remsonik:
This is csc 305,computational science and numerical methods. The answer is 0 . I wish to add a textbook you can get details of the course and study. If you're a computer science, mathematics, software engineering, cybersecurity student s this course is a compulsory 3 units course. Study well and don't have a carryover. It wasn't easy when I first got it to lecture on but with time I had to learn well

Winterhaven:
Mathematiciansin the house, Come in and solve this maths.

LillyandDaisy:
First of all
You apply the BODMAS and then you apply the rule of indices then you take to Logarithm theorem and then after you apply your standard form. SImPLe

Kukutente23:

Google application of logarithm or exponential to know the usefulness

rillchritty:
The answer is approximately 1-1/e = 0.632. I will upload the workings when I get to my laptop.

Edit:
See the attached image for the evaluation

rillchritty:
The answer is approximately 1-1/e = 0.632. I will upload the workings when I get to my laptop.

Edit:
See the attached image for the evaluation

sunsweet33:


Everybody is saying it’s 0, does it mean all their calculators are faulty…

360command:
what we were taught in school and what they teach other students in different countries, only God knows which is correct. In America, to solve that, they will tell you Pemdas (parenthesis, exponents, multiplication, division, addition, subtraction. Note, we were taught bodmas. In the USA, what Nigeria calls brackets is what Americans say as parenthesis. And what we say as parenthesis, Americans calls it brackets.
I would’ve try to solve the equation but is been a while I’ve been in my right state of mind, you’re right about the system of education and method applies, all are differs… right now all I want is a chilled beer and sleep.. bad time to be here in Nigeria

Now in that equation given , we have parenthesis , brackets and exponents, addition and subtraction. So using pemdas apply unlike the formula you chose "bodmas" might not necessarily apply.

But hey, ignore all I have written above. You are right, you are wrong. Americans are right. Americans are wrong.

I got to know this when my son brought his assignment and I saw his class work. I gave up and did not want to confuse the boy but I told him to apply what he was taught in school.

GABRIEL6036:
Me wey be guru in math... Let's solve and brake it down...


8
×
1
0
67
8×10
67
is a very large number, so
1
−
(
8
×
1
0
67
)
−
1
1−(8×10
67
)
−1
is essentially
1
−
0
1−0, which equals 1.

So, the expression becomes
1
−
1
8
×
1
0
67
1−1
8×10
67

.

1
�
1
n
is always 1 for any value of
�
n, so
1
8
×
1
0
67
1
8×10
67

is also 1.

Finally,
1
−
1
1−1 equals 0.

Therefore, the result of the expression is 0.

Light78:

Okay

I just used my project computer

Crunchy12:

Crunchy12:

rillchritty:


Yes, I can authoritatively say that they are all wrong! I explained in my original reply why a calculator that does not have capacity for variable precision arithmetic CANNOT correctly evaluate the expression.

rillchritty:


Careful with your assumptions! For a large number x, although 1/x is close to zero, the expression (1 - 1/x)^x is NOT close to 1. Its value is approximately 1/e, where e is Euler's number (e = 2.71828). To understand why that is so, read about limits in any introductory calculus textbook.

If you are not convinced, try to evaluate (1 - 1/x)^x for a set of increasingly large numbers that your calculator can handle, say, x = 8*10^16, 8*10^17, 8*10^18,... What you will notice is that the answer keeps getting closer and closer to 0.36787944117144, and when you get to about 8*10^31, you suddenly start getting 0 (showing that the numerical precision of the calculator is no longer enough for accurate evaluation of the expression). To avoid this, one must use variable precision arithmetic instead (MATLAB and Octave support that functionality).

sunsweet33:


Well…in the modern world it’s more sensible to use a calculators and AI robots…in consequence you can see the whole page littered with wrong answers…never mind.. 🤷🏾‍♀️

GABRIEL6036:

This is another method for you dummy 🤣
Given expression:
1
−
(
1
−
1
8
×
1
0
67
)
8
×
1
0
67
1−(1−
8×10
67

