Emusan:


But you people say JEHOVAH never appeared in the Old Testament

LIE ! The name " Jehovah" appeared more than 6000 times in the original hebrew scriptures before dubious enemies of our Father Jehovah, replace it with the title " LORD"
OR ar u sayin Father Jehovah appeared physically to humans ? " No one has seen God at anytime" 1 Joh 4:12 !

"No man has seen the Father " Joh 6:46

ACT 7:38 and 53 explains what make the above scriptures correct.

The lie, you purposely wrote Angel (singular) but what appear in the verse is Angels (Plural)

what appeared in the verse is Angels BUT I didnt quote the verse ( " " ), I only make a reference to it so as to bring out a point, the point is that Isrealite received the law as transmitted through "Angels" Act 7:53.

So how many Angels gave the law?

( Act 7:53 says nothing about their numbers) just Sit down there, an angel will come and tell you.

So you agree that the Hebrew scripture says it is Jehovah who created everything

YES ! The greek scriptures now support it with the details " God ( Father Jehovah) made the universe " HEB 1:1,2 CREDITED. Another detail is that this was done " through his son (Jesus Christ ) " Heb 1:1,2

You can only quote Ecc 12:1 whereas we have many places which spoke more than that,

Isa 43:21 "the people which I(Jehovah) formed for myself(Jehovah), that they might set forth my praise." YET everything was created for Christ.

Isa 43:15-21,22 is directed to the only people serving Father Jehovah and Whom he repurchased for himself on earth as at that time, the house of Isreal.

This is diffrent from Father Jehovah creating the universe for his own beloved Son. Heb 1:1,2

Isa 44:24 "... I am Jehovah, that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens ALONE, that spreadeth abroad the earth (who is with me?) ASV
"...`I am Jehovah, doing all things, Stretching out the heavens by Myself, Spreading out the earth--who is with Me? YLT
"...“I am Jehovah, who made everything.I stretched out the heavens by myself, +And I spread out the earth. +Who was with me? NWT

Father Jehovah claimed to create everything, because its by his WILL that they were made. Rev 4:11! And Jesus Christ always do NOT his own will BUT the Will Of the Father ( Joh 6:38, Luke 22:42).

For example, scripture again says Father Jehovah destroyed Sodom and Gomorah ( 2pet 2:6, Jude 5-7) BUT it was two angels whom he sent that actually destroyed it ( Gen 19: 12,13) . THE ANGELS ARE CARRYING OUT not their will but THE WILL OF THE MOST HIGH, JEHOVAH. ( Gen 19:13)

The question " who was with me? " is not directed to heavenly creatures BUT to the repurchased house of Jacob ! ( Check verse 23,24)

You quote John 6:38 where Jesus was supposed to be speaking about HIMSELF ALONE and you can still apply it to the Angel in the OT

Everyone know Angels Carry out the WILL of the Father Jehovah ( compare Gen 19:13).

Joh 6:38 also make reference to Jesus doing NOT His own will BUT the Will of the Father

JESUS URGE US TO IMITATE HIM IN "DOING THE WILL OF HIS FATHER IN HEAVEN" MATT 7:21

TWO DISTINCT PERSONS but ONE CREATOR

Illustration: As a boss, if I wrote a letter to another person through my intelligent secretary, who will the person said wrote the letter ? ME, but the letter was written through my secretary.

Illustratin 2: God wrote the bible THROUGH Men ...... Who made the bible ? God , but it was done through men .

Therefore, Father Jehovah retains the title of " CREATOR" , " God ( Father Jehovah) made the universe" Heb 1:1,2 but just as he wrote the bibe through men ...... He made the universe " through his son" .

Back to my question, can the LIVING word of God be created?

WHEN Father in the heavens said that: " this is my son, the beloved, whom I have chosen" Matt 3:17, are u tellin me that these statement is actually Jesus Christ ? Lol .... Remember another Jesus is also gettin baptized at that moment.

So when christians call the bible "the word of God" ...... It means the bible is actually Jesus christ.

Go and do more research.

QUESTION: WAS JESUS Christ Created??

ANSWER: YES!

