₦airaland Forum

I find this particular pastor very detestable, especially after I heard his views on payment of instrumentalists.

He didn’t pray or see divine vision before marrying her?

immortalcrown:
What is unchastity in the context?

Infidelity.

A married person sleeping with someone who isn’t his or her spouse.


I am wondering what point you want to twist and make now.

immortalcrown:
Church is different.

It doesn't mean the spouse should use "for better for worse" as a yardstick or excuse to physically or verbally attack assault or inflict injuries on his or her partner.

That is no longer marriage

But evil, witchcraft, satanism

Yoruba men marrying igbo women are unconsciously digging their grave. You all will learn the hard way

99thEnemy:
Infidelity. A married person sleeping with someone who isn’t his or her spouse. I am wondering what point you want to twist and make now.

You are the one twisting something here.

immortalcrown:
Only incest is biblically acceptable for a divorce.

The problem here is hypocrisy. People want to be here and there. People want to eat their cake and have it.

If you want to divorce your spouse when he or she offends you, avoid church wedding. Do your traditional marriage or any other form of marriage. The issue is that people want church wedding but don't want the cross that comes with church wedding. Church wedding vow says, "... until death do us part".

Choose a tradition you can maintain. Don't deceive yourself with church wedding when you are not willing to abide by its principles.

All this Bible butchers sef.

Only incest you say?

immortalcrown:
You are the one who needs to read and understand that part of the Bible.

You haven’t said anything or are you avoiding an explanation on why you said so because you have none? I would have expected a direct answer to what I said the same way I said you were wrong and not giving a vague unintelligent answer like this.

immortalcrown:
You are the one twisting something here.

All I know is there is no mention of incest anywhere in the bible as an allowed reason for divorce.

it is rather clearly stated that one can divorce a spouse based on Unchastity.


The only two verses about it:

Matthew 5:32 (NRSV):
“But I say to you that anyone who divorces his wife, except on the ground of unchastity, causes her to commit adultery; and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery.”

Matthew 19:9 (NRSV):
“And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for unchastity, and marries another commits adultery.”

I just do not like this guy. He talks a lot of rubbish. He's half baked. But, anything goes in Nigeria.

Ok, I heard you Mr. Pastor. I can smell lies

Q

99thEnemy:
All I know is there is no mention of incest anywhere in the bible as an allowed reason for divorce.

it is rather clearly stated that one can divorce a spouse based on Unchastity.


The only two verses about it:

Matthew 5:32 (NRSV):
“But I say to you that anyone who divorces his wife, except on the ground of unchastity, causes her to commit adultery; and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery.”

Matthew 19:9 (NRSV):
“And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for unchastity, and marries another commits adultery.”

Thank you bros & God bless, but let us use the King James Version

Mt 19:9 - And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.

Luke 16:18 - Whosoever putteth away his wife, and marrieth another, committeth adultery: and whosoever marrieth her that is put away from her husband committeth adultery.

And if I may ask, is this man, Emmanuel Olumide, a minister of God?

The ONLY reason divorce is allowed is in the above scriptures & ANY person who has put away his wife outside of these has FALLEN

immortalcrown:
Only incest is biblically acceptable for a divorce. But many people claim that the Bible permits divorce if adultery happens. Some people claim that the Bible supports divorce if any form of unfaithfulness occurs in the marriage.

If incest is not the biblical ground for a divorce, why did the disciples of Jesus Christ say what they said in Mathew 19:10? Read the chapter and pay attention to the verse 10. Then, tell me why the disciples made the statement.

The problem here is hypocrisy. People want to be here and there. People want to eat their cake and have it.

If you want to divorce your spouse when he or she offends you, avoid church wedding. Do your traditional marriage or any other form of marriage. The issue is that people want church wedding but don't want the cross that comes with church wedding. Church wedding vow says, "... until death do us part".

Choose a tradition you can maintain. Don't deceive yourself with church wedding when you are not willing to abide by its principles.

Because of many quotes, read 👇🏽

https://www.facebook.com/share/p/YsuRQDEXyRcf4Xv9/?mibextid=oFDknk

Is Divorce a Sin?

I think the right question should be, did Jesus Permit divorce? Did God permit divorce? In other words, are you even allowed to divorce before you start talking about whether it is a sin or not?

The straight answer is that Jesus never permitted divorce. Once marriage is validly contracted, even adultery as some of you wrongly allege is not a ground for divorce.