1
​
)
8×10
67



Simplify the inner expression first:
1
−
1
8
×
1
0
67
1−
8×10
67

1
​


To simplify the fraction, we can rewrite
8
8 as
2
3
2
3
:
1
−
1
2
3
×
1
0
67
1−
2
3
×10
67

1
​


This can be further simplified to
1
−
1
2
3
×
1
1
0
67
1−
2
3

1
​
×
10
67

1
​


Which simplifies to
1
−
1
8
×
1
1
0
67
1−
8
1
​
×
10
67

1
​


Further simplifying, we get
1
−
1
8
×
1
0
67
1−
8×10
67

1
​


So, the inner expression simplifies to
1
−
1
8
×
1
0
67
1−
8×10
67

1
​


Now, raise this to the power of
8
×
1
0
67
8×10
67
:
(
1
−
1
8
×
1
0
67
)
8
×
1
0
67
(1−
8×10
67

1
​
)
8×10
67



Since
8
×
1
0
67
8×10
67
is a very large number, this term approaches
�
−
1
e
−1
as the exponent approaches infinity. So, this term simplifies to
�
−
1
e
−1
(where
�
e is Euler's number, approximately
2.71828
2.71828).

Finally,
1
−
�
−
1
1−e
−1
is approximately
0.63212
0.63212.

Therefore, the result of the expression is approximately
0.63212
0.63212

rillchritty:


That's exactly the answer I already gave in my original reply!

Noniblaq:
Wetin concern me with maths. With only fifteen Kay, you fit get 3 luxury vintage shirts in Nigeria today. See my thread if you are interested

YoungLionken:
You nor know maths and your English come still poor. You sure say we nor go ask for a refund from your school so.??

rillchritty:


It depends on the level of precision required in the application. If your application involves computation with numbers as large as 8*10^67, then surely, the precision offered by common calculators is going to be inadequate.

Winterhaven:
Mathematiciansin the house, Come in and solve this maths.

Winterhaven:
Mathematiciansin the house, Come in and solve this maths.

NameInUse:
I don't like mathematics at all and i so much envy those that knows mathematics. Na like say dem dey do magic with numbers.

rillchritty:


I have modified my reply above to include the logic of the solution.

tete7000:


Nothing to solve, you can only simplify. It is a mathematical expression, not an equation you can solve.

GABRIEL6036:

This is another method for you dummy 🤣
Given expression:
1
−
(
1
−
1
8
×
1
0
67
)
8
×
1
0
67
1−(1−
8×10
67

1
​
)
8×10
67



Simplify the inner expression first:
1
−
1
8
×
1
0
67
1−
8×10
67

1
​


To simplify the fraction, we can rewrite
8
8 as
2
3
2
3
:
1
−
1
2
3
×
1
0
67
1−
2
3
×10
67

1
​


This can be further simplified to
1
−
1
2
3
×
1
1
0
67
1−
2
3

1
​
×
10
67

1
​


Which simplifies to
1
−
1
8
×
1
1
0
67
1−
8
1
​
×
10
67

1
​


Further simplifying, we get
1
−
1
8
×
1
0
67
1−
8×10
67

1
​


So, the inner expression simplifies to
1
−
1
8
×
1
0
67
1−
8×10
67

1
​


Now, raise this to the power of
8
×
1
0
67
8×10
67
:
(
1
−
1
8
×
1
0
67
)
8
×
1
0
67
(1−
8×10
67

1
​
)
8×10
67



Since
8
×
1
0
67
8×10
67
is a very large number, this term approaches
�
−
1
e
−1
as the exponent approaches infinity. So, this term simplifies to
�
−
1
e
−1
(where
�
e is Euler's number, approximately
2.71828
2.71828).

Finally,
1
−
�
−
1
1−e
−1
is approximately
0.63212
0.63212.

Therefore, the result of the expression is approximately
0.63212
0.63212

rillchritty:
The answer is approximately 1-1/e = 0.632. I will upload the workings when I get to my laptop.

Edit:
See the attached image for the evaluation

iamtardey:
Simple