YourFavEvangeli:


You didn't answer my 2 questions. I will respond only after u answer this questions below with a bible verse.


I have 2 questions for you,
Please reply with scriptural backing.
1. Was the baptism of John from heaven or of men?

2. Was there anywhere anyone baptised someone with the Holy Ghost in the bible?

You agreed with me that the baptism with the Holy Spirit is the same thing as receiving the Holy Spirit or being filled with the Holy Spirit. So, why are you asking me to show you were people got baptized with the Holy Spirit. The first experience on the day of Pentecost was a baptism with the Holy Spirit.

Acts 1:1-4.
1 And when the day of Pentecost was fully come, they were all with one accord in one place.
2 And suddenly there came a sound from heaven as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled all the house where they were sitting.
3 And there appeared unto them cloven tongues like as of fire, and it sat upon each of them.
4 And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.[i][/i]

This is the first recorded experience. The term, 'they were all baptised with the Holy Spirit' was not used here but it is implied otherwise, you are saying that Jesus lied.
And this experience was repeated in many more passages. So, please, let's not keep arguing on this. Go ahead with your water baptism. It won't destroy you and it won't add anything to you either. The only thing it does to the church is that it diverts attention away from the real baptism. So, many believers are not even eager to receive the Holy Spirit because we make it look optional while making water baptism compulsory. And the devil loves it. Only Holy Ghost filled church can put the devil where it belongs.

TruthinAction:


You agreed with me that the baptism with the Holy Spirit is the same thing as receiving the Holy Spirit or being filled with the Holy Spirit. So, why are you asking me to show you were people got baptized with the Holy Spirit. The first experience on the day of Pentecost was a baptism with the Holy Spirit.

Acts 1:1-4.
1 And when the day of Pentecost was fully come, they were all with one accord in one place.
2 And suddenly there came a sound from heaven as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled all the house where they were sitting.
3 And there appeared unto them cloven tongues like as of fire, and it sat upon each of them.
4 And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.[i][/i]

This is the first recorded experience. The term, 'they were all baptised with the Holy Spirit' was not used here but it is implied otherwise, you are saying that Jesus lied.
And this experience was repeated in many more passages. So, please, let's not keep arguing on this. Go ahead with your water baptism. It won't destroy you and it won't add anything to you either. The only thing it does to the church is that it diverts attention away from the real baptism. So, many believers are not even eager to receive the Holy Spirit because we make it look optional while making water baptism compulsory. And the devil loves it. Only Holy Ghost filled church can put the devil where it belongs.

Thanks for your scriptural response..
Yes I agreed that the baptism with the Holy Spirit is the same thing as receiving the Holy Spirit or being filled with the Holy Spirit. However, baptism with the Holy Spirit is not the same thing as water baptism.

You answered number 2 with Acts 1 vs 1-4 and I wholy agree that the Holy Spirit descended on the apostles on the day of pentecost. However, I asked for a place where a man baptised another man with the Holy spirit because all we see in the bible is prayer being made and the Holy Spirit descending on or filling the person that was prayed for.

This is not the same as water baptism where men baptised each other in the name of Jesus with water by immersion.

So I have to ask again:
1. Can you show a place in the bible where a man baptised another man with the Holy Ghost

2. Secondly, you didn't answer number one, please answer scripturally too. Was the baptism of John from heaven or of men?

YourFavEvangeli:


Thanks for your scriptural response..
Yes I agreed that the baptism with the Holy Spirit is the same thing as receiving the Holy Spirit or being filled with the Holy Spirit. However, baptism with the Holy Spirit is not the same thing as water baptism.

You answered number 2 with Acts 1 vs 1-4 and I wholy agree that the Holy Spirit descended on the apostles on the day of pentecost. However, I asked for a place where a man baptised another man with the Holy spirit because all we see in the bible is prayer being made and the Holy Spirit descending on or filling the person that was prayed for.

This is not the same as water baptism where men baptised each other in the name of Jesus with water by immersion.

So I have to ask again:
1. Can you show a place in the bible where a man baptised another man with the Holy Ghost

2. Secondly, you didn't answer number one, please answer scripturally too. Was the baptism of John from heaven or of men?

Yes, Apostles of the early church baptized Christians with the Holy Spirit but didn't use the term baptize. When Peter and John laid hands on the new converts in Samaria, they got filled with the Holy Spirit. This is the baptism with the Holy Spirit;

Acts 8:14-17
14 Now when the apostles which were at Jerusalem heard that Samaria had received the word of God, they sent unto them Peter and John:
15 Who, when they were come down, prayed for them, that they might receive the Holy Ghost:
16 (For as yet he was fallen upon none of them: only they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.)
17 Then laid they their hands on them, and they received the Holy Ghost.

When Apostle Paul was in Ephesus, he laid hands on the believers and they got filled with the Holy Spirit. This is the baptism with the Holy Spirit;

Acts 19:1-6
1 And it came to pass, that, while Apollos was at Corinth, Paul having passed through the upper coasts came to Ephesus: and finding certain disciples,
2 He said unto them, Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? And they said unto him, We have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost.
3 And he said unto them, Unto what then were ye baptized? And they said, Unto John's baptism.
4 Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus.
5 When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.
6 And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.

It is true they also baptized them with water in the name of Jesus but they did it ignorantly. The baptism of Jesus is with the Holy Spirit and not water.

For your first question. The baptism of John of course was from God. But John himself said Jesus will do his baptism with the Holy Spirit. And this is my point. The Holy Spirit has come and everyone can be baptised with the Holy Spirit. We don't need to duplicate it. There is one baptism - Ephesians 4:5.

1 Corinthians 12:13 For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit

Beautiful answer

TruthinAction:

Yes, Apostles of the early church baptized Christians with the Holy Spirit but didn't use the term baptize. When Peter and John laid hands on the new converts in Samaria, they got filled with the Holy Spirit. This is the baptism with the Holy Spirit;

What term was used when the apostles "baptised people with the Holy Spirit?
I ask because in all the scriptures you quoted, I didn't see anywhere the bible states that the Apostles baptised them with the Holy Spirit like the bible expressly says the apostles Baptised with water.

It is true they also baptized them with water in the name of Jesus but they did it ignorantly. The baptism of Jesus is with the Holy Spirit and not water

Please quote the scripture where the apostles expressly admitted their errors in baptising with water in the name of Jesus because you can't know that the Apostles who were the beacons of Christianity and whose letters form the scriptures of the new testament were ignorant except they expressly said so.

For your first question. The baptism of John of course was from God. But John himself said Jesus will do his baptism with the Holy Spirit. And this is my point. The Holy Spirit has come and everyone can be baptised with the Holy Spirit. We don't need to duplicate it. There is one baptism - Ephesians 4:5

Thank you for this answer.
1. If the water baptism of John was ordered by God, and in John 3 vs 26 and John 4 vs 1-2, Jesus (through the apostles) continued water baptism, at what point did the order to stop water baptism come from God?