I know this whole misunderstanding is coming from Jesus' statement in Matthew 19:9. I will clarify it. But before then, I am not writing this to give people a license to cheat on their spouses. As a matter of fact, you owe your spouse fidelity and faithfulness. It is their right. You are not doing them a favor by being faithful.

Back to Matthew 19:9 where it seemed Jesus gave an exception for divorce:

"Whoever divorces his wife except for unchastity and marries another commits adultery."

The exceptive clause, "EXCEPT FOR UNCHASTITY" is the major issue here. Simply put, unchastity is a good reason to divorce one's spouse.

You may want to ask, what constitutes 'unchastity?' We shall get to know soon.

We all remember that the New Testament was originally written in Greek bah?

The Greek word for unchastity is "PORNEIA." The Protestants argue that this Greek word "porneia" means adultery. This is why if you read the Protestant New International Version of the Bible, Matthew 19:9 is translated thus:

"I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, EXCEPT FOR MARITAL UNFAITHFULNESS, and marries another woman commits adultery."

For most Protestants, though marriage is meant to last a lifetime, but adultery justifies divorce and remarriage. This is because they interpreted the Greek word "porneia" or "unchastity" as adultery.

This is not true. And this is not Catholic teaching.

Catholic biblical scholars believe that it is wrong to translate the Greek word "porneia" as adultery. In the Catholic New American Bible, Matthew 19:9 is translated thus:

"I say to you, whoever divorces his wife (unless the marriage is unlawful) and marries another commits adultery."

Here, the exceptive clause is: "UNLAWFUL MARRIAGE."

If you read the King James Version of the Bible, the translation for PORNEIA is even more interesting. It translates Matthew 19:9 thus:

"And I say unto you, whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for FORNICATION, and shall marry another committeth adultery."

Here, the exceptive clause is Fornication. And fornication is the sin of two unmarried people having sexual intercourse. If either person is married or both are married to other people, the sin is called adultery. Following this translation, the only way that a couple could commit fornication is if they were never really in a Christian marriage to begin with.

Many recent translations of porneia in Matt 19:9 used "sexual immoralities." That still begs the question of what sexual immoralities could mean.

In all these, what really is the correct translation for the word PORNEIA? Is it the Protestants' "adultery", the King James' "fornication", or the Catholics' "Unlawful marriage"? Even if porneia is to be seen as unchastity or sexual immoralities, what constitutes unchastity?

The answer to the above questions can be better clarified using the bible. I will give you two examples: Matthew 15:19 and Mark 7:21-22.

Matthew 15:19 "For from the heart come evil thoughts, murder, ADULTERY, UNCHASTITY, theft, false witness, blasphemy."

Mark 7:21-22, "From within people, from their hearts, come evil thoughts, UNCHASTITY, theft, murder, ADULTERY, greed, malice, deceit, licentiousness, envy, blasphemy, arrogance, folly."

Pay attention to this: Adultery and unchastity are both prohibited in the texts above. If you read the Greek text, it is "porneia" that is translated as unchastity, in some bible it is translated as sexual immorality. While the Greek word "moicheia" is translated as adultery. Therefore, from these passages, we can see that porneia does not mean adultery as that would be an unnecessary repetition.

The word for adultery in Greek is 'moicheia.' If the author of Matthew 19:9 felt that Christ was talking about adultery, he wouldn't have used 'porneia' which means unchastity.

This is Matthew 19:9 in its original Greek

λέγω δὲ ὑμῖν ὅτι ὃς ἂν ἀπολύσῃ τὴν γυναῖκα αὐτοῦ μὴ ἐπὶ ΠΟΡΝΕΊΑΙ καὶ γαμήσῃ ἄλλην, ΜΟΙΧΑ͂ΤΑΙ.

I have put into capital letters two words:
πορνείᾳ (porneia) and μοιχᾶται (moichatai — verb form)

If the Bible intended that adultery is a ground for divorce, the two words would have been moicheia. And it will read thus: "I tell you that whoever divorces his wife, except for ADULTERY, and marries another woman commits ADULTERY."

But fortunately or unfortunately, that is not how it was written in the Bible.

If you read Act 15:28-29, the Apostles addressed the Gentiles prohibiting four things:

"For it has seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary things: that you abstain (1) from what has been sacrificed to idols, and (2) from blood and (3) from what is strangled and (4) from unchastity. If you keep yourselves from these, you will do well. Farewell." RSV (inserted numbers, mine)

Take note of the number (4), still talking about Porneia or Unchastity. These four prohibitions above came from a deep-rooted Jewish tradition found in Leviticus 17 and 18.

