Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? - Christianity Etc (23) - Nairaland
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| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by unphilaz(m): 8:51am On Feb 19, 2016 |
Empiree: |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by unphilaz(m): 8:52am On Feb 19, 2016 |
promisechuks:Empiree:What enters a man's mouth can NEVER defile the person, making him a sinner. |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by unphilaz(m): 8:53am On Feb 19, 2016 |
promisechuks: |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Scholar8200(m): 8:59am On Feb 19, 2016 |
Empiree:Sure HE is. But reading your same Bible, if you believe Jesus is God, then there is conflicts here bcus we read in the Bible about Jesus limitations. We read his beginning and his death. So you will have to question Bible writers how they got it mixed up.That's because, the Word became Flesh In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 The same was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. 14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. John 1:1-2,14 And when he became flesh, which means his power was limited. Who was then the authority of heavens and controlling angels, water and sea, birds and animal and fishes, Jinn and other unseen while the flesh was on earth?.....did he put the heaven in autopilot grinThe Father spoke from Heaven after He (Jesus) was baptised. That tells you God was on the Throne all along! Schola8200:The nearest you will get is where HE confirmed His being with the Father (as John 1:1,2 confirms) from the beginning: 4 I have glorified thee on the earth: I have finished the work which thou gavest me to do. 5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had [size=13pt]with[/size] thee before the world was. John 17:4,5 Sch8200:Okay he grants permission to people to enter paradise? This verily contradicts: Muslim also reported from Anas that the Messenger of Allah (saw) said: "I will come to the gates of paradise and ask for it to be opened. The gatekeeper will ask, "Who are you?" I will say, "Muhammad". The gatekeeper will say, "I was ordered not to open the gate for anyone else before you"". [Saheeh Muslim] Who will give this order? That must be the one that grants access then not Mohammed! Sch8200:Which part of the Quran agrees with this hadith being Muhammed's claims? (since that is the measure for accepting and rejecting hadiths). The Prophet (PBUH) said, "Whoever guarantees me (the chastity of) what is between his legs ( i.e. his private parts), and what is between his jaws ( i.e., his tongue), I guarantee him Paradise." Sahih Al-Bukhari Hadith 8.799 Narrated by Sahl bin Sad Sch8200Hear John: 16 John answered, saying unto them all, I indeed baptize you with water; but one mightier than I cometh, the latchet of whose shoes I am not worthy to unloose: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost and with fire: Luke 3:16 He was not just another prophet! Now hear Jesus confirming same and setting John 14&15 in proper perspective for all time: 4 and, being assembled together with them, commanded them that they should not depart from Jerusalem, but wait for the promise of the Father, which, saith he, ye have heard of me(referring to John14&15). 5 For John truly baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Ghost not many days hence. Acts 1:4,5 Muslims have no problem with this statement at all. We have NO DOUBT that Muhammad {Allah's Peace and Blessings be upon him} and his followers will go to paradise. One of the common understanding of this verse is, a muslim who claims to follow Islam but he has bad attitude, he does not observe obligatory duties often (like skipping salat, not fasting ramadan or follow the rules, not paying zakat etc), such a person should not expect the prophet to intercede for him/her. We have to help ourselves first by obeying and observing religious duties.You believe he will go there but does the Quran agree with the hadith that he will be the one to grant permissions for who enters? As for the Hereafter, I seek refuge in Allah and he (i.e. the Prophet) knew that he was going to paradise, but he said "I don't know what He (i.e. Allah) will do to me and to you in this life. Will I be kicked out just as the Prophets (may Allah bestow His peace and blessings upon them) before me were kicked out? Or would I be killed just as the Prophets before me were killed?"Okay. As regards the highlighted, that was said after the Word became flesh and assumed the form of a Servant. "But He will reply, 'I don't know you or where you come from. Away from me, all you evildoers!' Luke 13:27There is NO repentance after death! It's a Divine principle. "But about that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father. Mark 13:32Because, at this point, the Word was flesh and had willingly subjected Himself to the limitations of mortal man! Sch8200:Like I said, there have always being these divisions, it was prophesied. Those who dont deliberately ignore this in their Bibles: Who is a liar but he that denieth that Jesus is the Christ? He is antichrist, that denieth the Father and the Son 1 John 2:22 So, we have antichrist movements, opposing Christ in the guise of Christ. make a distinction! Who said so?You are wrong. It's 3 in 1 not 1 in 1! The use of lower case points to the time of the translation and the need to be faithful to the mss to the details!Even the OT uses he for the Father! Sch8200:Not so fast! This was the basis of their being One in Us: John 17:23a I in them, and Thou in Me...! (Christ Who was ONe With the Father dwelling IN the believers) Your mistaken supposition would have been correct if Jesus had said I WITH Thee and They WITH Us! Sch8200You appear to have forgotten the place quoted: Here is it: John 15;26a,27 But when the Comforter is come...he shall tetsify of me.you also shall bear witness because:YOU HAVE BEEN WITH ME FROM THE BEGINNING Also Jesus speaking to His disciples said: John15:20 ...If they have kept my saying, THEY WILL KEEP YOURS ALSO Finally, Jesus said: John 17:20 Neither pray I for these alone(the Apostles) but also for them also which shall believe on me THROUGH THEIR WORD I believe all these strongly ratifies the NT ahead of time! @underlined, isnt the same Bible you all read that got you confused in the first place?. I am sure if you ask 10 christian who is Jesus, you would get different answers. This video is a hint. It is only 10 mins long. Or watch from 4mins to see confusion grinI have already pointed out the antichrist group as given in the NT. The measure for knowing the truth is clearly given! Sch8200I refer you to that passage by John that should help you know who is for Christ and who is for antichrist! What does the highlighted mean?Are those versions right for adjusting that part to suit their opinions or that of their detractors? (We condemn the Greeks for cutting off 1 John 5:7, we disclaim the versions that make grievous changes and we hail thee Vaudois for upholding every jot in the Word at the expense of their lives!) Tafsir(commentary) of this verse says these are 5 most powerful prophets and messangers of Allah. Now if Jesus is God because John(p) said his greater than him, then you may want to consider Muhammad to God since he too has authority to choose who goes to paradise.Again, is there a passage in the Quran that backs up the hadith that said so? John said Jesus was before him meaning Jesus had been before he, John, was born!WRONG! John was born before Jesus! The First People to Enter Paradise:So where is Jesus, Abraham, Moses now? Especially