WHY: I was born by virtue of creation, but of all things that came into existence by creation, Jesus is the "first - BORN OF ALL CREATION " Col 1:15.

The first Born IS NOT the source of a persons procreative power, BUT scriptural definition: ' Firstborn ..... beginning of a person's pro creative power ' Genesis 49:3 ! REALLY ? ' Jesus is the beginning of THE CREATION by God' Rev 3:14

Emusan:


Everything about JWs is figurative, please when God spoke in the wilderness and the Israelite couldn't withstand His voice is it figurative too?

Please its not everything we consider to be figurative!

Was the Words utterred by the voice ALIVE, BREATHING? Were the spoken words itself Jesus Christ?

You see where I am going.


You don't get the difference between Spoken word and the title- The word of God.

Emusan:

Forget about this your jumbo jumbo, YOU PURPOSELY used GOD, in which you've been using Jehovah from your previous post.

To me God = Jehovah, so I see nothing wrong in me using these terms interchangeably.

Emusan:

I'm tired of teaching you Bible Ok!

Now you refer to Acts 7:38 after I've deflated you and your brother of Acts 7:53. Your initial statement was on EXODUS but the point Acts 7:38 was emphasizing on was on DEUTERONOMY if you read it from verse 37 "...A prophet shall the Lord your God raise up unto you of your brethren, like unto me; him shall ye hear." and this took place many years after Moses' encountered with YHWH and before this time YHWH has already introduced an Angel which His name is on him. Though no where does the Bible recorded that The Angel Spoke with Moses on Mount Sinal likewise we can't rule out the possibility of the Angel talking with Moses on Mount Sinal.

Just continue to find representative angel for YHWH alright the onus is on you and your organization.

@bold section, Are you denying what is written that Acts 7:38 states "....WITH THE ANGEL WHO SPOKE TO HIM AT MOUNT SINAI......"

@The rest, Exodus 3:2-4 "and the angel of the Lord appeared to him in a flame of fire OUT OF THE MIDST OF A BUSH....When the LORD saw that he turned aside to see, GOD CALLED TO HIM 'OUT OF THE BUSH'...." Compare Acts 7:30,35 "...God sent as both ruler and deliverer BY THE HAND OF THE ANGEL THAT APPEARED TO HIM IN THE BUSH"

What do you understand from verse 35? Did God/YHWH used the angel as a representative?

Emusan:

Now you exposed yourself here what verse 38 was pointing to is not in EXODUS but in DEUTERONOMY, please was Exodus and Deuteronomy written at the same time?

Like I said keep searching for Angel that represent Yahweh and all these shits are just to support the lie that The Yahweh who spoke about Himself at Creation was actually represented by someone. SMH!!!

So What is Acts 7:30, 35 pointing to? To Deuteronomy or Exodus?

Calm down!

Emusan:

In fact you suppose to just hide your face somewhere, you're the one who came with useless hierarchy here
-The Father is Almighty God
-Jesus is a Mighty God higher than Angels and Man

Now if Jesus is higher than Angel and Man can Jesus have a fellows according to your own hierarchy? this shows that you're missing the content of that Heb 1:9.

Is the Words "fellows" or "Comrades" found at Hebrew 1:9 ? Yes.

Yes, Jesus still have fellows- once anointed Christians are adopted as God's/YHWH Children, they will become Christ's brethren and Co-heirs/Co-rulers of God's Kingdom.

Emusan:

And you think our word can be same as that of God
Is your word ALIVE?

You asked how can the literal word of God be conscious? Didn't Bible say The word of God is ALIVE, does the word ALIVE mean something to you?

So God's/YHWH is ALIVE and is Jesus- So What words were heard at Matthew 3:17 " a voice from Heaven saying, This is my Beloved son with whom I am well pleased". Was that spoken words= Jesus himself?

Hebrew 4:12 also says that the Word of God is "Sharper than two-edged sword" is that also Literal? How is Jesus literally sharper than two-edged sword?

CAPTIVATOR:
LIE ! The name " Jehovah" appeared more than 6000 times in the original hebrew scriptures before dubious enemies of our Father Jehovah, replace it with the title " LORD"
OR ar u sayin Father Jehovah appeared physically to humans ? " No one has seen God at anytime" 1 Joh 4:12 !