If you read Leviticus through, you will discover that in chapter 18, what the Jews mean by unchastity or Porneia was explicitly explained. It was simply an incestuous marriage. Having sexual intercourse with a close relative was greatly forbidden, not to talk of marriage. For the Jews, marriage of this nature is unlawful. This was what Christ was referring to in Matthew 19:9. It is a reference to an unlawful and thus invalid marriage. It is not a reference, as Protestants view it, to a specific act committed during a legitimate "life-long marriage.

Jesus' teaching on divorce was revolutionary. Remember that it was to answer the Jews who thought that one could divorce his wife for some reasons that made Jesus to give the answer he gave. If Jesus permitted divorce, what then makes his teaching different from the one Moses taught the Jews in the OT?

If Christ's teaching on divorce was that simple, how can one explain the surprise that surrounded the disciples when they responded in the next verse?

Matthew 19: 10, "(His) disciples said to him, 'If that is the case of a man with his wife, it is better not to marry.'"

©Fr Kelvin Ugwu

Get enlightened. Church wedding or white wedding is the white man’s traditional wedding; it is not biblical.

FLYFIRE:
Thank you bros & God bless, but let us use the King James Version

Mt 19:9 - And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.

Luke 16:18 - Whosoever putteth away his wife, and marrieth another, committeth adultery: and whosoever marrieth her that is put away from her husband committeth adultery.

And if I may ask, is this man, Emmanuel Olumide, a minister of God?

The ONLY reason divorce is allowed is in the above scriptures & ANY person who has put away his wife outside of these has FALLEN

I don’t know Emmanuel Olumide.

VAPatrick:
Get enlightened. Church wedding or white wedding is the white man’s traditional wedding; it is not biblical.

The point is that those who believe in the Bible should keep the principles of the Bible. Bible mentions incest as the reason for divorce.

All these modern-day pastors are too manipulative in their dealings with people.

Concerning marital issues, it is easy to judge pastors that are divorcing their wives because you are not in their shoes.

Until I watched this interview sometimes in January this year, I thought he was still married to Ify. I never even knew they got divorced. I still remember the lady's picture on billboard, fair lady.

If you were conversant with campus programme's some 20years back the name Olumide and Ify Emmanuel will always ring a bell.

The interview was eye opening though. Watched it all.

pocohantas:
Thankfully he is alive to tell the story.

whats there to be thankful for ....

you make it sound as though the man escaped okuoma youths

immortalcrown:
The problem here is hypocrisy. People want to be here and there. People want to eat their cake and have it.

If you want to divorce your spouse when he or she offends you, avoid church wedding. Do your traditional marriage or any other form of marriage. The issue is that people want church wedding but don't want the cross that comes with church wedding. Church wedding vow says, "... until death do us part".

Choose a tradition you can maintain. Don't deceive yourself with church wedding when you are not willing to abide by its principles.

Just accept the teaching of the Roman Cult is unreasonable in this regard. It's not a question of "if you want divorce, avoid church wedding".... A couple may have no intention to divorce and yet life, ever unpredictable, presents circumstances necessitating same.

What should a Christian married woman do if it turns out, unbeknownst to her, that her husband is a serial killer for example?

According to you weirdos, no matter what happens, however inconceivable, they must remain together. Even in the case of domestic violence that tends towards murder.

You guys are nuts.

If a partner is abusive, i will divorce that partner. I cannot carry such cross. Some people use this until death do us apart as an excuse to be wicked.

immortalcrown:
Only incest is biblically acceptable for a divorce. But many people claim that the Bible permits divorce if adultery happens. Some people claim that the Bible supports divorce if any form of unfaithfulness occurs in the marriage.

If incest is not the biblical ground for a divorce, why did the disciples of Jesus Christ say what they said in Mathew 19:10? Read the chapter and pay attention to the verse 10. Then, tell me why the disciples made the statement.

The problem here is hypocrisy. People want to be here and there. People want to eat their cake and have it.

If you want to divorce your spouse when he or she offends you, avoid church wedding. Do your traditional marriage or any other form of marriage. The issue is that people want church wedding but don't want the cross that comes with church wedding. Church wedding vow says, "... until death do us part".

Choose a tradition you can maintain. Don't deceive yourself with church wedding when you are not willing to abide by its principles.