Jesus? After the Word became flesh,He totally humbled Himself and assumed the reputation of a Servant so expecting Him to say I am God is not something you will find.I believe the highlighted is a deliberate attempt at mockery especially when a lot has been said regarding this issue namely the Father being distinct from the Son and yet being One. No problem. Because this Gospel does not support Divinity of Jesus it is refuted? smh.Before you fight for it the author of this 'gospel' tried to incorporate Islam into one of the Gospels but contradicted Islam. Take a vacation here: https://www.nairaland.com/2912069/gospel-barnabas-laid-rest At underlined, which Gospels are they?. I dont know of any 'real Gospels' among the extant ones. And "son" of God, which has been thrown around for yrs does not have weight anymore because there are other Sons of God and even daughters of God. Even "unique sons of God. All of them are in the Bible. So why is Jesus being 'son' of God definitive?. And have you not exceeded the limits in your religion by declaring Jesus is God, Son of God, that the Father came down and humbled Himself and transformed Himself to servant andQuite unfortunate that you are resorting to mockery!!! QUote where this was written either by me or in the Bible |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by unphilaz(m): 9:03am On Feb 19, 2016 |
Scholar8200: |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by unphilaz(m): 9:43am On Feb 19, 2016 |
Scholar8200: |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by unphilaz(m): 9:45am On Feb 19, 2016 |
vzkpswaqnkhgytd:hmm really, interesting point |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by unphilaz(m): 9:50am On Feb 19, 2016 |
Scholar8200: |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by unphilaz(m): 9:52am On Feb 19, 2016 |
vzkpswaqnkhgytd: |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by unphilaz(m): 9:54am On Feb 19, 2016 |
promisechuks: |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by RapLawd(m): 10:39am On Feb 19, 2016 |
[quote author=unphilaz post=43054366][/quote]I'm no longer in this section, why quote my moniker bro? |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Empiree: 10:45am On Feb 19, 2016*. Modified: 11:08am On Feb 19, 2016 |
AlMuflihah:good to know. ......now tell those fellas that camels piss is sweet ![]() |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by unphilaz(m): 10:46am On Feb 19, 2016 |
Empiree: |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by unphilaz(m): 10:52am On Feb 19, 2016 |
AlMuflihah: |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Empiree: 12:36pm On Feb 19, 2016 |
[quote author=unphilaz post=43060329][/quote]You just like quoting everyone ![]() |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Empiree: 9:14pm On Feb 19, 2016*. Modified: 1:59am On Feb 20, 2016 |
Scholar8200:Who is He (referring to omnipotent, omniscience).....God or Jesus? That's because, the Word became FleshYes, i knew it is all about John. This begs the question of plagiarism actually. This prologue is intended to identify Jesus as the eternal Word (Logos) of God. Thus John asserts Jesus' innate superiority over all divine messengers, whether angels or prophets. Here John adapts the doctrine of the Logos, God's creative principle, from Philo, a 1st-century Hellenized Jew. Philo had adopted the term Logos from Greek philosophy, using it in place of the Hebrew concept of Wisdom (sophia) as the intermediary (angel) between the transcendent Creator and the material world. Some scholars argue that the prologue was taken over from an existing hymn and added at a later stage in the gospel's composition. The Jewish philosopher, Philo merged these two themes when he described the Logos as God's creator of and mediator with the material world. The evangelist adapted Philo's description of the Logos, applying it to Jesus, the incarnation of the Logos. "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was with God in the beginning. Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made. (John 1:1-3)" So we have a very, very serious question here; the author of John, copied the doctrine of logos from Philo; and presented it as "Inspired from God/Word of God"; which many Christians believe. But in fact; the idea of John 1:1-3 existed decades before the Gospel of John existed. And by the way; the doctrine of logos was originally created by a Jew(Philo), not a Christian, so it kinda debunks trinitarian claims. When one copies material and presents it as his own; thats what we call plagiarism; how is plagiarized material considered 'Word Of God' by Christians? A Muslim debater and the author of Muslim Christian Dialogue, by H.M. Baagil argued that John 1:1 is a clear mistranslation of Greek word Theoú i:e God's {indicating possessive noun} was mistranslated as Theós (God). Which means Jesus is a word "Be! and he was" which preceded from Allah. That's Jesus is creation of God. He is not God. Refer to attachment below Father spoke from Heaven after He (Jesus) was baptised. That tells you God was on the Throne all along!This is utterly irrelevant soon as John 1:1 is trashed. I know you are unconsciously blaspheming God. I dont blame you at all. And I am not mocking you. But you really need to stop this dangerous doctrine and ponder carefully. The nearest you will get is where HE confirmed His being with the Father (as John 1:1,2 confirms) from the beginning:I advice you to get free copy or download a free book titled Muslim Christian dialogue by H.M.BAAGIL. http://www.sultan.org/books/muslimchristianialogue.pdf 4 I have glorified thee on the earth: I have finished the work which thou gavest me to do.Please refer to the attachment. John 1:1 explained. Okay he grants permission to people to enter paradise? This verily contradicts:We have no problem comprehending this hadith at all. It is Allah who has the Final say. He is the One Who grants paradise. None else. It is He {Allah} alone who gives the Order. It not Jesus not Muhammad(pbut). Jesus made similar statement indicating that he has no power to grant people paradise. Statement like this in the hadith pretext and under the umbrella of intercession granted the Muhammad(p). Nutshell, a Muslim who observes obligatory duties to the best of his ability and do good deeds as much as he can, even if he has minor misdeeds or even bad deeds, prophet Muhammad(p) will still intercede for him/her. If the prophet(p) intercedes for any muslim, it is incumbent on Allah to accept his intercession. He(p) intercedes for a muslim knowing fully well he/she already met requirements. This is my little way i can explain the hadith. I know there are better explanation of it. The intercession of the Prophet is nothing more than Honor that Allah (swt) has given him. He is granted right of intercession as reported in Hadith no: 331: Allah's Apostle said, "I have been given five things which were not given to any amongst the Prophets before me. These are: 1. Allah made me victorious by awe (by His frightening my enemies) for a distance of one month's journey. 2. The earth has been made for me (and for my followers) a place for praying and a thing to perform Tayammum. Therefore my followers can pray wherever the time of a prayer is due. 3. The booty has been made Halal (lawful) for me (and was not made so for anyone else). 4. Every Prophet used to be sent to his nation exclusively but I have been sent to all mankind. 5. I have been given the right of intercession (on the Day of Resurrection.) Which part of the Quran agrees with this hadith being Muhammed's claims? (since that is the measure for accepting and rejecting hadiths).Refer to the above.