"No man has seen the Father " Joh 6:46

You're just grasping straw, you know I'm not talking about NAME.

This is your original post "The book of EXODUS told us that Jehovah gave the law directly to Moses ( Exodus 20:1)"
Can you see the underlined word? So you must be confused.

ACT 7:38 and 53 explains what make the above scriptures correct.
what appeared in the verse is Angels BUT I didnt quote the verse ( " " ), I only make a reference to it so as to bring out a point, the point is that Isrealite received the law as transmitted through "Angels" Act 7:53.

So if Israelite received the law as transmitted through Angels, how many Angels transmitted it and how many Angels did exodus identify?
Now you've added verse 38 to it again but see my reply to your brother's post about that.

( Act 7:53 says nothing about their numbers) just Sit down there, an angel will come and tell you.

See your life when you're misinterpreting the scripture.

YES ! The greek scriptures now support it with the details " God ( Father Jehovah) made the universe " HEB 1:1,2 CREDITED. Another detail is that this was done " through his son (Jesus Christ ) " Heb 1:1,2

Yet your brother is using Prov 8:22-30 as a prove.

Isa 43:15-21,22 is directed to the only people serving Father Jehovah and Whom he repurchased for himself on earth as at that time, the house of Isreal.

So you mean it is not Jesus who formed them

This is diffrent from Father Jehovah creating the universe for his own beloved Son. Heb 1:1,2

See lie so House of Israel are not part of universe

Father Jehovah claimed to create everything, because its by his WILL that they were made. Rev 4:11! And Jesus Christ always do NOT his own will BUT the Will Of the Father ( Joh 6:38, Luke 22:42).

Did Jehovah CLAIM to create or He actually CREATED?

For example, scripture again says Father Jehovah destroyed Sodom and Gomorah ( 2pet 2:6, Jude 5-7) BUT it was two angels whom he sent that actually destroyed it ( Gen 19: 12,13) . THE ANGELS ARE CARRYING OUT not their will but THE WILL OF THE MOST HIGH, JEHOVAH. ( Gen 19:13)

Follower of figurative and representative anytime it suits them.

The question " who was with me? " is not directed to heavenly creatures BUT to the repurchased house of Jacob ! ( Check verse 23,24)

Another lie to cover up lies.

Everyone know Angels Carry out the WILL of the Father Jehovah ( compare Gen 19:13).

Joh 6:38 also make reference to Jesus doing NOT His own will BUT the Will of the Father

According to you the Father Himself has never encounter MAN but His representative, so why would people WORSHIP this Father's representative when It's not the Father Himself?

JESUS URGE US TO IMITATE HIM IN "DOING THE WILL OF HIS FATHER IN HEAVEN" MATT 7:21

And this proves that the Father was never seen by man.

Illustration: As a boss, if I wrote a letter to another person through my intelligent secretary, who will the person said wrote the letter ? ME, but the letter was written through my secretary.

Illustratin 2: God wrote the bible THROUGH Men ...... Who made the bible ? God , but it was done through men .

Therefore, Father Jehovah retains the title of " CREATOR" , " God ( Father Jehovah) made the universe" Heb 1:1,2 but just as he wrote the bibe through men ...... He made the universe " through his son".

What if you want to explain to people how the letter was written, will you say the letter which you use YOUR OWN HANDs to write was despatched?

I believe if you say so that makes you a liar.

WHEN Father in the heavens said that: " this is my son, the beloved, whom I have chosen" Matt 3:17, are u tellin me that these statement is actually Jesus Christ ? Lol .... Remember another Jesus is also gettin baptized at that moment.

In fact from here you will know how confuse you are, the Bible also said NO ONE HAS HEARD the Father's voice, I know according to you this will also be Father's representative. mtcheeeee

So when christians call the bible "the word of God" ...... It means the bible is actually Jesus christ.

Go and do more research.

You don't know before and research on what oooo

QUESTION: WAS JESUS Christ Created??

ANSWER: YES!

WHY: I was born by virtue of creation, but of all things that came into existence by creation, Jesus is the "first - BORN OF ALL CREATION " Col 1:15.