John 3:26 (KJV) And they came unto John, and said unto him, Rabbi, he that was with thee beyond Jordan, to whom thou barest witness, behold, the same baptizeth, and all men come to him.
John 4:1-2 (KJV) When therefore the Lord knew how the Pharisees had heard that Jesus made and baptized more disciples than John,
(Though Jesus himself baptized not, but his disciples,)

2. Jesus will do the baptism with the Holy Ghost. This is 1000% true, nowhere did Jesus say anyone will baptize anyone with the Holy Ghost. The order Jesus gave before he ascended in Matthew 28 vs 19 was to baptize in the name of Jesus (The name of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost is Jesus) just as they have been doing.
Matthew 28:19 (KJV) Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:

Baptize in the name of... is clearly different from baptize with the Holy Spirit.
Water baptism is carried out by a declaration: "I baptise you in the name of Jesus"

The baptism of the Holy Spirit starts with a prayer which you must participate in. You must open ur mouth and ask for the Holy Spirit or agree verbally that you wish to receive the Holy Spirit. And then we begin to pray and pray and pray till the Holy Spirit descends upon the person. You will admit that sometimes the Holy Spirit does not descend immediately we pray, sometimes it may take days of prayer or years of prayer, several laying on of hands, it could take fasting or a desperate move.

This is because it is not the pastor praying for you that will fill you or baptize you with the Holy Spirit. Only Jesus can do that. All the apostles can do is pray for you and lay hands on you while Jesus plays His part by filling you up.

Is it all the people the apostles prayed for that received the Holy Spirit?
Even as a firebrand pastor, is it all the people that answer the altar call that will receive the Holy Spirit?

But you can guarantee that all that are ready to be baptized by water will be baptized because that is our job. We control how and where the water baptism is done but you can't control how and when the baptism of the Holy Spirit takes place. I have heard of a sister who was prayed for for the baptism of the Holy Spirit for hours but no sign or confirmation or word of knowledge that she had been baptised, they resolved to continue when next she comes to church. However in the bus on her way home, she felt the Holy spirit descend on her and she bursted into tongues. The clerics did their part to pray for her and then the Holy Spirit decided to descend when she was in the bus. And sometimes the Holy Spirit descends as we are still praying. Sometimes the Holy Spirit descends even while praise and worship is going on without anyone laying hands on you.

These examples further butress the point that Jesus is the one who baptized with the Holy Spirit
John 14:18-20 (KJV) I will not leave you comfortless: I will come to you.
Yet a little while, and the world seeth me no more; but ye see me: because I live, ye shall live also.
At that day ye shall know that I am in my Father, and ye in me, and I in you.

Revelation 3:20 (KJV) Behold, I stand at the door, and knock: if any man hear my voice, and open the door, I will come in to him, and will sup with him, and he with me.

3. There is one baptism - Ephesians 4:5.
Again, I agree.
We were expressly ordered to baptize in the name of Jesus in Matthew 28 vs 19. And we obey by baptizing with water by immersion in the name of Jesus. This is the only baptism we perform. And this is the only baptism that symbolizes being buried as described in Colossians 2 vs 12 and Romans 6 vs 3-8.

God bless you

YourFavEvangeli:
Beautiful answer

What term was used when the apostles "baptised people with the Holy Spirit?
I ask because in all the scriptures you quoted, I didn't see anywhere the bible states that the Apostles baptised them with the Holy Spirit like the bible expressly says the apostles Baptised with water.


Please quote the scripture where the apostles expressly admitted their errors in baptising with water in the name of Jesus because you can't know that the Apostles who were the beacons of Christianity and whose letters form the scriptures of the new testament were ignorant except they expressly said so.



Thank you for this answer.
1. If the water baptism of John was ordered by God, and in John 3 vs 26 and John 4 vs 1-2, Jesus (through the apostles) continued water baptism, at what point did the order to stop water baptism come from God?

John 3:26 (KJV) And they came unto John, and said unto him, Rabbi, he that was with thee beyond Jordan, to whom thou barest witness, behold, the same baptizeth, and all men come to him.
John 4:1-2 (KJV) When therefore the Lord knew how the Pharisees had heard that Jesus made and baptized more disciples than John,
(Though Jesus himself baptized not, but his disciples,)

2. Jesus will do the baptism with the Holy Ghost. This is 1000% true, nowhere did Jesus say anyone will baptize anyone with the Holy Ghost. The order Jesus gave before he ascended in Matthew 28 vs 19 was to baptize in the name of Jesus (The name of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost is Jesus) just as they have been doing.
Matthew 28:19 (KJV) Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:

Baptize in the name of... is clearly different from baptize with the Holy Spirit.
Water baptism is carried out by a declaration: "I baptise you in the name of Jesus"

The baptism of the Holy Spirit starts with a prayer which you must participate in. You must open ur mouth and ask for the Holy Spirit or agree verbally that you wish to receive the Holy Spirit. And then we begin to pray and pray and pray till the Holy Spirit descends upon the person. You will admit that sometimes the Holy Spirit does not descend immediately we pray, sometimes it may take days of prayer or years of prayer, several laying on of hands, it could take fasting or a desperate move.

This is because it is not the pastor praying for you that will fill you or baptize you with the Holy Spirit. Only Jesus can do that. All the apostles can do is pray for you and lay hands on you while Jesus plays His part by filling you up.

Is it all the people the apostles prayed for that received the Holy Spirit?
Even as a firebrand pastor, is it all the people that answer the altar call that will receive the Holy Spirit?

But you can guarantee that all that are ready to be baptized by water will be baptized because that is our job. We control how and where the water baptism is done but you can't control how and when the baptism of the Holy Spirit takes place. I have heard of a sister who was prayed for for the baptism of the Holy Spirit for hours but no sign or confirmation or word of knowledge that she had been baptised, they resolved to continue when next she comes to church. However in the bus on her way home, she felt the Holy spirit descend on her and she bursted into tongues. The clerics did their part to pray for her and then the Holy Spirit decided to descend when she was in the bus. And sometimes the Holy Spirit descends as we are still praying. Sometimes the Holy Spirit descends even while praise and worship is going on without anyone laying hands on you.

These examples further butress the point that Jesus is the one who baptized with the Holy Spirit
John 14:18-20 (KJV) I will not leave you comfortless: I will come to you.
Yet a little while, and the world seeth me no more; but ye see me: because I live, ye shall live also.
At that day ye shall know that I am in my Father, and ye in me, and I in you.

Revelation 3:20 (KJV) Behold, I stand at the door, and knock: if any man hear my voice, and open the door, I will come in to him, and will sup with him, and he with me.

3. There is one baptism - Ephesians 4:5.
Again, I agree.
We were expressly ordered to baptize in the name of Jesus in Matthew 28 vs 19. And we obey by baptizing with water by immersion in the name of Jesus. This is the only baptism we perform. And this is the only baptism that symbolizes being buried as described in Colossians 2 vs 12 and Romans 6 vs 3-8.

God bless you

If John the Baptist had said, I am doing the baptism of water but Jesus will do that of the Holy Spirit, we would have inferred that their are two baptism will must go through. But he didn't say that. He said, I baptize WITH water but Jesus will baptize WITH the Holy Spirit. Why is this English difficult to grasp.

Apostle Paul was a very religious person and well read. Do you think he didn't read the account of Mark which says he that believeth and is baptized shall be saved. But he said God did not send him to do water baptism. In addition, he only baptized a few people before he realized this truth.