^ Hear John:Kindly refer to the book i posted earlier Okay. As regards the highlighted, that was said after the Word became flesh and assumed the form of a Servant.I will ask you same question asked in the book i posted. Who is God?. Who is Holy Spirit or Ghost?, Who is Jesus?. You do not need to sweat to answer this. Very simple question. Muslims can answer this question in a simple word. There is NO repentance after death! It's a Divine principle.Okay. I see you used capital NO which means it definitive. How about a christian (he/she does not believe Jesus is God, only believe Jesus is son of God). What happens to such christian? Because, at this point, the Word was flesh and had willingly subjected Himself to the limitations of mortal man!And at the time he became flesh and subjected Himself to the limitations, remember you used capital H for Himself to denote God, The Supreme Being. At that time, i assume He was already on the earth and weak (no offense intended). Who was the authority in the Heavens at that moment He was in flesh and dwelt among humans? You are wrong. It's 3 in 1 not 1 in 1! The use of lower case points to the time of the translation and the need to be faithful to the mss to the details!Even the OT uses he for the Father!Okay 3 in 1. I got it. Now this is even more complicated. So this is "trinity" right?. Father Son and Spirit. Who is Father?, Son, and Spirit?. Are they same thing or different personalities?. Now refer back to quote rightly above this. Since you said they are 3 in 1 which means they move together as supposed. In other word, when the flesh was on earth, whatever that means, it means all 3 were on earth at the same time in flesh, correct? Who was governing the rest of the planet at that point the flesh suffered limitations? Not so fast! This was the basis of their being One in Us:Okay. This is another mixed up twisted and contradictory verse(s). My understanding as well as many muslims understand this is that when Jesus said he is in his father and father is in him and that disciples, 12 of them are in Jesus and father could only mean one thing, purpose. But if you disagree, then you have at least 15 gods. See attachment below. You appear to have forgotten the place quoted: Here is it:Obviously, that statement fits prophet Muhammad wholeheartedly. Muhammad(p) praised Jesus, recognized Jesus, told us story of Jesus from the scratch. So where is rhe holy spirit that brought and testified about Jesus, where is he?. In this translation posted used "comforter" not holy spirit. Who is that comforter? Now compare that statement of Jesus with what Quran claims Jesus said: "And [mention] when Jesus, the son of Mary, said, "O children of Israel, indeed I am the messenger of Allah to you confirming what came before me of the Torah and bringing good tidings of a messenger to come after me, whose name is Ahmad." But when he came to them with clear evidences, they said, "This is obvious magic." Surah As-saf (61:6) Sounds familiar?. Remember that same passages of the Bible even further to say "comforter" would glorify him(Jesus). I am sure you read in the Quran where Jesus is glorified and his status is higher in the sight of Allah. Then in the hadith there are bunch of stories about Jesus and statements of Muhammad talking and praising him and he being praised by Jesus, too. Good to know that you came up with "comforter". Other translation used helper, advocate, Paraclete etc. So basically, Bible writers played you guys with 'holy spirit'. We believe in what Quran says and thats what Jesus uttered. He(Jesus - p) mentioned Muhammad by name - his other name Ahmad. Ahmad means "highly praised" etc. Sounds familiar?. I have already pointed out the antichrist group as given in the NT. The measure for knowing the truth is clearly given!Keep it simple. Are those Christians who do not believe Jesus is God, who do not believe in trinity any less Christians?. Are they going to hell?. Those people do not consider themselves antichrist. I have them in my friends cycle. they are not occult. They firmly believe Bible support their doctrines. Are those versions right for adjusting that part to suit their opinions or that of their detractors?Yes, it is not about suiting opinion. This is real deal. But it is a matter btw muslims. (We condemn the Greeks for cutting off 1 John 5:7, we disclaim the versions that make grievous changes and we hail thee Vaudois for upholding every jot in the Word at the expense of their lives!)We dont omit any verse from the Quran or add to it. What you said here confirms distortion of the bible. Correct? Again, is there a passage in the Quran that backs up the hadith that said so?The hadith was brought to counter your argument. Scroll up there for clarification So where is Jesus, Abraham, Moses now? Especially Jesus?Barzakh (Purgatory). The Stage Between this World and the Hereafter. Not only prophets but all mankind since the time of Adam until Judgment Day. Technically Barzakh is a realm kept by the Lord of the Universe between this world of ours and the forthcoming Hereafter in such a way that both might maintain their individual limits. Barzakh is a state between these worldly and otherworldly affairs. Halfway between Reward and Punishment After entering the world of Barzakh one does not experience physical pains like headache, toothache and such other troubles. Such suffering forms a part of the essentials of the material world. But there, in Barzakh, it is the realm of abstracts or of incorporeal beings. Of course, it can also not be called the Hereafter, which may mean that there will be only darkness for the sinners and only light for the obedient ones. Some people asked the Imam (a.s.) about the duration of Barzakh. He replied, “It is from the moment of death up to the time when all will rise from their graves regaining life. The Holy Qur’an says: ...and before them is a barrier until the day they are raised. (23:100) I believe the highlighted is a deliberate attempt at mockery especially when a lot has been said regarding this issue namely the Father being distinct from the Son and yet being One. No problem.For saying this?: "Father humbled Himself to be servant and son. And ultimately allowed himself to be nailed?. Fantastic!" Honestly it is no joke at all. Sometimes we just have to be blunt. This is a matter of salvation. If i was mocking you i would posted pictures like i did with ifeann, malvis and co. I know you sound rational. Why would i mock you. Believe it or not, it is blasphemy to say God came down, relegated Himself and became flesh......Nauzubillah. You blaspheme unconsciously. The reason for that is because it is your doctrine in which Christianity stands. Thats why you dont see it like that. But to Muslims this is shirk. A sin that God NEVER forgives. It is the same faith of a group in America called "Nation Of Islam". It is in fact, pseudo pretending to be muslim organisation. They believe God came down in form of Farad Muhammad in Detroit in 1930. This is blasphemy. Before you fight for it the author of this 'gospel' tried to incorporate Islam into one of the Gospels but contradicted Islam. Take a vacation here:No, I am not supporting Gospel of Barnabas. It does not meet Quran standard at all. We only pointed out some facts just like other Gospels. It does not merit Quran at all
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| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Empiree: 10:22pm On Feb 19, 2016 |
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| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Empiree: 10:24pm On Feb 19, 2016 |