The first Born IS NOT the source of a persons procreative power, BUT scriptural definition: ' Firstborn ..... beginning of a person's pro creative power ' Genesis 49:3 ! REALLY ? ' Jesus is the beginning of THE CREATION by God' Rev 3:14

The same old story

@ emusan ..... SHOW me the scripture that said " NO ONE HAS HEARD The Father Voice" ??

CANTICLES:
@ emusan ..... SHOW me the scripture that said " NO ONE HAS HEARD The Father Voice" ??

Don't you have Bible?

I know you pop up from somewhere because I said "NO ONE" don't worry continue in your hidden place and watch.

Emusan:


Don't you have Bible?

I know you pop up from somewhere because I said "NO ONE" don't worry continue in your hidden place and watch.

# burst into laughter #

JW's say Jesus Christ (now Michael) returned to earth invisibly in 1914 (the date has been changed repeatedly) and is working through his "Organization" to re-establish Jehovah's kingdom over the earth.

Mat 24:26 Wherefore if they shall say unto you, Behold, he is in the desert; go not forth: behold, he is in the secret chambers; believe it not.
Mat 24:27 For as the lightning cometh out of the east, and shineth even unto the west; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.

Rev_1:7 Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they also which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen.

1 John 5:1, 10-13, 20 NKJV

Whoever believes that Jesus is the Christ is born of God, and everyone who loves Him who begot also loves him who is begotten of Him. He who believes in the Son of God has the witness in himself; he who does not believe God has made Him a liar, because he has not believed the testimony that God has given of His Son. And this is the testimony: that God has given us eternal life, and this life is in His Son. He who has the Son has life; he who does not have the Son of God does not have life. These things I have written to you who believe in the name of the Son of God, that you may know that you have eternal life, and that you may continue to believe in the name of the Son of God. And we know that the Son of God has come and has given us an understanding, that we may know Him who is true; and we are in Him who is true, in His Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God and eternal life.



you who know the truth
2 Timothy 2:23 NKJV

But avoid foolish and ignorant disputes, knowing that they generate strife.

[size=18pt]THE JEHOVAH WITNESS BIBLE IS MESSED UP
BELOW ARE THE VERSES MISSING FROM THEIR BIBLE
CALLED NEW WORLD TRANSLATION (NWT) [/size]

CANTICLES:


# burst into laughter #

Please explain this verse:
"But you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God dwells in you. Now if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he is not His." (Rom 8:9).

Hiswordxray:


"But you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God dwells in you. Now if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he is not His." (Rom 8:9).

True CHRISTIANS are not in the flesh .... Verse 8 explains that those who are in harmony with the flesh CANNOT PLEASE God , why ? The "works of the flesh are plainly seen and they are sexual immorality, uncleaness, brazen conduct, idolatry,spiritism, hostility, strife, jealousy, fits of anger ... " Gal 5:19-21.
So how could such persons please God ??

BUT TRUE Christians powered by the Spirit Of God ( his holyspirit) are in the Spirit, because they produce the works of the spirit , " on the other hand, the fruitage of the spirit is love , joy, peace, patience, kindness, goodness, faith, mildness, Self Control" . Gal 5:22,23

CANTICLES:


True CHRISTIANS are not in the flesh .... Verse 8 explains that those who are in harmony with the flesh CANNOT PLEASE God , why ? The "works of the flesh are plainly seen and they are sexual immorality, uncleaness, brazen conduct, idolatry,spiritism, hostility, strife, jealousy, fits of anger ... " Gal 5:19-21.
So how could such persons please God ??

BUT TRUE Christians powered by the Spirit Of God ( his holyspirit) are in the Spirit, because they produce the works of the spirit , " on the other hand, the fruitage of the spirit is love , joy, peace, patience, kindness, goodness, faith, mildness, Self Control" . Gal 5:22,23

"But you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God dwells in you. Now if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he is not His." (Rom 8:9).
That verse talked about the Spirit of Christ and you ignored it despite the fact that I bold it. You choose to be blind to it just as you choose to be blind to everything in the Bible that contradict your doctrine.

So Please explain that verse again and this time include the "Spirit of Christ".

J witnesses, can you kindly explain how the meaning of the number 666 is related to 6 6 and 6?