If water baptism is that important,he would have mentioned it in at least one his thirteen books. He never gave such instruction. Rather, the only time he mentioned it, he watered it down.

Yes, Jesus is the one who baptizes with the Holy Spirit but he can do it through his servants. You can be baptised with the Holy Spirit without anyone laying hands on you. Just simply ask in faith and he will fill you.

The gift of the Holy Spirit can also be imparted through the laying of hands which the Apostles did on a few occasions.

The account of Matthew 28:18-20 stands alone. The other gospel didn't mention it. It is possible that Matthew rephrased what Jesus said in the way he understood it and as such distorted the statement of Jesus.

Know that there were no tape recorder back then. They were only able to give account of what Jesus said as far as their memories could carry. That is why those who compiled the Bible had to include four witnesses.

And you can only establish a doctrine in the mouth of two of there witnesses. You can't establish a doctrine on one witness alone. So, what Matthew wrote concerning baptizing cannot be used to establish a doctrine.

Jesus himself said before he ascended that John is the one who baptized with water. But they will be baptized with the Holy Spirit. Jesus cannot therefore order his disciples to be baptizing with water when he does his with the Holy Spirit. Asking them to do water baptism is going backward and nullifying the prophecy of John the Baptist.

TruthinAction:


If John the Baptist had said, I am doing the baptism of water but Jesus will do that of the Holy Spirit, we would have inferred that their are two baptism will must go through. But he didn't say that. He said, I baptize WITH water but Jesus will baptize WITH the Holy Spirit. Why is this English difficult to grasp.

Reread what you typed again and show me the difference in the two sentences.

TruthinAction:

Apostle Paul was a very religious person and well read. Do you think he didn't read the account of Mark which says he that believeth and is baptized shall be saved. But he said God did not send him to do water baptism. In addition, he only baptized a few people before he realized this truth.

If Apostle Paul didn't do water baptism, where did apostle Paul baptise anyone with the Holy Ghost?
I hope you realize that the Corinthians we're all baptised but not by Paul.

1 Corinthians 1:13 (KJV) Is Christ divided? was Paul crucified for you? or were ye baptized in the name of Paul?

This question here shows that they were obviously baptised in the name of Jesus. Otherwise he would have asked "were you baptised"? This question was asked because there was division in the church.

1 Corinthians 1:11-12 (KJV) For it hath been declared unto me of you, my brethren, by them which are of the house of Chloe, that there are contentions among you.
Now this I say, that every one of you saith, I am of Paul; and I of Apollos; and I of Cephas; and I of Christ.

This was the division he was trying to quench.
His questions:
1. Is Christ divided? No
2. Was Paul crucified for you? No, it was Jesus
3. Or were ye baptized in the name of Paul? No, they were baptised in the name of Jesus.

The only difference there is that it wasn't Apostle Paul who did the baptism which is why he was even happy that he wasn't the one who did the baptism.

If water baptism is that important,he would have mentioned it in at least one his thirteen books. He never gave such instruction. Rather, the only time he mentioned it, he watered it down.

1. Acts 19:4-5 (KJV) Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus.
When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.

2. Romans 6:3-4 (KJV) Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death?
Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life.

3. Ephesians 4:5 (KJV) One Lord, one faith, one baptism,

4. Colossians 2:12 (KJV) Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.

5. 1 Corinthians 12:13 (KJV) For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.

6. Galatians 3:27 (KJV) For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.

The account of Matthew 28:18-20 stands alone. The other gospel didn't mention it. It is possible that Matthew rephrased what Jesus said in the way he understood it and as such distorted the statement of Jesus..

If one sentence in the bible is a lie, then the entire Christianity is built on a lie. The Bible was screened by God himself and contains zero lies or errors.
If you say the English translation is wrong, bring the original Greek text and prove it! If you say ONE sentence in the bible is wrong, why are you a Christian? Why following a book filled with errors?
Calling one sentence in the Bible a distortion is blasphemy

Jesus himself said before he ascended that John is the one who baptized with water. But they will be baptized with the Holy Spirit. Jesus cannot therefore order his disciples to be baptizing with water when he does his with the Holy Spirit. Asking them to do water baptism is going backward and nullifying the prophecy of John the Baptist.

Please explain what was happening in John 3 vs 26 and John 4 vs 1-2
John 3:26 (KJV) And they came unto John, and said unto him, Rabbi, he that was with thee beyond Jordan, to whom thou barest witness, behold, the same baptizeth, and all men come to him.

John 4:1-2 (KJV) When therefore the Lord knew how the Pharisees had heard that Jesus made and baptized more disciples than John,
(Though Jesus himself baptized not, but his disciples,)

You didn't answer this question:
1. If the water baptism of John was ordered by God, and in John 3 vs 26 and John 4 vs 1-2, Jesus (through the apostles) continued water baptism, at what point did the order to stop water baptism come from God?

YourFavEvangeli:


Reread what you typed again and show me the difference in the two sentences.




If Apostle Paul didn't do water baptism, where did apostle Paul baptise anyone with the Holy Ghost?
I hope you realize that the Corinthians we're all baptised but not by Paul.

1 Corinthians 1:13 (KJV) Is Christ divided? was Paul crucified for you? or were ye baptized in the name of Paul?

This question here shows that they were obviously baptised in the name of Jesus. Otherwise he would have asked "were you baptised"? This question was asked because there was division in the church.

1 Corinthians 1:11-12 (KJV) For it hath been declared unto me of you, my brethren, by them which are of the house of Chloe, that there are contentions among you.
Now this I say, that every one of you saith, I am of Paul; and I of Apollos; and I of Cephas; and I of Christ.

This was the division he was trying to quench.
His questions:
1. Is Christ divided? No
2. Was Paul crucified for you? No, it was Jesus
3. Or were ye baptized in the name of Paul? No, they were baptised in the name of Jesus.

The only difference there is that it wasn't Apostle Paul who did the baptism which is why he was even happy that he wasn't the one who did the baptism.



1. Acts 19:4-5 (KJV) Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus.
When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.

2. Romans 6:3-4 (KJV) Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death?
Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life.

3. Ephesians 4:5 (KJV) One Lord, one faith, one baptism,

4. Colossians 2:12 (KJV) Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.

5. 1 Corinthians 12:13 (KJV) For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.

6. Galatians 3:27 (KJV) For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.



If one sentence in the bible is a lie, then the entire Christianity is built on a lie. The Bible was screened by God himself and contains zero lies or errors.
If you say the English translation is wrong, bring the original Greek text and prove it! If you say ONE sentence in the bible is wrong, why are you a Christian? Why following a book filled with errors?
Calling one sentence in the Bible a distortion is blasphemy



Please explain what was happening in John 3 vs 26 and John 4 vs 1-2
John 3:26 (KJV) And they came unto John, and said unto him, Rabbi, he that was with thee beyond Jordan, to whom thou barest witness, behold, the same baptizeth, and all men come to him.

John 4:1-2 (KJV) When therefore the Lord knew how the Pharisees had heard that Jesus made and baptized more disciples than John,
(Though Jesus himself baptized not, but his disciples,)

You didn't answer this question:
1. If the water baptism of John was ordered by God, and in John 3 vs 26 and John 4 vs 1-2, Jesus (through the apostles) continued water baptism, at what point did the order to stop water baptism come from God?