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| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Scholar8200(m): 1:27pm On Feb 20, 2016 |
Empiree:GOD as we know Him! Yes, i knew it is all about John. This begs the question of plagiarism actually. This prologue is intended to identify Jesus as the eternal Word (Logos) of God. Thus John asserts Jesus' innate superiority over all divine messengers, whether angels or prophets. Here John adapts the doctrine of the Logos, God's creative principle, from Philo, a 1st-century Hellenized Jew. Philo had adopted the term Logos from Greek philosophy, using it in place of the Hebrew concept of Wisdom (sophia) as the intermediary (angel) between the transcendent Creator and the material world. Some scholars argue that the prologue was taken over from an existing hymn and added at a later stage in the gospel's composition.http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=15617 Could this be pla....? The concept of One being with the Father from the beginning was obviously taken by Heriaclitus around 6BC (not even Philo) and defaced to reflect Gnostics' belief of there being many intermediaries between God and the material world and Gnostics further claim that Logos was the highest of all the intermediaries! This is an obvious theft of Inspiration/Intellectual material from the Hebrews by the Greeks, and prostituting same to reflect one's belief (A skill much used by Gnostics and attempted by the learner who forged the 'gospel of Barnabas' trying to steal the Gospel and weave Islam into it but he failed woefully!) Now let's see the belief in the Father and Son as shown in the OT Remember that all these were written milleniums before Heriaclitus!1. Psalm 110:1 The Lord said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool. Bare in mind that David who wrote this was an Israelite who believed that,"the Lord our God is One Lord! This is a mystery! 2. The Lord possessed me in the beginning of his way, before his works of old. 23 I was set up from everlasting, from the beginning, or ever the earth was. 24 When there were no depths, I was brought forth; when there were no fountains abounding with water. 25 Before the mountains were settled, before the hills was I brought forth: 30 then I was by him, as one brought up with him: and I was daily his delight, rejoicing always before him; Proverbs 8:22-30 (Indeed the Only Begotten In Whom He is Well Pleased! 3. Proverbs 30:4 Who hath ascended up into heaven, or descended? who hath gathered the wind in his fists? who hath bound the waters in a garment? who hath established all the ends of the earth? what is his name, and what is his son’s name, if thou canst tell? Once again remember that these were people whose rallying cry was: Hear O Israel, the Lord your God is One Lord! Now we see an obvious contradiction by Philo and his ilks: Philo&co : Logos is a thought or reason hence when God expresses the word, He says Be and it is so. Now the same Philo: Logos is the highest of the demiurges, an intermediary between God and the material world! Here Philo tries real hard to reconcile his jewish background and his hellenistic philosophies the result? CONFUSION! Where exactly do they stand!? This happens and proves that the Fact of the Divine Nature was stolen and there was a battle in keeping the concept while at the same time prostituting it to suit their purposes! And by the way; the doctrine of logos was originally created by a Jew(Philo), not a Christian, so it kinda debunks trinitarian claims.Rather John restores the Ark of God back to its Original position with the proper meaning known milleniums before this time! Ask, why did they not use the Word 'Sophia' meaning Wisdom in Greek after all that is what the Real Source they stole from used! The challenge was that perhaps they only knew of the abstract wisdom in a man and they needed something external since this will suit their need for an intermediary! Hence they rather went for the word,'Logos' meaning word, speech etc They must have realised that a wise man's wisdom can only be known by his words! But still, could not reconcile the word being an abstract or a being (confusion among the pilferers of the Ark)! Now then Why did John retain the Word Logos? Simple. It was known to the Hebrews that Wisdom was the One that Expressed/Revealed the Father: 2 hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds; 3 who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, Hebrews 1:2,3a These was written to Hebrew believers who though believed, were very conservative about there heritage! Here the writer states something known and accepted to the average Hebrews.(Hence when Jesus said God was His Father they instinctively tried to stone Him because that brings up His being equal with the Father)! Point I am driving at is that the Hellenists took not only the Fact but also this understanding (of Wisdom being the Father's expression) and attempted to conform it to their 'higher knowledge'. Hence John reclaimed both, moreso, Greek was the language then so all is in order! Besides, the Gnostic Greeks regards matter (eg the flesh) to be intrinsically evil hence the Word being made flesh is in total contradistinction with the Philo/Grecian/Gnostic views! This is why the same John, having these Grecio/Gnostic corrupters in mind said: and every spirit that confesseth not that [size=13pt]Jesus Christ is come in the flesh[/size] is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world. 1John 4:3 When one copies material and presents it as his own; thats what we call plagiarism; how is plagiarized material considered 'Word Of God' by Christians?It was a battle for Truth and thank God, God that preserves His Word reveals the folly of the Gnostics and their kind! A Muslim debater and the author of Muslim Christian Dialogue, by H.M. Baagil argued that John 1:1 is a clear mistranslation of Greek wordInteresting, now read and judge: No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. John 1:18 So , was this also mistranslated? The Son IS the Word as Hebrews 1:2,3 confirms. Note that John did not write Hebrews and the thought here agrees with the Son revealing/expressing the Father! Sch8200:Father spoke from Heaven after He (Jesus) was baptised. That tells you God was on the Throne all along!In the light of the above, it is fully relevant! Now Muslims claim David as one of Islam's prophets but I hope you realise he wrote both Psalms up there! One of the appearances of the Pre-Incarnated Christ is His visit to Abraham in company of 2 angels and Jesus would go on to cement this when He said He was before Abraham.John 8:58 What then? This is a belief rooted and grounded among the Hebrews and all of a sudden one comes along after milleniums and says it is not so,a position curiously taken by occultic Gnostics(the real plagiarists)? Think! Sch8200:I saw your attachments! Sincerely speaking, I would not expect such simpletonic replies from a Christian worth the Name! 1. from 1538-1970 Bible has much been changed! Funny!!! The version preserved through the Vaudois remains untouched in the KJV form! That one dates back to 120AD and these people preserved every jot at the cost of their lives and the KJV agrees thereto. What then? 2. The one on Matthew 1:18 and Luke 1:26,27 is very nauseating! What? The writer endeavors to use this to establish that Holy Ghost=Gabriel. But why did he omit this: Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man? 35 And the angel answered and said unto her, T[b]he Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow [/b]thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God Luke 1:34,35 angel not the same as Holy Ghost! etc |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Scholar8200(m): 1:27pm On Feb 20, 2016 |