Hiswordxray:

"But you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God dwells in you. Now if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he is not His." (Rom 8:9).
That verse talked about the Spirit of Christ and you ignored it despite the fact that I bold it. You choose to be blind to it just as you choose to be blind to everything in the Bible that contradict your doctrine.

So Please explain that verse again and this time include the "Spirit of Christ".

DEAR

RE - READ the explanation above .

For ur info, The holyspirit is also called :

" the spirit of truth" .
" the spirit of God" .
" the spirit of Wisdom" Isa 11:2
" the spirit of Christ" 1 Pet 1:10-11

" spirit of the Father" Matt 10:19,20
" spirit of Holiness" Rom 1:3,4
" Spirit of knowledge" Isa 11:2
" Spirit of power" Isa 11:2

CANTICLES:


DEAR

RE - READ the explanation above .

The holyspirit is also called :

" the spirit of truth" .
" the spirit of God" .
" the spirit of Christ"

Who is the Truth?

Then how the Spirit of God also become the Spirit of Christ? That's the question.

Emusan:


Who is the Truth?

Then how the Spirit of God also become the Spirit of Christ? That's the question.

What is dis one saying ?

RE - READ the post above . #updated#

You havnt gave me the scripture that said : " NO ONE Has heard the fathers voice" ?

CANTICLES:

What is dis one saying ?

RE - READ the post above . #updated#

You havnt gave me the scripture that said : " NO ONE Has ever heard the fathers voice" ?

Updated because you're confused.

In your update why did NWT remove the word "of Christ" in 1 Peter 1:11?

I won't give the verse until you address my post (the one you cherry pick that statement from) then I will reply you based on that.

Emusan:




In your update why did NWT remove the word "of Christ" in 1 Peter 1:11?

literal translation vrs 11: or " the spirit of Christ in them indicated " NWT reference bible . 1pet 1:11 footnote

RENDERING : " spirit in them was indicating concerning Christ , when it was bearing witness beforehand about the sufferings of Christ" .

The spirit in 1 pet 1:11 is not Christs spirit, but the holyspirit from God,which enable the prophets to write about the future sufferings of the Christ .

NOTE ALSO THAT :

In john 7:35 , the literal rendering is " dispersion of the greeks" BUT the context reveal that it was the jews that are dispersed among the greeks not the greeks .

RENDERING: " scattered AMONG the greeks"John 7:35 .
NIV

I won't give the verse until you address my post (the one you cherry pick that statement from) then I will reply you based on that.

NO SUCH SCRIPTURE EXIST !

CANTICLES:
literal translation vrs 11: or " the spirit of Christ in them indicated " NWT reference bible . 1pet 1:11 footnote

RENDERING : " spirit in them was indicating concerning Christ , when it was bearing witness beforehand about the sufferings of Christ".

SMH the words "Spirit of Christ" appeared in the literal translation or FROM ORIGINAL GREEK MANUSCRIPT

The spirit in 1 pet 1:11 is not Christs spirit, but the holyspirit from God which enable them to wrote about the future sufferings of the Messiah ( Christ) .

See pure broad day lie, so Apostle Peter didn't know what his saying before he put "The Spirit of Christ IN THEM" into it?

NOTE ALSO THAT :

In john 7:35 , the literal rendering is " dispersion of the greeks" BUT the context reveal that it was the jews that are dispersed among the greeks not the greeks.

What are you saying @bolded?
covering lie with lie again.

RENDERING: " scattered AMONG the greeks"John 7:35. NIV

It's only PEOPLE like you that will find it difficult what this verse is saying because of your perverted teaching and I don't know how this related with the JWs of purposely REMOVE the words "Of Christ" even though it appeared in the Greek manuscript.

NO SUCH SCRIPTURE EXIST!

So you know

Emusan:
"Spirit of Christ" appeared in the literal translation or FROM ORIGINAL GREEK MANUSCRIPT

Of course, the literal translation from the greek manuscript reads " the spirit of Christ in them" , but a translator must know that this may confuse some readers and they will think the spirit of Christ is actually an unclad ghost livin inside christ himself . Whereas this refers to the holyspirit . SO THE NWT renders it properly , and the literal translation was put in d footnote for reference .