I think your problem is pride. I give up on you. I have given you enough evidence to buttress my point. The statement credited to John the Baptist and our Lord Jesus is enough to understand the era we are living in.

It is not through that God himself scanned the Bible. They were put together by men. And there are obvious errors but it doesn't affect the tenets of the Gospel.

Please continue with your watery religion. I will move on in the power of the Holy Spirit.

Farewell.

TruthinAction:


I think your problem is pride. I give up on you. I have given you enough evidence to buttress my point. The statement credited to John the Baptist and our Lord Jesus is enough to understand the era we are living in.

It is not through that God himself scanned the Bible. They were put together by men. And there are obvious errors but it doesn't affect the tenets of the Gospel.

Please continue with your watery religion. I will move on in the power of the Holy Spirit.

Farewell.

The Bible may have mistranslation but not errors. The Bible was put together by divine coordination by Spirit filled men.

God bless

YourFavEvangeli:


The Bible may have mistranslation but not errors. The Bible was put together by divine coordination by Spirit filled men.

God bless

There are. Even over a hundred errors. But it doesn't change the authenticity. The errors are human. It has nothing to do with God. Or you want me to start pointing them to you. Just to save me the stress, just Google it.

YourFavEvangeli:
You didn't answer this question:
1. If the water baptism of John was ordered by God,

The John the Baptist (i.e. JTB) water baptism, just as every other water purification or water cleansing ritual, though rubber stamped from heaven, you like to type 'ordered by God' so I will, play along with you on that, loll, does not take away, the fact and truth, that water baptism under whichever disguise, is operating under the law and not under grace

All ceremonial washing whether, it is JTB Jordan water baptism, Namaan healed by bathing in the river Jordan, any other water baptism and/or even cleansing with water, as done by the priests and whatnot, for purification purposes, are all carried out, while the law, is still in force and in operation (i.e. while adhering to and operating under the law)

YourFavEvangeli:
and in John 3 vs 26 and John 4 vs 1-2, Jesus (through the apostles) continued water baptism, at what point did the order to stop water baptism come from God?

I am pleased to see you changing your stance after your original post and subsequent ones, with big fat lies, of you saying that Jesus specifically ordered water baptism and even your bigger fat lie, that Jesus supervised water baptisms done by His disciples. Dont you see that, all this, you putting your own words into the bible and saying things, that the bible, never in a clear and detailed manner, leaving no room for confusion or doubt, said, is getting you digging a bigger hole you wouldnt be able to climb up and out from?

Not minding your underlined 'Jesus (through the apostles)' argument, please respond to the following questions:
1. Where in the bible, do you read Jesus personally and directly baptising anyone water?
2. Why didnt Jesus, Himself personally and directly baptise anyone with water, but left it to be carried out by the disciples?
3. Where in the bible, do you read Jesus, incontrovertibly, meaning, in a way that is exact and clear, indicating that, it is water baptism, He is referring to every time, baptism is mentioned by Him?
4. Give us 5 reasons, why JTB water baptism is required under the New Testament, and I kindly, will reciprocate with 10 good reasons, why JTB water baptism, isnt necessary nor compulsory under the New Testament.

_{Personal text: Jesus is not a theologian. He is God who told stories.}

NNTR:
The John the Baptist (i.e. JTB) water baptism, just as every other water purification or water cleansing ritual, though rubber stamped from heaven, you like to type 'ordered by God' so I will, play along with you on that, loll, does not take away, the fact and truth, that water baptism under whichever disguise, is operating under the law and not under grace

All ceremonial washing whether, it is JTB Jordan water baptism, Namaan healed by bathing in the river Jordan, any other water baptism and/or even cleansing with water, as done by the priests and whatnot, for purification purposes, are all carried out, while the law, is still in force and in operation (i.e. while adhering to and operating under the law)

I am pleased to see you changing your stance after your original post and subsequent ones, with big fat lies, of you saying that Jesus specifically ordered water baptism and even your bigger fat lie, that Jesus supervised water baptisms done by His disciples. Dont you see that, all this, you putting your own words into the bible and saying things, that the bible, never in a clear and detailed manner, leaving no room for confusion or doubt, said, is getting you digging a bigger hole you wouldnt be able to climb up and out from?

Not minding your underlined 'Jesus (through the apostles)' argument, please respond to the following questions:
1. Where in the bible, do you read Jesus personally and directly baptising anyone water?
2. Why didnt Jesus, Himself personally and directly baptise anyone with water, but left it to be carried out by the disciples?
3. Where in the bible, do you read Jesus, incontrovertibly, meaning, in a way that is exact and clear, indicating that, it is water baptism, He is referring to every time, baptism is mentioned by Him?
4. Give us 5 reasons, why JTB water baptism is required under the New Testament, and I kindly, will reciprocate with 10 good reasons, why JTB water baptism, isnt necessary nor compulsory under the New Testament.

Go back and answer my last questions with a scripture

TruthinAction:


There are. Even over a hundred errors. But it doesn't change the authenticity. The errors are human. It has nothing to do with God. Or you want me to start pointing them to you. Just to save me the stress, just Google it.

Glad to see your true colors showing

JESUS IS THE ONLY NAME THAT SAVES.

YourFavEvangeli:
Go back and answer my last questions with a scripture

1. Did Jesus Christ Himself personally do any water baptism, hmm?
2. Did Jesus Christ specifically, mention water baptism to anyone to do, hmm?

1. Where in the bible, do you read Jesus personally and directly baptising anyone water?
2. Why didnt Jesus, Himself personally and directly baptise anyone with water, but left it to be carried out by the disciples?
3. Where in the bible, do you read Jesus, incontrovertibly, meaning, in a way that is exact and clear, indicating that, it is water baptism, He is referring to every time, baptism is mentioned by Him?
4. Give us 5 reasons, why JTB water baptism is required under the New Testament, and I kindly, will reciprocate with 10 good reasons, why JTB water baptism, isnt necessary nor compulsory under the New Testament.

Oga answer the above easy, simple harmless, and straightforward questions or shut up already, haba!

Go back to the beginning right through to my last post, to see that each and all questions you asked, were religiously clinically and decisively answered with scriptures from the bible, all the way supporting every reply given

Your skilfulness, in the industry of concocting proof-texting with scripture and all this your exercise in whataboutism, is not doing you any favours at all.

_{Personal text: Jesus is not a theologian. He is God who told stories.}

orisa37:
JESUS IS THE ONLY NAME THAT SAVES.

Acts 4:12
There is salvation in no one else!
God has given no other name under heaven by which we must be saved.

OR

Acts 4:12
And there is salvation in no one else;
for there is no other name under heaven that has been given among people by which we must be saved
[for God has provided the world no alternative for salvation].”

Acts 10:43
All the prophets testify about Him, that through His name everyone who believes in Him
[whoever trusts in and relies on Him, accepting Him as Savior and Messiah] receives forgiveness of sins.”


Its true, that Jesus is the only name that saves, and this is plainly and simply so because the name Jesus, which really is Yahshua, means Yahweh Saves, meaning came down to earth whilst still in heaven to be Emmanuel, (i.e. God with us)

_{Personal text: Jesus is not a theologian. He is God who told stories.}

NNTR:
1. Did Jesus Christ Himself personally do any water baptism, hmm?
2. Did Jesus Christ specifically, mention water baptism to anyone to do, hmm?