Sch8200Refer to the explanations above. The Nature of God is also a mystery, but this much has been revealed. Sch8200:Meaning there is no part of the Quran that actually/expressedly verifies that hadith? Nutshell, a Muslim who observes obligatory duties to the best of his ability and do good deeds as much as he can, even if he has minor misdeeds or even bad deeds, prophet Muhammad(p) will still intercede for him/her. If the prophet(p) intercedes for any muslim, it is incumbent on Allah to accept his intercession. He(p) intercedes for a muslim knowing fully well he/she already met requirements. This is my little way i can explain the hadith. I know there are better explanation of it. The intercession of the Prophet is nothing more than Honor that Allah (swt) has given him. He is granted right of intercession as reported in Hadith no: 331:Now is it allowed that a hadith validates another hadith? Especially when the former might not (subject to your answer to penultimate question)have been expressedly validated in the Quran? Okay. As regards the highlighted, that was said after the Word became flesh and assumed the form of a Servant.Oh Christians too can: GOD! There is NO repentance after death! It's a Divine principle.To deny the Divinity of the Son is to deny everything about the Work of Redemption! How then is such an one a Christian? It is a mystery revealed to an extent. But we cannot force our intellect to complete the parts not revealed in understanding. That will be heretical. When the Father said (referring to the Son): But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom. Hebrews 1:8 Isaiah also called the Son the Mighty God! Isaiah was also an Israelite who cried, Hear O Israel, the Lord thy God is One Lord! Do I have perfect understanding thereof? No. Do I believe it? Yes, God said it! Sch8200:The Father is, was and ever shall be! Sch8200:GOD of course! The Omnipotent,Omniscient and Omnipresent! Yes Jesus even said, " The FAther that dwelleth in Me, He does the Works" and furthermore Jesus said," if I cast out devils by the Spirit of God" John 14:10, Matthew 12:28. This underscores His Omnipresence and that this Divine attribute was unaffected when the Word became flesh! Sch8200:And was Mohammed's witness in agreement with that of Jesus' disciples! If the Criteria for the mortal men here was that they had ben with Him from the commencement of His earthly ministry, does Muhammed, another mortal, qualify on this ground? If the only way Jesus would be glorified was to be by writing, then the Spanish author of the failed 'gospel of barnabas' could also make similar claims on ground of his book! Emp:this matter has been overworked. John prophesied of the baptism with the Spirit; Jesus confirmed that too after His resurrection! These are sure: 1. In the OT and the Gospels before John 14&15, there were many mention of the Spirit, Holy Spirit and His acts etc this neither referred to a man or angel what suddenly changed in the 6th AD/CE? Jesus plainly said,"...the Spirit of Truth which proceeds from the Father" John 15:26 meaning He is the Ruh al-Qudus that Islam finds a Mystery! Note the verb there it is not future tense but a present tense meaning He has always been coming but only this time He will come in My Name and will not only be upon you but will dwell IN you just as promised: 27 And I will put my spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do them. Ezekiel 36:27 Note that this was a promise for the future! Keep it simple. Are those Christians who do not believe Jesus is God, who do not believe in trinity any less Christians?. Are they going to hell?. Those people do not consider themselves antichrist. I have them in my friends cycle. they are not occult. They firmly believe Bible support their doctrines.Refer to my answer to a similar question up there. Sch8200:Consider the highlighted! Sch8200:If this be true then Jesus was actually crucified and He died!!! Then, His resurrection is likewise true!!! Else, He is not there meaning the claim that all mankind goes there is Wrong! Otherwise, He is not ordinary Man hence though HE came as a Man, He still did not go there because He was also beyond Man! By implication, the record and account in the Bible is right ab initio! Any objections? Sch8200:But the distinctness of the Personalities has been established?! |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Empiree: 4:39pm On Feb 20, 2016*. Modified: 5:11pm On Feb 20, 2016 |
[quote author=Scholar8200 post=43093506][/quote]my mentions doesnt work anytime you quote me. Anyways, will be back here later. Busy now Let me make quick exception here. The list of prophets you provided (where they are now), Jesus may be an exception due to these verse of Quran When he was born: Quran 3:45 Behold! the angels said: “O Mary! Allah giveth thee glad tidings of a Word from Him: his name will be Christ Jesus, the son of Mary, held in honor in this world and the Hereafter and of (the company of) those nearest to Allah…’ When he was raised: That they said (in boast), "We killed Christ Jesus the son of Mary, the Messenger of Allah";- but they killed him not, nor crucified him, but so it was made to appear to them, and those who differ therein are full of doubts, with no (certain) knowledge, but only conjecture to follow, for of a surety they killed him not:- Nay, Allah raised him up unto Himself; and Allah is Exalted in Power, Wise;- — Qur'an, sura 4 (An-Nisa) ayat 157-158[8] Near mentioned here does not necessarily means he's sitting next to God. Barzakh is just another world of space and time; like Jinns and Angels they live in their world of space and time. Be right here later. |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by unphilaz(m): 11:41pm On Feb 20, 2016 |
Scholar8200: |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by unphilaz(m): 11:50pm On Feb 20, 2016 |
AlMuflihah:have my reservation about the bolded but will call you out on them for such verses |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by unphilaz(m): 11:54pm On Feb 20, 2016 |
AlMuflihah: |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by unphilaz(m): 11:55pm On Feb 20, 2016 |
Scholar8200:called out |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by unphilaz(m): 12:02am On Feb 21, 2016 |
Empiree: |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by unphilaz(m): 12:07am On Feb 21, 2016 |
AlMuflihah: |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by unphilaz(m): 12:14am On Feb 21, 2016 |
Scholar8200: |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Empiree: 7:39pm On Feb 21, 2016 |