The same way NIV renders the manuscript that said literally " dispersion of the greeks" , this may confuse the readers who know Jesus is speakin with the Jews , so it was properly rendered " scattered AMONG the Greeks" JOHN 7:35 for easy understanding

so Apostle Peter didn't know what his saying before he put "The Spirit of Christ IN THEM" into it?

so, tell us what the spirit of Christ is, if not reffering to the holyspirit ??

So you know

FRANKLY SPEAKING, I know you were lying the moment u write that : scripture said NO ONE has heard the Fathers voice" !

CANTICLES:
Of course, the literal translation from the greek manuscript reads " the spirit of Christ in them" , but a translator must know that this may confuse some readers

This is a pure lie nothing will confuse the reader in that verse.

and they will think the spirit of Christ is actually a ghost livin inside christ himself.

I believe only JWs will think like this, so does Holyspirit a ghost living inside the Father?

Whereas this refers to the holyspirit . SO THE NWT renders it properly , and the literal translation was put in d footnote for reference .

Pure lie not to Holyspirit BUT the Spirit of Christ which means Jesus in his prehuman existence also ministered in the time of OT prophets and indicated the relationship between the Godhead that's why Paul could interchangeably use the Spirit of God with Spirit of Christ which you couldn't give straight answer to as per Rom 8:9 the other time.

Lie NWT disrupted the Word of God by removing the words that appeared in the ORIGINAL Greek that is the point here.

The same way NIV renders the manuscript that said literally " dispersion of the greeks" , this may confuse the readers who know Jesus is speakin with the Jews , so it was properly rendered " scattered AMONG the Greeks" JOHN 7:35 for easy understanding

This is just an open excuse to support your fabricated book, NIV ONLY used another English word in REPLACEMENT of "Dispersion" NOT that the REMOVE any word from that verse.

The point in that verse is very clear and only you and your organization will take it and an excuse "...Does he intend to go to the Dispersion among the Greeks and teach the Greeks? RSV

The point here is Jesus MIXING with the Gentiles.

so, tell us what the spirit of Christ is, if not holyspirit??

The Spirit of Christ shows that Jesus in His prehuman existence also ministered in the TIME of OT Prophets.

CANTICLES:


DEAR

RE - READ the explanation above .

For ur info, The holyspirit is also called :

" the spirit of truth" .
" the spirit of God" .
" the spirit of Wisdom" Isa 11:2
" the spirit of Christ" 1 Pet 1:10-11

" spirit of the Father" Matt 10:19,20
" spirit of Holiness" Rom 1:3,4
" Spirit of knowledge" Isa 11:2
" Spirit of power" Isa 11:2

Why is the Spirit of God be called the Spirit of Jesus?
"For what man knows the things of a man except the spirit of the man which is in him? Even so no one knows the things of God except the Spirit of God." (1Cor 2:11).

Emusan:
The question to ask is why will God
use a created being to assist Him in
creation when He can do it ALONE
(Which is what the Bible says)?
Again JW believe the phrase "Let
US..." means God was talking to
Angels(Plural), they do this to
boycott the PLURALITY of Elohim
which means the name of God
contains is in PLURAL (as
TRINITARIAN CLAIMED) not in
SINGULAR.
Lastly, the point we are considering
here is DID YHWH DIRECTLY
INVOLVE IN CREATION?

Pls prove the bold face.

2. If Jesus is the literal word of God, how did God speak during Jesus baptism?

When you burn the bible, did you burn Jesus?

3. If Jesus is the literal word of God, how do you say Jesus is equal to God? and do you say that Jesus is YHWH of OT? Is your word all there is about you?

Are all the parts of God's body made up of His literal word alone?

You better check the meaning u are attaching to "ALIVE" in that Paul's words before you expose your lack of bible knowledge. explore the context.

4. You statement about elohim as being plural shows your limitation. If you knew how elohim is used in the scriptures, you wont use that as a point.

Hiswordxray:

Why is the Spirit of God be called the Spirit of Jesus?