1. Where in the bible, do you read Jesus personally and directly baptising anyone water?
2. Why didnt Jesus, Himself personally and directly baptise anyone with water, but left it to be carried out by the disciples?
3. Where in the bible, do you read Jesus, incontrovertibly, meaning, in a way that is exact and clear, indicating that, it is water baptism, He is referring to every time, baptism is mentioned by Him?
4. Give us 5 reasons, why JTB water baptism is required under the New Testament, and I kindly, will reciprocate with 10 good reasons, why JTB water baptism, isnt necessary nor compulsory under the New Testament.

Oga answer the above easy, simple harmless, and straightforward questions or shut up already, haba!

Go back to the beginning right through to my last post, to see that each and all questions you asked, were religiously clinically and decisively answered with scriptures from the bible, all the way supporting every reply given

Your skilfulness, in the industry of concocting proof-texting with scripture and all this your exercise in whataboutism, is not doing you any favours at all.

You're not asking to learn, you're asking just to argue. If you want to learn, go back to my question and answer all with scriptures.
Meanwhile, thanks for keeping the thread alive. It's been 2 weeks+ now, from 3,000 thread views to 6,000 views. 10,000 views coming soon.

NNTR:
Acts 1:4-5
4And while they were gathered together, He commanded them:
“Do not leave Jerusalem, but wait for the gift the Father promised, which you have heard Me discuss.
5For John baptized with water, but in a few days you will be baptized with the Holy Spirit.

John 14:26
But the Helper (Comforter, Advocate, Intercessor—Counselor, Strengthener, Standby), the Holy Spirit,
whom the Father will send in My name [in My place, to represent Me and act on My behalf],
He will teach you all things. And He will help you remember everything that I have told you.

Acts 11:15-16
15As I began to speak, the Holy Spirit fell upon them, just as He had fallen upon us at the beginning.
16Then I remembered the word of the Lord, as He used to say, ‘John baptized with water, but you will be baptized with the Holy Spirit.’

Of course, there is baptism by water (i.e. operating under the law) and baptism by the Holy Ghost, just as there is physical circumcision (i.e. operating under the law) and spiritual circumcision. I know which ones are better, loll.

Matthew 2 vs 38 is totally and theologically wrong because the cancellation of sin, is not done in the name of Jesus, but rather remission of sin happened on the basis of the shedding of Jesus' blood.

Now watch this, if Jesus clearly stated Holy Spirit baptism in Acts 1:5 seen up there, on whose authority is Apostle Peter gone to say water baptism in Acts 2:38 gives remission of sins, when I John 1:7 clearly says 'and the blood of Jesus His Son cleanses us from all sin [by erasing the stain of sin, keeping us cleansed from sin in all its forms and manifestations].' and Hebrews 9:22b supports that truth by saying 'without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness [neither release from sin and its guilt, nor cancellation of the merited punishment].'

Equally why would Philip, the Apostle, also slip on this theological banana skin of operating under the law, by carrying out water baptism for the Ethiopian eunuch? It simply is because of Acts 2:42, that is they continually and faithfully devoting themselves to the doctrine and instruction of the apostles, and not of the instruction of Jesus. They were operating under the law. Smh.

Jesus, in Acts 1:5, said Holy Spirit baptism but Apostle Peter, in Acts 2:38, drifts away from Jesus expressed instruction, about Holy Spirit baptism, to go prescribe to water baptism (i.e. Acts 10:47–48)

Apostle Philip too, succumbed to pressure to facilitate water baptism against Jesus' expressed order of Holy Spirit baptism. They were operating under the law. Smh.

It wasnt until Acts 11:16, that Apostle Peter came to himself, which is, at the point when John 14:26 got fulfilled. It's at Acts 11:16, that Apostle Peter remembered that, its actually Holy Spirit baptism what Jesus taught them and not water baptism (i.e. Then I remembered the word of the Lord, how He used to say, ‘John baptized with water, but you will be baptized with the Holy Spirit.’)

Apostle Paul, because of the at Acts 19:4-5, made a u-turn departure from operating under the law, with at I Corinthians 1:14, literally saying:
'I thank God I didnt water baptized any of you'

Ephesians 4:5
There is one Lord, one faith, one baptism,

TruthinAction, the combination of your disgraceful attempt at butchering John 3:6 and YourFavEvangeli prooftexting verses of the bible against one and another under a self deception of having some sort of understanding that is false just shows you both belong to some bizarre cult

One baptism. The Holy Spirit baptism. Not, no poxy, water baptism, but just one baptism, the baptism of the Holy Spirit. We've done away with operating under the law, so go argue with some one that has ignorance to exchange with your on display bagful of ignorances. KMFT.

_{Personal text: Jesus is not a theologian. He is God who told stories.}

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YourFavEvangeli:
You're not asking to learn

I asked you the 5 easy, simple, innocent, harmless, not difficult questions because your answers would reveal how much grounds you need to more learn.

The 'give us 5 reasons, why JTB water baptism is required under the New Testament, and I kindly, will reciprocate with 10 good reasons, why JTB water baptism, isnt necessary nor compulsory under the New Testament' request, was generously made so you have an opportunity, if you can manage, to shine, but you crumbled under the pressure of the questions and weight of the request, loll.

YourFavEvangeli:
you're asking just to argue.

I dont argue, however, as for you, arguing, is your stock of trade, and all the ignorances you argue on in the face of fact(s) is meaningless.

YourFavEvangeli:
If you want to learn, go back to my question and answer all with scriptures.

Somebody like you who learns, but doesnt think through what has been learnt, is lost and a Far-I-See (i.e. Pharisee)

YourFavEvangeli:
Meanwhile, thanks for keeping the thread alive. It's been 2 weeks+ now, from 3,000 thread views to 6,000 views. 10,000 views coming soon.

I am sure you can exchange for money, the '3,000 thread views to 6,000 views. 10,000 views coming soon', loll. Weh done Sir!

_{Personal text: Jesus is not a theologian. He is God who told stories.}

NNTR:

I am sure you can exchange for money, the '3,000 thread views to 6,000 views. 10,000 views coming soon', loll. Weh done Sir!

Nah, I won't exchange it even for a million dollars, lives have been reached and touched and will keep being reached

NNTR:

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Somebody like you who learns, but doesnt think through what has been learnt, is lost and a Far-I-See (i.e. Pharisee)

The thread is sooo quiet, I don't like it

YourFavEvangeli:
Every one who believes and is baptised is joined into one body with Christ so we become Israelites through Christ, so Jesus was sent to us.
Thanks for pointing that out.

This is a lie!

AntiChristian:
Jesus was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel.

Not to us.

The Lost sheep of Israel were scattered by God to every tongue, every tribe, and every nation of this world. They live right among us gentiles and many of them are not aware they nor realize they were descended from Israel, to begin with. God detailed all of this would happen right there in His Law of Moses which He gave to Israel, and He spoke numerously of this through His prophets. So, you don't know if the man standing right next to you is a lost sheep of Israel or not, so speak only for yourself.

Kobojunkie:
This is a lie!

1 Corinthians 12:13 (KJV) For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.

If you disagree with the above, What's the truth ?