Scholar8200:So God is omnipotent, omniscience, He has No beginning, No Ending. Thats very correct. How then can you explain how Jesus is God knowing fully well he has the beginning (i:e born from woman's vagina, circumcised, breastfed, grew up like you and I) and according to you, he died; which means that was his end. How does that compared to the former?. Can you reason?. Or you gonna tell me later run that it is just a mystery?. Think uncle, think. The is becoming a case of "sumu bukum umuyun fahum laa yari jiun". i:e deaf, dump and blind, they will not return to the straight Path Q 2:18 And your Bible said something similar "Because they seeing see not; and hearing they hear not, neither do they understand." - Matthew 13:13 Sound familiar? The concept of One being with the Father from the beginning was obviously taken by Heriaclitus around 6BC (not even Philo) and defaced to reflect Gnostics' belief of there being many intermediaries between God and the material world and Gnostics further claim that Logos was the highest of all the intermediaries! This is an obvious theft of Inspiration/Intellectual material from the Hebrews by the Greeks, and prostituting same to reflect one's belief (A skill much used by Gnostics and attempted by the learner who forged the 'gospel of Barnabas' trying to steal the Gospel and weave Islam into it but he failed woefully!)Honestly, it is really irrelevant to me whether it was plagiarized by Philo or not. Born of contention is Jesus is NOT God. God merely breath Jesus's soul in Mary(p) and she conceived Jesus(p). Very simple and straightforward. Whats all that 'he became flesh after he came down and all that?. Does that make sense to you?. Where did Jesus make such allegations? Now let's see the belief in the Father and Son as shown in the OTGood thing you even brought OT into this. I am sure you do not believe David(p) is God?. If so reading the verse you cited, in your opinion, it is mystery because it appears there are Two Lords refernce in the verse. Bible translators did a very bad job. There are other translations of the Bible with lower case for the second person 'lord'. A similar passage can be found in Matthew 22:44 "The Lord said to my lord, "Sit at my right hand, until I put your enemies under your feet"'? We have a case like this in Quran as well: "And remember that Abraham was tried by his Lord with certain commands,....." {Surah Al-Baqara, 124} ^ read the verse carefully. The first person singular who is conveying this message is Allah(God). Read the way the way the sentence is constructed with the second 'person' Lord with upper letter L. Is that referring to another Creator (of Abraham)? Answer is no. There is nothing mystical about it. The Lord mentioned in this verse refers to Allah. It is like this; when i was a boy and i would do something silly, my mommy would rebuff me and said these words: "If you mommy is saying something you have got to listen" Now, it was only two of us but I mommy mentions another mommy in this sentence. Is she referring to someone else? Answer that, please? Here are other similar verses in the Quran "Behold! his Lord said to him: "Bow (thy will to Me):" He said: "I bow (my will) to the Lord and Cherisher of the Universe." (Surah Al-Baqara, 131) Read this: "And when Moses arrived at Our appointed time and his Lord spoke to him, he said, "My Lord, show me [Yourself] that I may look at You." [Allah] said, "You will not see Me, but look at the mountain; if it should remain in place, then you will see Me." But when his Lord appeared to the mountain, He rendered it level, and Moses fell unconscious. And when he awoke, he said, "Exalted are You! I have repented to You, and I am the first of the believers." Many more of that in the Quran. Now, the verse you quoted above as reference, according to you there are multiple Lords including David, if David(p) was also in spirit as Bible writers want us to believe, why is he not also God?. I hope I am making sense to you?. I really can not help you further with this. It is no mystery at all. The Bible translators and writers misused upper and lower cases a lot....inappropriately. 2. The Lord possessed me in the beginning of his way,Irrelevant....excuse me Once again remember that these were people whose rallying cry was:It is not complicated at all. You need to question Bible translators/writers. Despite them being english speakers, they did bad job. This is Islam: "Hear O Israel, the Lord your God is One Lord!". Thats called "tawheed" in Islam i:e Oneness of God. Very clear and straightforward. Refer to analysis given above. I am not relying on Philo's theory per se. I only brought up his idea to counter your claims. Philo's theory also somehow complicated actually. Indeed, Philo did make good point contrary to your claims that God can be God and man at the same time. But Philo did not consider God similar to heaven, the world, or man; his God existed neither in time nor space and had no human attributes or emotions. He argued that God has no attributes, in consequence no name, and for that reason he cannot be perceived by man. Philo's views @underlined is very similar to Islam. Quran says God Allah is above heavens Allah (swt) says “He is the one who created the heavens and the earth in six days and then made istiwa (rose over) over his throne.” [EMQ Hadid: 4] God does have Attributes that are Majestic. Philo also said he does not compare God to man or His creation. And that God cannot be perceived. This is very true. Qurand and Bible agree with this except that chritians contradict the Bible a lot. Here is Quran: "[He is] Creator of the heavens and the earth. He has made for you from yourselves, mates, and among the cattle, mates; He multiplies you thereby. There is nothing like unto Him, and He is the Hearing, the Seeing." Q 42:11 "LORD, there is no one like you! For you are great, and your name is full of power" Jeremiah 10:6 "Isaiah 46:9 — For I am God, and there is none else; I am God, and there is none like me." Question: How is Jesus God?. How is he like God? Why did you guys messed up everything in the NT baffles me. Herer again, Quran declares: "There is [size=15pt]no one[/size] to share His dominion, nor does He take an aide or supporter from His creatures. He is nearer to man than man's own jugular vein." Al-Qur'an 50:16 The verse ^ debunks your claim 3 in 1 theory, trashes your man-god theory and so fourth. Now then Why did John retain the Word Logos? Simple. It was known to the Hebrews that Wisdom was the One that Expressed/Revealed the Father:I am glad at underlined. It was John doing his thing NOT Jesus(p), NOT under Jesus supervision. And Jesus spoke Aramaic not Hebrew. Hence, still hold no water. Unless and until you can point out with 100% FACT it was Jesus made the statement in John 1:1, which does not make sense to begin with, this case is dismissed. Even Bible commentary on this passage makes no sense. Besides, the Gnostic Greeks regards matter (eg the flesh) to be intrinsically evil hence the Word being made flesh is in total contradistinction with the Philo/Grecian/Gnostic views!And where are you driving at here?. I support Philo on this one. You believe in the former (theory) which has no Divine basis. This is why the same John, having these Grecio/Gnostic corrupters in mind said:Hold on. I am confused here. What are you saying?. Whats your creed of this verse? Interesting, now read and judge:Can you see this is in conflict with other Bible verses and Quran?. And even it is in conflict with other Bible version. This verse in itself is confusion. Now read these Versions English Standard Version "No one has ever seen God; the only God[b], who is at the Father’s side, he has made him known. [b]International Standard Version "No one has ever seen God. The unique God, who is close to the Father's side, has revealed him." GOD'S WORD® Translation No one has ever seen God. God's only Son, the one who is closest to the Father's heart, has made him known. Young's Literal Translation God no one hath ever seen; the only begotten Son, who is on the bosom of the Father -- he did declare. The versions are confusing let alone compare them with this Bible verse: "And the Father who sent me has himself testified concerning me. You have never heard his voice nor seen his form," - John 5:37 Even John 1:18 did not say Jesus see God. It is just another complicated verse like many other Bible verses. |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Empiree: 9:10pm On Feb 21, 2016*. Modified: 12:38am On Feb 22, 2016 |