Many people are quoting me. Before you argue with me, read the article below. 👇🏽

https://www.facebook.com/share/p/YsuRQDEXyRcf4Xv9/?mibextid=oFDknk

Is Divorce a Sin?

I think the right question should be, did Jesus Permit divorce? Did God permit divorce? In other words, are you even allowed to divorce before you start talking about whether it is a sin or not?

The straight answer is that Jesus never permitted divorce. Once marriage is validly contracted, even adultery as some of you wrongly allege is not a ground for divorce.

I know this whole misunderstanding is coming from Jesus' statement in Matthew 19:9. I will clarify it. But before then, I am not writing this to give people a license to cheat on their spouses. As a matter of fact, you owe your spouse fidelity and faithfulness. It is their right. You are not doing them a favor by being faithful.

Back to Matthew 19:9 where it seemed Jesus gave an exception for divorce:

"Whoever divorces his wife except for unchastity and marries another commits adultery."

The exceptive clause, "EXCEPT FOR UNCHASTITY" is the major issue here. Simply put, unchastity is a good reason to divorce one's spouse.

You may want to ask, what constitutes 'unchastity?' We shall get to know soon.

We all remember that the New Testament was originally written in Greek bah?

The Greek word for unchastity is "PORNEIA." The Protestants argue that this Greek word "porneia" means adultery. This is why if you read the Protestant New International Version of the Bible, Matthew 19:9 is translated thus:

"I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, EXCEPT FOR MARITAL UNFAITHFULNESS, and marries another woman commits adultery."

For most Protestants, though marriage is meant to last a lifetime, but adultery justifies divorce and remarriage. This is because they interpreted the Greek word "porneia" or "unchastity" as adultery.

This is not true. And this is not Catholic teaching.

Catholic biblical scholars believe that it is wrong to translate the Greek word "porneia" as adultery. In the Catholic New American Bible, Matthew 19:9 is translated thus:

"I say to you, whoever divorces his wife (unless the marriage is unlawful) and marries another commits adultery."

Here, the exceptive clause is: "UNLAWFUL MARRIAGE."

If you read the King James Version of the Bible, the translation for PORNEIA is even more interesting. It translates Matthew 19:9 thus:

"And I say unto you, whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for FORNICATION, and shall marry another committeth adultery."

Here, the exceptive clause is Fornication. And fornication is the sin of two unmarried people having sexual intercourse. If either person is married or both are married to other people, the sin is called adultery. Following this translation, the only way that a couple could commit fornication is if they were never really in a Christian marriage to begin with.

Many recent translations of porneia in Matt 19:9 used "sexual immoralities." That still begs the question of what sexual immoralities could mean.

In all these, what really is the correct translation for the word PORNEIA? Is it the Protestants' "adultery", the King James' "fornication", or the Catholics' "Unlawful marriage"? Even if porneia is to be seen as unchastity or sexual immoralities, what constitutes unchastity?

The answer to the above questions can be better clarified using the bible. I will give you two examples: Matthew 15:19 and Mark 7:21-22.

Matthew 15:19 "For from the heart come evil thoughts, murder, ADULTERY, UNCHASTITY, theft, false witness, blasphemy."

Mark 7:21-22, "From within people, from their hearts, come evil thoughts, UNCHASTITY, theft, murder, ADULTERY, greed, malice, deceit, licentiousness, envy, blasphemy, arrogance, folly."

Pay attention to this: Adultery and unchastity are both prohibited in the texts above. If you read the Greek text, it is "porneia" that is translated as unchastity, in some bible it is translated as sexual immorality. While the Greek word "moicheia" is translated as adultery. Therefore, from these passages, we can see that porneia does not mean adultery as that would be an unnecessary repetition.

The word for adultery in Greek is 'moicheia.' If the author of Matthew 19:9 felt that Christ was talking about adultery, he wouldn't have used 'porneia' which means unchastity.

This is Matthew 19:9 in its original Greek

λέγω δὲ ὑμῖν ὅτι ὃς ἂν ἀπολύσῃ τὴν γυναῖκα αὐτοῦ μὴ ἐπὶ ΠΟΡΝΕΊΑΙ καὶ γαμήσῃ ἄλλην, ΜΟΙΧΑ͂ΤΑΙ.

I have put into capital letters two words:
πορνείᾳ (porneia) and μοιχᾶται (moichatai — verb form)

If the Bible intended that adultery is a ground for divorce, the two words would have been moicheia. And it will read thus: "I tell you that whoever divorces his wife, except for ADULTERY, and marries another woman commits ADULTERY."