YourFavEvangeli:
1. 1 Corinthians 12:13 (KJV) For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.

If you disagree with the above, What's the truth ?

Jesus Christ never promised those who became born-again entry into God's Israel. He instead said that those who are born-again enter into the Kingdom of God either through the Broad gate which leads to destruction or the Narrow gate which leads to True life(Heaven) -- John 3 vs 1 - 8 & Matthew 7 vs 13 - 14 & Luke 13 vs 22 - 30 . And He emphatically stated that the Kingdom of God is a Kingdom not of this world , so there is no confusing it with Israel in anyway.

As for Jesus Christ , He made it pretty clear that He was sent only to the lost sheep of israel meaning that if you don't have the blood of Israel in your veins you cannot have the Kingdom of God or Jesus Christ as your Lord.

Kobojunkie:
Jesus Christ never promised those who became born-again entry into God's Israel. He instead said that those who are born-again enter into the Kingdom of God either through the Broad gate which leads to destruction or the Narrow gate which leads to True life(Heaven) -- John 3 vs 1 - 8 & Matthew 7 vs 13 - 14 & Luke 13 vs 22 - 30 . And He emphatically stated that the Kingdom of God is a Kingdom not of this world , so there is no confusing it with Israel in anyway.

As for Jesus Christ , He made it pretty clear that He was sent only to the lost sheep of israel meaning that if you don't have the blood of Israel in your veins you cannot have the Kingdom of God or Jesus Christ as your Lord.

Lol, God's Israel? Is there devil's Israel?

1. John 12:32 (KJV) And I, if I be lifted up from the earth, will draw all men unto me.

2. Romans 9:24-25 (KJV) Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?
As he saith also in Osee, I will call them my people, which were not my people; and her beloved, which was not beloved.

3. Romans 11:11 (KJV) I say then, Have they stumbled that they should fall? God forbid: but rather through their fall salvation is come unto the Gentiles, for to provoke them to jealousy.

4. Matt 15 vs 22-28: Jesus healed the Samaritan woman who wasn't an Israelite, was that part of his work as the saviour of only the lost sheep of Israel?

5. Galatians 3:26-29 (KJV) For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus.
For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.
There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.
And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.

Please try to explain the emboldened part in point number 5 above if you can't respond to all the points I stated

YourFavEvangeli:
A. Lol, God's Israel? Is there devil's Israel?
1. John 12:32 (KJV) And I, if I be lifted up from the earth, will draw all men unto me.

2. Romans 9:24-25 (KJV) Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?
As he saith also in Osee, I will call them my people, which were not my people; and her beloved, which was not beloved.

3. Romans 11:11 (KJV) I say then, Have they stumbled that they should fall? God forbid: but rather through their fall salvation is come unto the Gentiles, for to provoke them to jealousy.

4. Matt 15 vs 22-28: Jesus healed the Samaritan woman who wasn't an Israelite, was that part of his work as the saviour of only the lost sheep of Israel?

5. Galatians 3:26-29 (KJV) For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus. For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ. There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.
And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.

Please try to explain the emboldened part in point number 5 above if you can't respond to all the points I stated

I. Well, according to God, He is the God of Israel meaning Israel belongs to God. If you know of another Israel which belongs to the devil, let me know. Furthermore, are we to completely abandon all that the same Jesus Christ said regarding the fact that He was sent by the Father, God, to only the lost sheep of Israel? Or are we to compile all of HIs statements together as God's Truth?

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Please select from the options below the statement that best aligns with the Truth of God as declared by Jesus Christ in His Gospel.
Question 1: which of the following statements is God's Truth
a. Jesus said, “God sent me only to the lost people of Israel, and I will be lifted up from the earth. When that happens, I will draw all people to myself.”
b. Jesus said, “God did not send me only to the lost people of Israel, I will be lifted up from the earth. When that happens, I will draw all people to myself.”

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4. Samaritans are descendants of Ephraim and Manasseh, the 2 sons of Joseph who was the 11th son of Jacob(Israel).

5. Always pay close attention to context. LIfting verses out of context is akin to declaring one's ignorance of what is written. Who are those who will no longer require to have the Law of Moses as their guardian by their acceptance of Jesus Christ? The Jews believers in Jesus Christ who were formerly under the Law of Moses prior to accepting Jesus Christ, God's Law in the Kingdom of God as guardian over them.

21 Does this mean that the law works against God’s promises? Of course not. The law was never God’s way of giving new life to people. If it were, then we could be made right with God by following the law.
22 But this is not possible. The Scriptures put the whole world in prison under the control of sin, so that the only way for people to get what God promised would be through faith in[j] Jesus Christ. It is given to those who believe in him.
23 Before this faith came, the law held us as prisoners. We had no freedom until God showed us the way of faith that was coming.
24 I mean the law was the guardian in charge of us until Christ came. After he came, we could be made right with God through faith.
25 Now that the way of faith has come, we no longer need the law to be our guardian.
26-27 You were all baptized into Christ, and so you were all clothed with Christ. This shows that you are all children of God through faith in Christ Jesus.
28 Now, in Christ, it doesn’t matter if you are a Jew or a Greek, a slave or free, male or female. You are all the same in Christ Jesus.
29 You belong to Christ, so you are Abraham’s descendants. You get all of God’s blessings because of the promise that God made to Abraham. - Galatians 3 vs 21 - 29

Paul made clear to you in the context above that His message was directed at the Jews — those who were of the tribe of Benjamin, Judah, and Levi. In verse 28, He makes clear that under Jesus Christ, no longer were the people of Israel divided, but united as one people — children of God.

Kobojunkie:
I. Well, according to God, He is the God of Israel meaning Israel belongs to God. If you know of another Israel which belongs to the devil, let me know. Furthermore, are we to completely abandon all that the same Jesus Christ said regarding the fact that He was sent by the Father, God, to only the lost sheep of Israel? Or are we to compile all of HIs statements together as God's Truth?

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Please select from the options below the statement that best aligns with the Truth of God as declared by Jesus Christ in His Gospel.
Question 1: which of the following statements is God's Truth
a. Jesus said, “God sent me only to the lost people of Israel, and I will be lifted up from the earth. When that happens, I will draw all people to myself.”
b. Jesus said, “God did not send me only to the lost people of Israel, I will be lifted up from the earth. When that happens, I will draw all people to myself.”

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4. Samaritans are descendants of Ephraim and Manasseh, the 2 sons of Joseph who was the 11th son of Jacob(Israel).

5. Always pay close attention to context. LIfting verses out of context is akin to declaring one's ignorance of what is written. Who are those who will no longer require to have the Law of Moses as their guardian by their acceptance of Jesus Christ? The Jews believers in Jesus Christ who were formerly under the Law of Moses prior to accepting Jesus Christ, God's Law in the Kingdom of God as guardian over them.
Paul made clear to you in the context above that His message was directed at the Jews — those who were of the tribe of Benjamin, Judah, and Levi. In verse 28, He makes clear that under Jesus Christ, no longer were the people of Israel divided, but united as one people — children of God.

1. These two statements are found in the bible but you have quoted them out of context thereby giving a different meaning to what was implied

a. Jesus said, “God sent me only to the lost people of Israel, and I will be lifted up from the earth. When that happens, I will draw all people to myself.”