Now Muslims claim David as one of Islam's prophets but I hope you realise he wrote both Psalms up there!Well, Psalms suffered pretty much same fate as Bible/Gospel in form of distortions as well. You dont see muslims teach these Book. Although, I read and taught zabura(Psalms) in madrassa growing up. But not as you have it today. Even then, it was some pages not the entire thing. The portions that are in harmony with Quran. One of the appearances of the Pre-Incarnated Christ is His visit to Abraham in company of 2 angels and Jesus would go on to cement this when He said He was before Abraham.John 8:58 What then?This was interpreted by some Islamic scholars as (Jesus- p) having foreknowledge of Abraham just like prophet Muhammad(p). And that supposed to mean he is God? Na uncle. Further investigations by Islamic scholars reveals that John 8:58's deliberate mistranslation of Jesus saying "I AM" with new evidence from the Greek language! Here is the text - 1- The text (findings) of John 8:58. *****Jesus was the foretold Messiah and the greatest and final Jewish Prophet. *****Jesus also was the heir who will inherit the earth. Throughout the Bible, Jesus Christ is recorded to have made many claims regarding how GOD Almighty is Higher and Greater than him. These statements should be clear enough to demonstrate and prove that Jesus Christ, the Messiah (anointed, chosen to be the lord/leader/master of the Jews, their final Prophet), is no more than a creation of GOD Almighty. However, Christians often bring few verses that supposedly prove otherwise; that Jesus is GOD Almighty Himself. Such verses are: John 1, John 8:58, Colossians 1:15-16 and perhaps few others. Here is how John 8 reads; thanks to a Muslim scholar who research this. You need to do yourself a favor. Read the entire John 8 verse 1:58. In the passage, Jesus was abruptly interrupted by the Jews who got fed up from him. They thought that he was insulting their intelligence and their cherished faith by talking blasphemous garbage (such as Abraham rejoiced for him (John 8:56) and other things). It is clear that Jesus was most likely interrupted and wasn't heard finishing up his sentence. Also, the context of Jesus' words were about seeing Abraham before he was even born. This is nothing new in the Bible. In the Old Testament, we read: "Before I formed you in the womb I knew you, before you were born I set you apart; I appointed you as a prophet to the nations. (From the NIV Bible, Jeremiah 1:5)" [size=20pt]"[/size][/b]Since Jesus was created from the Word of GOD Almighty, and since also our human-spirits are also created from the Holy Spirit, and since Jesus was a Word from the Word of Allah Almighty, then it is quite possible for him to have known, or seen the records of the future human-creations that were going to be created on earth, such as Abraham and others. After all, Allah Almighty uses Angels, Spirits and other created Beings of His to create creations under His Command. Things in the spiritual realm are different. Existence in the spiritual world, including our spirits, is Eternal. Our earthly bodies are not Eternal. [b]So, Jesus having a prior knowledge about Abraham's spirit is nothing unusual in the spiritual world. Abraham here was used by Jesus because the Jews used him as their highest and greatest Prophet against Jesus. So it wasn't Jesus who brought up Abraham. It was the Jews. Otherwise, Jesus would not have mentioned Abraham or any earthly creation. Read John 8:33. Also, Jesus is the foretold Messiah, the anointed/selected final and greatest Prophet for the Jews, who will come and establish peace on earth and rule the earth in the end. The Old Testament makes it clear that the Messiah will inherit and rule the earth. See the sub-section below for more details. However, we must always never forget that the text of the Bible is neither genuine nor original. The Bible's books and gospels, according to its own translators and theologians were[b][size=20pt]"[/size][/b] Written by mysterious men. Written by an unknown number of men. Written in unknown places. Written in unknown dates. I saw your attachments! Sincerely speaking, I would not expect such simpletonic replies from a Christian worth the Name! The dude gave his best shot,isnt?1. from 1538-1970 Bible has much been changed! Funny!!! The version preserved through the Vaudois remains untouched in the KJV form! That one dates back to 120AD and these people preserved every jot at the cost of their lives and the KJV agrees thereto. What then?You may need to ask the author of the book. I dont know about the date he thought. What i do know is Bible has much been changed between ascension of Jesus(p) and advent of Muhammad(p). That we know for sure. Further changes and distortion came pretty much later. 2. The one on Matthew 1:18 and Luke 1:26,27 is very nauseating! What? The writer endeavors to use this to establish that Holy Ghost=Gabriel. But why did he omit this:See, i dont think you get it. I can care less whether Ruh-Qudus mentioned by Allah with respect to creation of Jesus refers to Gabriel or another set of Holy Spirit. It doesnt matter. What matters is whether it is Holy Ghost or Angel Gabriel, none of them is God or part of God. They are creations of God. Since Muslims also disagree whether it's Holy Ghost or Gabriel, it is a matter of debate. What we do know for sure and we have no doubt about is that Holy Ghost or Holy Spirit or Gabriel is not God with respect to Jesus. It is a matter of Command. That is, whenever God Almighty desires something to get done He only says to it "Be! and it is" which brought about creation of Jesus and ordinary human for that matter. This is called Creative Power. Looks like at some point, you differentiate Jesus from God, Jesus from Holy Spirit. At another, you merged them which is nothing new. It seems to me that you confused(not only you actually but ALL Christians) ila masha'Allah Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?Oh well, this is Mr Luke's version. I think you are trying to emphasis "The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee..." . Luke mere wrote what he heard. He was not a disciple, not even eye witness. Here is Quran version "She (Mary) said, "How can I have a boy while no man has touched me and I have not been unchaste?" He (Gabriel) said, "Thus [it will be]; your Lord says, 'It is easy for Me, and We will make him a sign to the people and a mercy from Us(Allah). And it is a matter [already] decreed.' So she conceived him, and she withdrew with him to a remote place." Surah 19:20-22 angel not the same as Holy Ghost!So? Finally, i implore you to desist from blasphemy God unconsciously. The consequences are grave. Quran speaks: “They have certainly disbelieved who say, ‘God is the Messiah, the son of Mary’ while the Messiah has said, ‘O Children of Israel, worship God, my Lord and your Lord...’” (Quran 5:72) “They have certainly disbelieved who say, ‘God is the third of three.’ (Rather) there is none worthy of worship except One (God). And if they do not desist from what they are saying, there will surely afflict the disbelievers among them a painful punishment. So will they not repent to God and seek His forgiveness? And God is Forgiving and Merciful. The Messiah (Jesus), son of Mary, was no more than a Messenger before whom many Messengers have passed away; and his mother adhered wholly to truthfulness, and they both ate food (as other mortals do). See how We make Our signs clear to them; and see where they are turning away!” (Quran 5:73-75) “And they say: ‘The Most Merciful (God) has taken (for Himself) a son.’ Assuredly you utter a hideous thing, whereby almost the heavens are torn, and the earth is split asunder and the mountains fall in ruins; That they ascribe unto the Most Merciful a son, when it is not suitable for (the Majesty of) the Most Merciful that He should take a son. There is none in the heavens and the earth but comes unto the Most Merciful as a slave.” (Quran 19:88-93) And also: “O People of the Book (Jews and Christians)! Do not exceed the limits in your religion, and attribute to God nothing except the truth. The Messiah, Jesus, son of Mary, was only a Messenger of God, and His command that He conveyed unto Mary, and a spirit from Him. So believe in God and in His Messengers, and do not say: ‘God is a Trinity.’ Give up this assertion; it would be better for you. For God is indeed (the only) One God. Far be it from His glory that He should have a son. To Him belongs all that is in the heavens and in the earth. And God is sufficient for a guardian.” (Quran 4:171) |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by facheux: 9:44pm On Feb 21, 2016 |