YOU asked this question because u failed to heed and understand Jesus words that says the Father will send the holyspirit in the name of Christ ( John 14:26)

CANTICLES:


YOU asked this question because u failed to heed and understand Jesus words that says the Father will send the holyspirit in the name of Christ ( John 14:26)

So the name Christ is the same thing with the Spirit of Christ?

Hiswordxray:


"For what man knows the things of a man except the spirit of the man which is in him?

Dont u know that the spirit of the man which is in him and makes him know, give him understanding is the " BREATH Of the Almighty " ? Job 32:8,
" the spirit in people (man), the BREATH of the Almighty, gives them understanding" .

Even so no one knows the things of God except the Spirit of God." (1Cor 2:11).

Jesus says the spirit of God is upon me , what is he reffering to ? The holyspirit of God .

JMAN05:

Pls prove the bold face.

Through mathematical expression or what?

2. If Jesus is the literal word of God, how did God speak during Jesus baptism?

Is it possible for God to speak in all 36 states of Nigeria at the same time?

When you burn the bible, did you burn Jesus?

As the Bible is the literal word of God, dumbness!

3. If Jesus is the literal word of God, how do you say Jesus is equal to God? and do you say that Jesus is YHWH of OT? Is your word all there is about you?

In what sense have I said Jesus is equal to God?

Are all the parts of God's body made up of His literal word alone?

God's body
Tell me any part of God that Bible never called Jesus?

You better check the meaning u are attaching to "ALIVE" in that Paul's words before you expose your lack of bible knowledge. explore the context.

Tell us the meaning nah Bible scholar

4. You statement about elohim as being plural shows your limitation. If you knew how elohim is used in the scriptures, you wont use that as a point.

My limitation or yours? It's not how Elohim is being used in the Bible BUT HOW ELOHIM is being used in Genesis unless you want to tell us that Elohim in Genesis' creation account is not YHWH.

Emusan:


Through mathematical expression or what?

oga prove your claim

Is it possible for God to speak in all 36 states of Nigeria at the same time?

Wether 50 states, is it not the word of God? Jesus is that literal word according to you.

As the Bible is the literal word of God, dumbness!

Thats exactly what your idea is, dumbness. Thank God you reached that conclusion I want to bring to light.

In what sense have I said Jesus is equal to God?

Do you not believe the trinity?

2. Now respond to the other point I made there.

God's body
Tell me any part of God that Bible never called Jesus?

His knowledge, his omniscience.

Tell us the meaning nah Bible scholar

he answer is there. Read the context of Paul's words. If you dont understand, just paste it form context here, and your eyes will open.

My limitation or yours? It's not how Elohim is being used in the Bible BUT HOW ELOHIM is being used in Genesis unless you want to tell us that Elohim in Genesis' creation account is not YHWH.

Oga dont expose yourself. If I were you I would have done a research on that matter and shut up instead of talking further on that point.

Emperor4God:
[size=18pt]THE JEHOVAH WITNESS BIBLE IS MESSED UP
BELOW ARE THE VERSES MISSING FROM THEIR BIBLE
CALLED NEW WORLD TRANSLATION (NWT) [/size]

Please show us where those verses appear in NIV ESV, RSV, NETB.

2. Show us with manuscript prove why those verses are genuine.

Those versions must be messed up too.

JMAN05:

oga prove your claim

You just like shading shadow sha, are you trying to say the above is not true? Anyway I couldn't remember the person name and post again here on NL where a JWs said so and one person during house to house visitation of you people.

Though I still found this "When God said "Let us make man in our image" at Gen. 1:26, Jehovah God was speaking to His Son Jesus, His Master Worker, the first-born of all creation (and, possibly, to the rest of the angels also), who were also made in God's image. (Pr 8:30, 31; also compare John 1:1-3; Col 1:15-17)"
http://defendingjehovahswitnesses..com/2014/06/is-gen-126-really-proof-of-trinity-let.html

Wether 50 states, is it not the word of God? Jesus is that literal word according to you.

I believe you don't even understand yourself.

Thats exactly what your idea is, dumbness. Thank God you reached that conclusion I want to bring to light.

I can see your low understanding of that my point, who and who reach your dumbness conclusion?

Do you not believe the trinity?

2. Now respond to the other point I made there.

How does my believe in Trinity got to do with the question I asked you?