The new testament which makes the gentiles and Jews all heirs of Abraham in Christ began after Christ died not before hence the drawing of men only happened after Christ was lifted up (crucified).
A. Matthew 26:28 (KJV) For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.
B. Hebrews 9:17 (KJV) For a testament is of force after men are dead: otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator liveth.

Christ was sent to the lost sheep of Israel, but as many as have been baptized into Christ are automatically Israelites through Christ.
Galatians 3:26-29 (KJV) For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus. For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ. There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.
And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.


2. What's your biblical proof that the Samaritans are descendants of Ephraim and Manasseh

3. Apostle Paul was not referring to the Jews in Galatians chapter 3 vs 28. The book itself is called the book of Galatians because it was written to the Galatians as evidenced in Gal 1 vs 1-2:
Galatians 1:1-2 (KJV) Paul, an apostle, (not of men, neither by man, but by Jesus Christ, and God the Father, who raised him from the dead
And all the brethren which are with me, unto the churches of Galatia:

Galatia is in present day Turkey which was then part of Greece. Which is why he specifically mentioned that there is neither Jew nor Greek.

You forgot to respond to number 2 and 3

YourFavEvangeli:
1. These two statements are found in the bible but you have quoted them out of context thereby giving a different meaning to what was implied

a. Jesus said, “God sent me only to the lost people of Israel, and I will be lifted up from the earth. When that happens, I will draw all people to myself.”

2. The new testament which makes the gentiles and Jews all heirs of Abraham in Christ began after Christ died not before hence the drawing of men only happened after Christ was lifted up (crucified).
A. Matthew 26:28 (KJV) For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.
B. Hebrews 9:17 (KJV) For a testament is of force after men are dead: otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator liveth.

3. Christ was sent to the lost sheep of Israel, but as many as have been baptized into Christ are automatically Israelites through Christ..

1. The context of both statements made by Jesus Christ is the Kingdom of God meaning that they both apply so long as we are considering the Gospel.

2. None of the verses you referenced support the claim made in bold. Jesus Christ, God's Law in the Kingdom of God never once said He came to make Gentiles, those who He referred to as dogs, a part of Abraham’s promise. Contrary to that claim, He told His His followers not to give to the dogs that which is Holy - God's New Covenant/agreement in the Kingdom of God - Matthew 7 vs 6 . So, again, stop these attempts to insert doctrines into that written. Rather let that which is written speak for itself..

3. Not once in the entirety of His teachings did Jesus Christ promise those whom He referred to as dogs citizenship in Israel. In the very passage you quoted from, Paul, carefully explains to you that His audience are those who are Under the Law, those who are of Israel, in particular, the Jews. So how why do you make a liar of Paul by using him to push an idea foreign to what he intended?

YourFavEvangeli:
1. What's your biblical proof that the Samaritans are descendants of Ephraim and Manasseh

2. Apostle Paul was not referring to the Jews in Galatians chapter 3 vs 28. The book itself is called the book of Galatians because it was written to the Galatians as evidenced in Gal 1 vs 1-2:
Galatians 1:1-2 (KJV) Paul, an apostle, (not of men, neither by man, but by Jesus Christ, and God the Father, who raised him from the dead
And all the brethren which are with me, unto the churches of Galatia:

Galatia is in present day Turkey which was then part of Greece. Which is why he specifically mentioned that there is neither Jew nor Greek.

3. You forgot to respond to number 2 and 3

1. They are known as descendants of Ephraim and Manasseh. Also, Jesus Christ is written to have preached the Gospel to them beginning with the woman at the well, confirming that they were not dogs but of Israel who He, Jesus Christ was sent to give that which is Holy to.

2. Your claims regarding Paul in this case are nothing but lies. Isolating verses from the context presented in other to support a lie only reveals your scheme. Paul's letters were addressed primarily to a Jewish audience for good reason. His mentioning in that context that he was referring to those who formerly had the Law of Moses as a guardian speaks volumes. But you disregard this because your motive is to insert a lie into what is written.

3. You only need consider the context of the statement to realize that the author of the verses you lifted out of context directed those at the Jews as well. The entire letter to the Hebrews, for instance, is written to Israelite (Hebrew) believers.

Kobojunkie:
1. The context of both statements made by Jesus Christ is the Kingdom of God meaning that they both apply so long as we are considering the Gospel.

2. None of the verses you referenced support the claim made in bold. Jesus Christ, God's Law in the Kingdom of God never once said He came to make Gentiles, those who He referred to as dogs, a part of Abraham’s promise. Contrary to that claim, He told His His followers not to give to the dogs that which is Holy - God's New Covenant/agreement in the Kingdom of God - Matthew 7 vs 6 . So, again, stop these attempts to insert doctrines into that written. Rather let that which is written speak for itself..

3. Not once in the entirety of His teachings did Jesus Christ promise those whom He referred to as dogs citizenship in Israel. In the very passage you quoted from, Paul, carefully explains to you that His audience are those who are Under the Law, those who are of Israel, in particular, the Jews. So how why do you make a liar of Paul by using him to push an idea foreign to what he intended?

1. In your previous response, you asked me to pay attention to context when I quoted Galatians 3 vs 28 , how come now conte t doesn't apply?

2. So was Apostle Paul wrong for saying that anyone who is in Christ is automatically counted as Abraham's seed and an heir of the promise?

Galatians 3:27, 29 (KJV) For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.
And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.


3. Neither Christ nor the apostles promised anyone Israeli citizenship but he promised to make as many as believe in him heirs of the promise and convenant which is exclusive to Abraham and the seed of Abraham as clearly stated in Galatians 3 vs 26-29

Galatians 3:27, 29 (KJV) For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.
And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.

Kobojunkie:
1. They are known as descendants of Ephraim and Manasseh. Also, Jesus Christ is written to have preached the Gospel to them beginning with the woman at the well, confirming that they were not dogs but of Israel who He, Jesus Christ was sent to give that which is Holy to.

2. Your claims regarding Paul in this case are nothing but lies. Isolating verses from the context presented in other to support a lie only reveals your scheme. Paul's letters were addressed primarily to a Jewish audience for good reason. His mentioning in that context that he was referring to those who formerly had the Law of Moses as a guardian speaks volumes. But you disregard this because your motive is to insert a lie into what is written.

3. You only need consider the context of the statement to realize that the author of the verses you lifted out of context directed those at the Jews as well. The entire letter to the Hebrews, for instance, is written to Israelite (Hebrew) believers.

