Fellow Nairalanders I'm not raising this question just to raise an argument but it's because I want to know why it is so.
Why is Chelsea placed 3rd on the UEFA Champions League group "H" table after having a zero goals difference compared to Valencia who are sitting 2nd on the table with -.(minus)2 goals?

Error. Chelsea are 2nd

Wow ...

The champions league is not done like world cup,afcon or other trophies.

If you can remember in 2013 when chelsea had same point with Shaktar donetsk,Chelsea were knocked out cos Shaktar had better head-to-head results even though Chelsea scored more goals than them.


For instance,chelsea,psg and barca in same group,lets say chelsea had 15 points to top the group then psg and barca had 10 points each.
How it will be judged:lets say psg beats beat 1-0 at parc des princes,then barca beat them 3-1 at camp nou.
Goal aggregate 3-2 in favor of barca then barca automatically proceeds to the knockout stage even though psg scored more goals and conceded less in competition.

when 2 teams are on the same point, the next criterion used to separate them in UCL is head to head ( unlike EPL or LA liga) that uses goals difference.

Valencia played draw away at Chelsea. Away goal rule favours Valencia ahead of Chelsea

danielistics:
when 2 teams are on the same point, the next criterion used to separate them in UCL is head to head ( unlike EPL or LA liga) that uses goals difference.

Oga...... la Liga also uses head to head

peterd53:

Oga...... la Liga also uses head to head

thanks, I forgot.

Head to head.. Valencia already beat Chelsea..

Valencia defeated Chelsea

cathodekazim:
Valencia played draw away at Chelsea. Away goal rule favours Valencia ahead of Chelsea