[size=13pt]I know someone that swore on the Bible to deny something they actually said in the past.

My question is this, are there any consequences for using the Bible to deny someting that someone truly said?

Please share your opinion on this issue.
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It's not about the bible . It's about swearing. It's ungodly to swear for any reason.

Matthew 5:34
34 But I say unto you, Swear not at all. . .

Joagbaje:

It's not about the bible . It's about swearing. It's ungodly to swear for any reason.

Matthew 5:34
34 But I say unto you, Swear not at all. . .

But doing so by a church going christian to cover up a lie just makes me ask myself if there are any true christians in this world today.

I didn't read it well the first time. Firstly The consequence depends primarily on the exact words or curses he might have pronounced on himself.

Secondly the lie he told has it's own consequence Especially . But when a man had repented from such before such consequence takes effect, he is free from it.

Joagbaje:

I didn't read it well the first time. Firstly The consequence depends primarily on the exact words or curses he might have pronounced on himself.

Secondly the lie he told has it's own consequence Especially . But when a man had repented from such before such consequence takes effect, he is free from it.

Thanks for your contribution.