But fortunately or unfortunately, that is not how it was written in the Bible.

If you read Act 15:28-29, the Apostles addressed the Gentiles prohibiting four things:

"For it has seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary things: that you abstain (1) from what has been sacrificed to idols, and (2) from blood and (3) from what is strangled and (4) from unchastity. If you keep yourselves from these, you will do well. Farewell." RSV (inserted numbers, mine)

Take note of the number (4), still talking about Porneia or Unchastity. These four prohibitions above came from a deep-rooted Jewish tradition found in Leviticus 17 and 18.

If you read Leviticus through, you will discover that in chapter 18, what the Jews mean by unchastity or Porneia was explicitly explained. It was simply an incestuous marriage. Having sexual intercourse with a close relative was greatly forbidden, not to talk of marriage. For the Jews, marriage of this nature is unlawful. This was what Christ was referring to in Matthew 19:9. It is a reference to an unlawful and thus invalid marriage. It is not a reference, as Protestants view it, to a specific act committed during a legitimate "life-long marriage.

Jesus' teaching on divorce was revolutionary. Remember that it was to answer the Jews who thought that one could divorce his wife for some reasons that made Jesus to give the answer he gave. If Jesus permitted divorce, what then makes his teaching different from the one Moses taught the Jews in the OT?

If Christ's teaching on divorce was that simple, how can one explain the surprise that surrounded the disciples when they responded in the next verse?

Matthew 19: 10, "(His) disciples said to him, 'If that is the case of a man with his wife, it is better not to marry.'"

©Fr Kelvin Ugwu

ednut1:
He didn’t pray or see divine vision before marrying her?

will you stop that ... even Eve wey be direct accessory open adam eye just to show him shege

immortalcrown:
Only incest is biblically acceptable for a divorce. But many people claim that the Bible permits divorce if adultery happens. Some people claim that the Bible supports divorce if any form of unfaithfulness occurs in the marriage.

If incest is not the biblical ground for a divorce, why did the disciples of Jesus Christ say what they said in Mathew 19:10? Read the chapter and pay attention to the verse 10. Then, tell me why the disciples made the statement.

The problem here is hypocrisy. People want to be here and there. People want to eat their cake and have it.

If you want to divorce your spouse when he or she offends you, avoid church wedding. Do your traditional marriage or any other form of marriage. The issue is that people want church wedding but don't want the cross that comes with church wedding. Church wedding vow says, "... until death do us part".

Choose a tradition you can maintain. Don't deceive yourself with church wedding when you are not willing to abide by its principles.

Many people are quoting me. Before you argue with me, read the article below. 👇🏽

https://www.facebook.com/share/p/YsuRQDEXyRcf4Xv9/?mibextid=oFDknk

Is Divorce a Sin?

I think the right question should be, did Jesus Permit divorce? Did God permit divorce? In other words, are you even allowed to divorce before you start talking about whether it is a sin or not?

The straight answer is that Jesus never permitted divorce. Once marriage is validly contracted, even adultery as some of you wrongly allege is not a ground for divorce.

I know this whole misunderstanding is coming from Jesus' statement in Matthew 19:9. I will clarify it. But before then, I am not writing this to give people a license to cheat on their spouses. As a matter of fact, you owe your spouse fidelity and faithfulness. It is their right. You are not doing them a favor by being faithful.

Back to Matthew 19:9 where it seemed Jesus gave an exception for divorce:

"Whoever divorces his wife except for unchastity and marries another commits adultery."

The exceptive clause, "EXCEPT FOR UNCHASTITY" is the major issue here. Simply put, unchastity is a good reason to divorce one's spouse.

You may want to ask, what constitutes 'unchastity?' We shall get to know soon.

We all remember that the New Testament was originally written in Greek bah?

The Greek word for unchastity is "PORNEIA." The Protestants argue that this Greek word "porneia" means adultery. This is why if you read the Protestant New International Version of the Bible, Matthew 19:9 is translated thus:

"I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, EXCEPT FOR MARITAL UNFAITHFULNESS, and marries another woman commits adultery."

For most Protestants, though marriage is meant to last a lifetime, but adultery justifies divorce and remarriage. This is because they interpreted the Greek word "porneia" or "unchastity" as adultery.

This is not true. And this is not Catholic teaching.

Catholic biblical scholars believe that it is wrong to translate the Greek word "porneia" as adultery. In the Catholic New American Bible, Matthew 19:9 is translated thus:

"I say to you, whoever divorces his wife (unless the marriage is unlawful) and marries another commits adultery."