Empiree:Well said brother |
| Re: Question: Did Jesus Read The Bible? by Empiree: 10:59pm On Feb 21, 2016*. Modified: 3:19am On Feb 22, 2016 |
Scholar8200:Yes, of course but only in the sense that He (God) NOT Jesus has no beginning, no ending, not born of human, does not eat, drink, sleep, does not die, was not hanged or nailed, can not be seen by human, does not look like human or anything, has no genealogy. And the list goes on. That is mystery. But Jesus is not because he had the beginning (was born by a woman). He died according to you( was captured, hanged or nailed on the cross), he ate, he slept, he poo poo, he has genealogy, he was seen by human and the list goes on. See how simple that was?. That's Islam. Nothing complicated at all. Two distinctive (B)beings. Meaning there is no part of the Quran that actually/expressedly verifies that hadith?I'd rather ignore this because you will never understand if you dont understand identity of Jesus let alone God. No pawn intended Now is it allowed that a hadith validates another hadith? Especially when the former might not (subject to your answer to penultimate question)have been expressedly validated in the Quran?@underlined, yes. It is called "mutawathir" when a hadith has sound chains of narration to the prophet(p) himself, especially when the ahadith are identical and expressed or narrated by different sahaba multiple times. So it applies to the issue of 'grant'. Dajjal is also a case study. Oh Christians too can: GOD!Hmmm God is ALL three?: God, Holy Ghost and Jesus? I hail thee. This was the question: Empire.e: To deny the Divinity of the Son is to deny everything about the Work of Redemption! How then is such an one a Christian? It is a mystery revealed to an extent. But we cannot force our intellect to complete the parts not revealed in understanding. That will be heretical.In that case how about other Sons of God mentioned in the Bible?. Aren't they supposed to be Divine as well since they too are Sons?. Listen uncle scholar, you dont understand. What Bible meant by Son/son is metaphorical. If you said no, then, this is in conflict with ALL three (God, Holy Ghost and Jesus) you mentioned above because you said all three are God and now you said Son is also God. Who is the "Son" ? Quran condemns this; And say, "Praise to Allah , who has not taken a son and has had no partner in [His] dominion and has no [need of a] protector out of weakness; and glorify Him with [great] glorification." Sura 17:111 "And they say, "The Most Merciful has taken [for Himself] a son.",' preach a monstrous falsehood, at which the very heavens might crack, the earth split asunder, and the mountains crumble to dust. That they attribute to the Most Merciful a son, And it is not appropriate for the Most Merciful that He should take a son.." Sura 19:88- "Say, [O Muhammad], {to the Christians} "If the Most Merciful had a son, then I would be the first of [his] worshippers." Surah 43:81 [size=15pt]"And to warn those who say, " Allah has taken a son." They have no knowledge of it, nor had their fathers. Grave is the word that comes out of their mouths; they speak not except a lie."[/size] Surah 18: 4-5 When the Father said (referring to the Son):Good. @bolded, so why wasn't Isaiah Divine as well.....since he's also called Son with upper case 'S'?. Are you being discriminatory and cherry picking here? "son" is metaphorical?. I rest my case. The Father is, was and ever shall be!How about Jesus and Holy Ghost....why leave them out?. Dont you think you just got everything messed up now?. It is mystery? ![]() [size=13pt]I asked: " Who was governing the rest of the planet at that point the flesh suffered limitations?"[/size] You Said:Confusion. Mister, it is time to transit from Christianity to Islam. Your choice And was Mohammed's witness in agreement with that of Jesus' disciples! If the Criteria for the mortal men here was that they had ben with Him from the commencement of His earthly ministry, does Muhammed, another mortal, qualify on this ground?It was only a revelation to Muhammad(p). He was not there when Jesus was said to have foretold of him. Allah only relaid the message to him in the Quran to assure him of his messangership and prophethood If the only way Jesus would be glorified was to be by writing, then the Spanish author of the failed 'gospel of barnabas' could also make similar claims on ground of his book!And what other way(s) do you also anticipate. Elaborate, please?. Jesus plainly said,"...the Spirit of Truth which proceeds from the Father"Prophet Muhammad is also called Al-Amin (the Trustworthy) Note that this was a promise for the future!Yup!. At the time Jesus(p) made the prophecy, Muhammad (p) was yet to arrive. What other future do you anticipate, past or present? If this be true then Jesus was actually crucified and He died!!! Then, His resurrection is likewise true!!! Else, He is not there meaning the claim that all mankind goes there is Wrong! Otherwise, He is not ordinary Man hence though HE came as a Man, He still did not go there because He was also beyond Man! By implication, the record and account in the Bible is right ab initio!@underlined, to keep it simple and staright forward, since you said Jesus is god, then it means your God was killed by the very same people he created, correct?. THINK BROTHER, think. Jesus Appears to the Disciples Now, concerning so called death of Jesus or the alleged crucifixion, Bible disagrees with you, sir. There is no need to post Quran. As disciples thought was dead, Jesus appeared to them as reported by Luke, (Luke 24:36-50) 36 While they were still talking about this, Jesus himself stood among them and said to them, “Peace be with you.” i:e Salaam Alaikum 37 They were startled and frightened, thinking they saw a ghost. 38 He said to them, “Why are you troubled, and why do doubts rise in your minds? 39 Look at my hands and my feet. It is I myself! Touch me and see; a ghost does not have flesh and bones, as you see I have.”[u] ![]() 40 When he had said this, he showed them his hands and feet. 41 And while they still did not believe it because of joy and amazement, he asked them, [u]“Do you have anything here to eat?” 42 They gave him a piece of broiled fish, 43 and he took it and ate it in their presence. Anything else? |
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... go an do research ,i know u wunt do as U are too dull to understand...
Remember that all these were written milleniums before Heriaclitus!
gospel of paul...shior