Respond to what again?

His knowledge, his omniscience.

Are you confused or lack knowledge? What is the difference between omniscient and God's knowledge?
Beside you're wrong to say Bible never called Jesus "His knowledge"
"By wisdom the Lord laid the earth’s foundations, by understanding he set the heavens in place; by his knowledge the watery depths were divided, and the clouds let drop the dew. Prov 3:19-20 NIV

I started from verse 19 so that you can see that the writer is talking about CREATION.

The answer is there. Read the context of Paul's words. If you dont understand, just paste it form context here, and your eyes will open.

Talking about context as you're also following the same principle.

Oga dont expose yourself. If I were you I would have done a research on that matter and shut up instead of talking further on that point.

I'll rather advice you to do the same.

Emusan:


You just like shading shadow sha, are you trying to say the above is not true? Anyway I couldn't remember the person name and post again here on NL where a JWs said so and one person during house to house visitation of you people.

Though I still found this "When God said "Let us make man in our image" at Gen. 1:26, Jehovah God was speaking to His Son Jesus, His Master Worker, the first-born of all creation (and, possibly, to the rest of the angels also), who were also made in God's image. (Pr 8:30, 31; also compare John 1:1-3; Col 1:15-17)"
http://defendingjehovahswitnesses..com/2014/06/is-gen-126-really-proof-of-trinity-let.html

And you assume that possibility stated inside a parenthesis can be used as the belief of Jehovah's Witnesses? His words was worded in a way that you shouldn't have cast hope on it. You can ask him why he said so, but JW do not teach that God was talking to Angels.

The site stated:

"This site counters virtually every false claim from opposers of Jehovah's Witnesses. For the authoritative information on JWs' beliefs look to the OFFICIAL WEBSITE: www.jw.org."

Why dont you go to that site to get an authoritative info?

I believe you don't even understand yourself.

That question suites you better. Maybe you dont know what literal means.

Again, if God said 50 times at the same time, Jesus is that word 'cos he is the literal word of God. That is your puerile point man.

I can see your low understanding of that my point, who and who reach your dumbness conclusion?

The comment just exposed what you just gave a baptismal name - dumbness.

If the bible is the word of God, and Jesus is that literal word of God, the bible you have in hand is Jesus. Think up nwoke m.

How does my believe in Trinity got to do with the question I asked you?

I hope am not talking to a lad here?

Are you confused or lack knowledge? What is the difference between omniscient and God's knowledge?
Beside you're wrong to say Bible never called Jesus "His knowledge"
"By wisdom the Lord laid the earth’s foundations, by understanding he set the heavens in place; by his knowledge the watery depths were divided, and the clouds let drop the dew. Prov 3:19-20 NIV

I started from verse 19 so that you can see that the writer is talking about CREATION.

Your lack of understanding made you ask that. When I said knowledge, after the comma was expanding on what I said earlier - that I was talking about God's omniscience.

God's knowledge is vast, that his knowledge was expressed in His creation does not mean that it is limited there. I wonder how that relates to Jesus who knew a fringe of what God knows. Is he still God's knowledge and yet had things he never knew that God does?

Talking about context as you're also following the same principle.

God's word is alive to its promises. Its promises come true, not that His utterance is a conscious being. Enough of your dancing to run away from the main issue. seems you love that so well.

2. Bear in mind that elohim is elohim, dont deceive your brain. The word appears both for Jehovah and for false gods which we know are not two or three in one.

When you want to make research, search for how elohim is used in the bible as a whole, not only in Genesis. (note that even in genesis elohim is used for foreign gods). Dont limit it as an available ground to fall on to save face.

Emusan:


Updated because you're confused.

In your update why did NWT remove the word "of Christ" in 1 Peter 1:11?

I won't give the verse until you address my post (the one you cherry pick that statement from) then I will reply you based on that.

And who told you that of "Christ" was removed? Neither that nor "spirit" was removed in that verse. Rearrangement of words is normal in bible translation. You can present your prove that such rearrangement is against Greek grammar and the whole bible message. Thats what you should be doing. Time and again you keep exposing yourself.

Note: "of" is used to complete the sentence.