Here, the exceptive clause is: "UNLAWFUL MARRIAGE."

If you read the King James Version of the Bible, the translation for PORNEIA is even more interesting. It translates Matthew 19:9 thus:

"And I say unto you, whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for FORNICATION, and shall marry another committeth adultery."

Here, the exceptive clause is Fornication. And fornication is the sin of two unmarried people having sexual intercourse. If either person is married or both are married to other people, the sin is called adultery. Following this translation, the only way that a couple could commit fornication is if they were never really in a Christian marriage to begin with.

Many recent translations of porneia in Matt 19:9 used "sexual immoralities." That still begs the question of what sexual immoralities could mean.

In all these, what really is the correct translation for the word PORNEIA? Is it the Protestants' "adultery", the King James' "fornication", or the Catholics' "Unlawful marriage"? Even if porneia is to be seen as unchastity or sexual immoralities, what constitutes unchastity?

The answer to the above questions can be better clarified using the bible. I will give you two examples: Matthew 15:19 and Mark 7:21-22.

Matthew 15:19 "For from the heart come evil thoughts, murder, ADULTERY, UNCHASTITY, theft, false witness, blasphemy."

Mark 7:21-22, "From within people, from their hearts, come evil thoughts, UNCHASTITY, theft, murder, ADULTERY, greed, malice, deceit, licentiousness, envy, blasphemy, arrogance, folly."

Pay attention to this: Adultery and unchastity are both prohibited in the texts above. If you read the Greek text, it is "porneia" that is translated as unchastity, in some bible it is translated as sexual immorality. While the Greek word "moicheia" is translated as adultery. Therefore, from these passages, we can see that porneia does not mean adultery as that would be an unnecessary repetition.

The word for adultery in Greek is 'moicheia.' If the author of Matthew 19:9 felt that Christ was talking about adultery, he wouldn't have used 'porneia' which means unchastity.

This is Matthew 19:9 in its original Greek

λέγω δὲ ὑμῖν ὅτι ὃς ἂν ἀπολύσῃ τὴν γυναῖκα αὐτοῦ μὴ ἐπὶ ΠΟΡΝΕΊΑΙ καὶ γαμήσῃ ἄλλην, ΜΟΙΧΑ͂ΤΑΙ.

I have put into capital letters two words:
πορνείᾳ (porneia) and μοιχᾶται (moichatai — verb form)

If the Bible intended that adultery is a ground for divorce, the two words would have been moicheia. And it will read thus: "I tell you that whoever divorces his wife, except for ADULTERY, and marries another woman commits ADULTERY."

But fortunately or unfortunately, that is not how it was written in the Bible.

If you read Act 15:28-29, the Apostles addressed the Gentiles prohibiting four things:

"For it has seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary things: that you abstain (1) from what has been sacrificed to idols, and (2) from blood and (3) from what is strangled and (4) from unchastity. If you keep yourselves from these, you will do well. Farewell." RSV (inserted numbers, mine)

Take note of the number (4), still talking about Porneia or Unchastity. These four prohibitions above came from a deep-rooted Jewish tradition found in Leviticus 17 and 18.

If you read Leviticus through, you will discover that in chapter 18, what the Jews mean by unchastity or Porneia was explicitly explained. It was simply an incestuous marriage. Having sexual intercourse with a close relative was greatly forbidden, not to talk of marriage. For the Jews, marriage of this nature is unlawful. This was what Christ was referring to in Matthew 19:9. It is a reference to an unlawful and thus invalid marriage. It is not a reference, as Protestants view it, to a specific act committed during a legitimate "life-long marriage.

Jesus' teaching on divorce was revolutionary. Remember that it was to answer the Jews who thought that one could divorce his wife for some reasons that made Jesus to give the answer he gave. If Jesus permitted divorce, what then makes his teaching different from the one Moses taught the Jews in the OT?

If Christ's teaching on divorce was that simple, how can one explain the surprise that surrounded the disciples when they responded in the next verse?

Matthew 19: 10, "(His) disciples said to him, 'If that is the case of a man with his wife, it is better not to marry.'"

©Fr Kelvin Ugwu

which day u become Rev father? I sorry for u well well u no know bible, try go school and get understanding and wisdom and stop teaching wat u don't understand. One love

kevwemike:
which day u become Rev father? I sorry for u well well u no know bible, try go school and get understanding and wisdom and stop teaching wat u don't understand. One love

I challenge you to prove the article incorrect.

