies.
The pen is useless then!
Why does Allah teach by the pen if you ultimately learn from recitation?
SMH!


Six pronouns in one verse.
1. Someone is speaking about a He, Him and His
2. We can assume that this same person speaking is the one who calls himself We and Our

Applying the rule, we have a confused unintelligible meaningless statement


And this is a linguistic miracle!?


What is the name of the al-Masjid al-Aqsa (farthest mosque). Doesn't it have a name?

Farthest mosque!? Relative to where?
Only Allah will write a book, introduce a place that have no location



A bundle of confusion from the eloquent Allah
1. Someone is speaking about a He, Him and His
2. We can assume that this same person speaking is the one who calls himself We and Our




Stop lying sit. It's too much. It's not a standard way of speaking in any culture


You forgot that in Islam you have over 124,000 Messengers of Allah all over the world. Are you telling me that non of them have a place of prayer(by your definition of mosque)?

Please explain with another lie



Sorry, the comedy of errors in the Qur'an are so numerous the book cannot even be made by a born Arabic speaking.

honesttalk21:
Regarding Abraham's Historical Roots,you're overlooking Ishmael, Hagar, the Arab lineage, with respect to Muhammad pbuh . Islam places Abraham in history through both Isaac and Ishmael.

Current archaeological evidence is limited, but that's true for all Abrahamic faiths. A lack of independent records doesn't negate theological continuity.

honesttalk21:
Equating this to Eckankar or the Grail Message is misleading. Those lack historical continuity, manuscripts, or a prophetic tradition.

honesttalk21:
Iqra means to recite, proclaim, convey, or gather and it's not confined to reading written words. Muhammad pbuh's response, I am not a qari,doesn't suggest a cognitive issue but rather a reluctance to immediately accept the commission.

Repeating sounds;recitation,is universal; toddlers do it all the time. Illiteracy doesn't equal an inability to recite. Interpreting Iqra as read perfectly suits an unlettered prophet being taught through revelation.

Taught by the pen enhances oral revelation, describing general human learning and not contradicting the idea of recitation.