1. The origin of the Samaritans have no biblical proof though many in christiandom accept that they're mixed jews, hence I won't accept or dispute further instead, I'll give other examples of gentiles Jesus healed:
A. The Canaanite woman: Matthew 15 vs 22-28
Matthew 15:22 (KJV) And, behold, a woman of Canaan came out of the same coasts, and cried unto him, saying, Have mercy on me, O Lord, thou Son of David; my daughter is grievously vexed with a devil.
B. Luke 7 vs 1-10
Luke 7:2 (KJV) And a certain centurion's servant, who was dear unto him, was sick, and ready to die.
C. Jesus also confirmed that non Jews will sit in heaven with Abraham while some Jews will go to hell.
Matthew 8:11-12 (KJV) And I say unto you, That many shall come from the east and west, and shall sit down with Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob, in the kingdom of heaven.
But the children of the kingdom shall be cast out into outer darkness: there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.
D. Jesus said that before the end, the gospel will be preached to every nation of the world... Why would he preach to people he isn't sent to?
Matthew 24:14 (KJV) And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come.
E. The demon possessed man in the country of the Gadarenes was delivered by Jesus and before you argue that the Gadarenes are Jews, Jews don't eat or raise Swine, swine is a major abomination to the Jews and the people of the Gadarenes were big time swine herders. Also, it was a Roman country over the sea of Galilee though in a former Israeli territory.
Mark 5:1 (KJV) And they came over unto the other side of the sea, into the country of the Gadarenes.



2. Galatians 1:2 (KJV) And all the brethren which are with me, unto the churches of Galatia:

So you mean all the members of the church in Galatia were Jews?

Please provide biblical proof that Galatians chapter 3 was specifically addressing the Jews.
.

3. The following verses also prove that Jesus and the apostles' ministry was not to the Jews only:
A. Romans 9:24-25 (KJV) Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?
As he saith also in Osee, I will call them my people, which were not my people; and her beloved, which was not beloved.

B. Romans 11:11 (KJV) I say then, Have they stumbled that they should fall? God forbid: but rather through their fall salvation is come unto the Gentiles, for to provoke them to jealousy.


If you feel I quoted anywhere out of context, please provide the full quote and the full meaning of the quote

YourFavEvangeli:
1. In your previous response, you asked me to pay attention to context when I quoted Galatians 3 vs 28 , how come now conte t doesn't apply?
2. So was Apostle Paul wrong for saying that anyone who is in Christ is automatically counted as Abraham's seed and an heir of the promise?
Galatians 3:27, 29 (KJV) For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.
And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.
3. Neither Christ nor the apostles promised anyone Israeli citizenship but he promised to make as many as believe in him heirs of the promise and convenant which is exclusive to Abraham and the seed of Abraham as clearly stated in Galatians 3 vs 26-29
Galatians 3:27, 29 (KJV) For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.
And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.

Again, Paul is not the liar in this case as he more than made it clear in the context that is Galatians 3 that he was speaking of and to those who are of Israel, those who were previously under the guardianship of the Law of Moses.

21 Does this mean that the law works against God’s promises? Of course not. The law was never God’s way of giving new life to people. If it were, then we could be made right with God by following the law.
22 But this is not possible. The Scriptures put the whole world in prison under the control of sin, so that the only way for people to get what God promised would be through faith in[j] Jesus Christ. It is given to those who believe in him.
23 Before this faith came, the law held us as prisoners. We had no freedom until God showed us the way of faith that was coming.
24 I mean the law was the guardian in charge of us until Christ came. After he came, we could be made right with God through faith.
25 Now that the way of faith has come, we no longer need the law to be our guardian.
26-27 You were all baptized into Christ, and so you were all clothed with Christ. This shows that you are all children of God through faith in Christ Jesus.
28 Now, in Christ, it doesn’t matter if you are a Jew or a Greek, a slave or free, male or female. You are all the same in Christ Jesus.
29 You belong to Christ, so you are Abraham’s descendants. You get all of God’s blessings because of the promise that God made to Abraham. - Galatians 3 vs 21 - 29

Paul made clear to you in the context above that His message was directed at the Jews — those who were of the tribe of Benjamin, Judah, and Levi. In verse 28, He makes clear that under Jesus Christ, no longer were the people of Israel divided, but united as one people — children of God.

YourFavEvangeli:
1. The origin of the Samaritans have no biblical proof though many in christiandom accept that they're mixed jews, hence I won't accept or dispute further instead, I'll give other examples of gentiles Jesus healed:
....
2. Galatians 1:2 (KJV) And all the brethren which are with me, unto the churches of Galatia: So you mean all the members of the church in Galatia were Jews? Please provide biblical proof that Galatians chapter 3 was specifically addressing the Jews.

3. The following verses also prove that Jesus and the apostles' ministry was not to the Jews only:
A. Romans 9:24-25 (KJV) Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?
As he saith also in Osee, I will call them my people, which were not my people; and her beloved, which was not beloved.
B. Romans 11:11 (KJV) I say then, Have they stumbled that they should fall? God forbid: but rather through their fall salvation is come unto the Gentiles, for to provoke them to jealousy.

4. If you feel I quoted anywhere out of context, please provide the full quote and the full meaning of the quote

1. You are not making any sense here at all. It doesn't matter whether there is biblical evidence for who the samaritans are. What is instead important is that by teaching the Gospel, God's New Covenant in the Kingdom of God — not simply healing which amounts to bread crumbs from the master's table —to the Samaritans, Jesus Christ confirms that they are not dogs i.e. they are a part of God's Israel.

2. If you paid close attention to the context of Galatians 1, you will eventually find that entire chapter, Paul dedicated mainly to his Jewish brethren who shared the same ancestry as he did.

1. Greetings from Paul, an apostle. I was chosen to be an apostle, but not by any group or person here on earth. My authority came from none other than Jesus Christ and God the Father, who raised Jesus from death.
2 Greetings also from all those in God’s family who are with me.
3 I pray that God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ will be good to you and give you peace.
4 Jesus gave himself for our sins to free us from this evil world we live in. This is what God our Father wanted.
5 The glory belongs to God forever and ever. Amen.
6 A short time ago God chose you to follow him. He chose you through his grace that came through Christ. But now I am amazed that you are already turning away and believing something different from the Good News we told you.
7 There is no other message that is the Good News, but some people are confusing you. They want to change the Good News about Christ.
8 We told you the true Good News message. So anyone who tells you a different message should be condemned—even if it’s one of us or even an angel from heaven!
9 I said this before. Now I say it again: You have already accepted the Good News. Anyone who tells you another way to be saved should be condemned!
10 Now do you think I am trying to make people accept me? No, God is the one I am trying to please. Am I trying to please people? If I wanted to please people, I would not be a servant of Christ.
11 Brothers and sisters, I want you to know that the Good News message I told you was not made up by anyone.
12 I did not get my message from any other human. The Good News is not something I learned from other people. Jesus Christ himself gave it to me. He showed me the Good News that I should tell people.
13 You have heard about my past life in the Jewish religion. I persecuted the church of God very much. I tried to destroy his people.
14 I was becoming a leader in the Jewish religion. I did better than most other Jews my own age. I tried harder than anyone else to follow the traditions we got from our ancestors. - Galatians 2 vs 1 - 14

3. Pay attention! The Jews are a subset of the tribe of Israel — those who are descended from the tribes of Benjamin, Judah, and some from Levi who was the major population of the nation of Judea at the time of Jesus Christ. Those of the other tribes who had previously been cursed and scattered by God into the world were referred to as Gentiles —non-Jewish—by the Jewish subset. To the Jews, their brothers in exiles were gentiles.

4. Look, the long and short of all this is simple. No one can enter into the Kingdom of God without being a descendant of Jacob — Jacob is not Abraham. Even if that person claims to be of Abraham, so long as he/she is not of Jacob's blood, he/she cannot enter into the Kingdom of God. That is what Jesus Christ taught His followers.