SeriouslySense:
If a partner is abusive, i will divorce that partner. I cannot carry such cross. Some people use this until death do us apart as an excuse to be wicked

Then, avoid using the Bible to institute your marriage.

DeepSight:
What should a Christian married woman do if it turns out, unbeknownst to her, that her husband is a serial killer for example?

Serial killer means he has killed many people before wanting to marry her.

Did she know it before getting married to him? If yes, she should carry her cross. If no, the union is not marriage, meaning she is free to walk out of the marriage. Walking out of the marriage in this scenario is annulment, not divorce.

immortalcrown:
The point is that those who believe in the Bible should keep the principles of the Bible. Bible mentions incest as the reason for divorce.

Pls can you drop the scripture to back this?

immortalcrown:
Only incest is biblically acceptable for a divorce. But many people claim that the Bible permits divorce if adultery happens. Some people claim that the Bible supports divorce if any form of unfaithfulness occurs in the marriage.

If incest is not the biblical ground for a divorce, why did the disciples of Jesus Christ say what they said in Mathew 19:10? Read the chapter and pay attention to the verse 10. Then, tell me why the disciples made the statement.

The problem here is hypocrisy. People want to be here and there. People want to eat their cake and have it.

If you want to divorce your spouse when he or she offends you, avoid church wedding. Do your traditional marriage or any other form of marriage. The issue is that people want church wedding but don't want the cross that comes with church wedding. Church wedding vow says, "... until death do us part".

Choose a tradition you can maintain. Don't deceive yourself with church wedding when you are not willing to abide by its principles.

Many people are quoting me. Before you argue with me, read the article below. 👇🏽

https://www.facebook.com/share/p/YsuRQDEXyRcf4Xv9/?mibextid=oFDknk

Is Divorce a Sin?

I think the right question should be, did Jesus Permit divorce? Did God permit divorce? In other words, are you even allowed to divorce before you start talking about whether it is a sin or not?

The straight answer is that Jesus never permitted divorce. Once marriage is validly contracted, even adultery as some of you wrongly allege is not a ground for divorce.

I know this whole misunderstanding is coming from Jesus' statement in Matthew 19:9. I will clarify it. But before then, I am not writing this to give people a license to cheat on their spouses. As a matter of fact, you owe your spouse fidelity and faithfulness. It is their right. You are not doing them a favor by being faithful.

Back to Matthew 19:9 where it seemed Jesus gave an exception for divorce:

"Whoever divorces his wife except for unchastity and marries another commits adultery."

The exceptive clause, "EXCEPT FOR UNCHASTITY" is the major issue here. Simply put, unchastity is a good reason to divorce one's spouse.

You may want to ask, what constitutes 'unchastity?' We shall get to know soon.

We all remember that the New Testament was originally written in Greek bah?

The Greek word for unchastity is "PORNEIA." The Protestants argue that this Greek word "porneia" means adultery. This is why if you read the Protestant New International Version of the Bible, Matthew 19:9 is translated thus:

"I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, EXCEPT FOR MARITAL UNFAITHFULNESS, and marries another woman commits adultery."

For most Protestants, though marriage is meant to last a lifetime, but adultery justifies divorce and remarriage. This is because they interpreted the Greek word "porneia" or "unchastity" as adultery.

This is not true. And this is not Catholic teaching.

Catholic biblical scholars believe that it is wrong to translate the Greek word "porneia" as adultery. In the Catholic New American Bible, Matthew 19:9 is translated thus:

"I say to you, whoever divorces his wife (unless the marriage is unlawful) and marries another commits adultery."

Here, the exceptive clause is: "UNLAWFUL MARRIAGE."

If you read the King James Version of the Bible, the translation for PORNEIA is even more interesting. It translates Matthew 19:9 thus:

"And I say unto you, whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for FORNICATION, and shall marry another committeth adultery."

Here, the exceptive clause is Fornication. And fornication is the sin of two unmarried people having sexual intercourse. If either person is married or both are married to other people, the sin is called adultery. Following this translation, the only way that a couple could commit fornication is if they were never really in a Christian marriage to begin with.

Many recent translations of porneia in Matt 19:9 used "sexual immoralities." That still begs the question of what sexual immoralities could mean.

In all these, what really is the correct translation for the word PORNEIA? Is it the Protestants' "adultery", the King James' "fornication", or the Catholics' "Unlawful marriage"? Even if porneia is to be seen as unchastity or sexual immoralities, what constitutes unchastity?

The answer to the above questions can be better clarified using the bible. I will give you two examples: Matthew 15:19 and Mark 7:21-22.

Matthew 15:19 "For from the heart come evil thoughts, murder, ADULTERY, UNCHASTITY, theft, false witness, blasphemy."

Mark 7:21-22, "From within people, from their hearts, come evil thoughts, UNCHASTITY, theft, murder, ADULTERY, greed, malice, deceit, licentiousness, envy, blasphemy, arrogance, folly."

Pay attention to this: Adultery and unchastity are both prohibited in the texts above. If you read the Greek text, it is "porneia" that is translated as unchastity, in some bible it is translated as sexual immorality. While the Greek word "moicheia" is translated as adultery. Therefore, from these passages, we can see that porneia does not mean adultery as that would be an unnecessary repetition.

The word for adultery in Greek is 'moicheia.' If the author of Matthew 19:9 felt that Christ was talking about adultery, he wouldn't have used 'porneia' which means unchastity.

This is Matthew 19:9 in its original Greek

λέγω δὲ ὑμῖν ὅτι ὃς ἂν ἀπολύσῃ τὴν γυναῖκα αὐτοῦ μὴ ἐπὶ ΠΟΡΝΕΊΑΙ καὶ γαμήσῃ ἄλλην, ΜΟΙΧΑ͂ΤΑΙ.

I have put into capital letters two words:
πορνείᾳ (porneia) and μοιχᾶται (moichatai — verb form)

If the Bible intended that adultery is a ground for divorce, the two words would have been moicheia. And it will read thus: "I tell you that whoever divorces his wife, except for ADULTERY, and marries another woman commits ADULTERY."

But fortunately or unfortunately, that is not how it was written in the Bible.

If you read Act 15:28-29, the Apostles addressed the Gentiles prohibiting four things:

"For it has seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary things: that you abstain (1) from what has been sacrificed to idols, and (2) from blood and (3) from what is strangled and (4) from unchastity. If you keep yourselves from these, you will do well. Farewell." RSV (inserted numbers, mine)

Take note of the number (4), still talking about Porneia or Unchastity. These four prohibitions above came from a deep-rooted Jewish tradition found in Leviticus 17 and 18.

If you read Leviticus through, you will discover that in chapter 18, what the Jews mean by unchastity or Porneia was explicitly explained. It was simply an incestuous marriage. Having sexual intercourse with a close relative was greatly forbidden, not to talk of marriage. For the Jews, marriage of this nature is unlawful. This was what Christ was referring to in Matthew 19:9. It is a reference to an unlawful and thus invalid marriage. It is not a reference, as Protestants view it, to a specific act committed during a legitimate "life-long marriage.

Jesus' teaching on divorce was revolutionary. Remember that it was to answer the Jews who thought that one could divorce his wife for some reasons that made Jesus to give the answer he gave. If Jesus permitted divorce, what then makes his teaching different from the one Moses taught the Jews in the OT?

If Christ's teaching on divorce was that simple, how can one explain the surprise that surrounded the disciples when they responded in the next verse?

Matthew 19: 10, "(His) disciples said to him, 'If that is the case of a man with his wife, it is better not to marry.'"

©Fr Kelvin Ugwu

You Can Quote All The Bible Verses For All You Like;


The BIBLE is Never A Standard For The Fast Rising 21st Technological World.


It's Too Primitive For The New World Order To Be Achieved...!

virtualbliss:
Pls can you drop the scripture to back this?

The scriptures are in my main comment.

Sportsolutions2:
You Can Quote All The Bible Verses For All You Like; The BIBLE is Never A Standard For The Fast Rising
21st Technological World. It's Too Primitive For The New World Order To Be Achieved...!

Your sentiment reduces your brain functionality. I made it clear in the comment that incest being the acceptable reason for divorce applies to Christians.

immortalcrown:
The problem here is hypocrisy. People want to be here and there. People want to eat their cake and have it.

If you want to divorce your spouse when he or she offends you, avoid church wedding. Do your traditional marriage or any other form of marriage. The issue is that people want church wedding but don't want the cross that comes with church wedding. Church wedding vow says, "... until death do us part".

Choose a tradition you can maintain. Don't deceive yourself with church wedding when you are not willing to abide by its principles.

that your Long post is for what exactly? You need to be arrested and detained for talking too much