maryjames9:
Iran is synonymous to to funding of terrorism. It is not good idea.

I have same suspicion about this 'timely'offer. Educationally they are not world class

salvation101:

Thanks for contributing. However, there are some misconception in that write up. When man was created is clear from scriptures and that is on the 6th day. But the theory states that the gap existed between verse 1 and 2..some interpret the verse two as saying "the earth became without form and void" meaning an event occurred wch the Bible is silent about.. It doesn't say there was a generation of man dat existed before Adam but there where some beings who existed before him.. In one of Kenneth Hagin books "the triumphant church" he traced the origin of demons to av come from the Pre-Adamic Age (I'll see if i can get an excerpt of it)..

I have that book (hard-copy). I will look it up. I think the proponents of pre Adamic age claim God couldn't have created the earth without form and void. Then the darkness depicts the presence of Satan.

Seun:

Nudity is relative. The dressing of a typical Nigerian Christian sister would be considered indecent in some muslim countries. Once people get used to seeing a particular body part all the time, it ceases to be a source of “temptation”. If the majority of women suddenly started going about topless in skirts reaching the ground, men who came of age after that time would find women's ankles to be a source of temptation.

Is it true once people start seeing a particular body part it ceases to be temptation? Does it include every body part? I think there is a universal definition of nudity and seduction

Seun:
Why are men so obsessed with telling women what to wear? Let women wear whatever makes them feel comfortable and beautiful.

Does it include going nude or almost nude?

I don't have a wholesome response yet but this extract from a webpage maybe useful

Got Questions
Does the Bible say anything about a pre-Adamic race?



pre-Adamic race
Question: "Does the Bible say anything about a pre-Adamic race?"

Answer: The concept of a pre-Adamic race is the idea that God created a race of humans who lived on the Earth before He created Adam, the first man. This hypothesis has been promoted by various scholars at various times throughout history. Roman Emperor Julian the Apostate (circa A.D. 331–363) and Calvinist theologian Isaac de La Peyrère (1596-1676) are two notable examples.

We will look at two popular facets of the Preadamite Hypothesis: the hypothesis as it was proposed by Isaac de La Peyrère and the form which it takes in the “Gap Theory” (also known as the Ruin-Reconstruction interpretation). According to La Peyrère, God created the Gentiles on the sixth day when He said, “Let us make man in our image” (Genesis 1:26). He did not create the Jews until after the seventh day, His day of rest. At some point after the seventh day, God created Adam, the father of the Jews.

La Peyrère cited Scripture to support his hypothesis. Cain’s fear of being lynched, his marriage to an unknown woman and the fact that he founded a city (Genesis 4:14-17) are all interpreted as evidence that another race of men coexisted with Adam and his family.

La Peyrère subsequently reinterpreted other passages of Scripture in light of his peculiar understanding of the Genesis account. Consider a very familiar passage, Romans 5:12-14: “Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned—for until the Law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law. Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come.”

This passage is traditionally interpreted as meaning that death began with Adam’s sin and reigned unchecked among men (even among those who haven’t actually eaten the forbidden fruit, those who have sinned but not “in the likeness of the offense of Adam”) until the Law was given to Moses. La Peyrère interpreted this passage another way. According to La Peyrère, the pre-Adamic Gentiles sinned against God, but in a manner less egregious than Adam (which is why Adam’s sin brought death while theirs didn’t). They merely sinned against God’s moral will, while Adam sinned against His Law. Adam disobeyed God’s prohibition by eating the forbidden fruit. He broke what La Peyrère called the Law of Paradise. Thus, according to La Peyrère, the pre-Adamic Gentiles were those who “had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam.”

By now it’s obvious how misinterpreting one or two passages of Scripture can lead to all kinds of warped perceptions. The Scriptural problems with La Peyrère’s interpretations are numerous.

First, Adam is called the “first man” (1 Corinthians 15:45). This is inconsistent with the idea that God created men before Adam. Second, according to La Peyrère, the Gentiles were to live outside of the Garden of Eden while Adam enjoyed paradise (a privilege which came with the responsibility of obeying the Law of Paradise—not eating the forbidden fruit). Genesis 2:5-8, however, says quite plainly that before God created “the man whom He had formed,” the very same man which He placed in the garden, there were no men upon the earth to cultivate the ground. Third, God created Eve for Adam because he was alone, there was no one else like him around (“It is not good for the man to be alone… but for Adam there was not found a helper suitable for him” Genesis 2:18, 20). Fourth, Adam named his wife “Eve” “because she was the mother of all the living” (Genesis 3:20). The list goes on, but these passages should suffice to refute La Peyrère’s misinterpretation.

As for Cain’s fear of being lynched, his marriage to an unknown woman and the fact that he founded a city (Genesis 4:14-17), Adam was almost 130 years old by the time that Cain killed Abel (Adam had Seth, his next son after Abel’s death, when he was about 130 years old; Genesis 4:25; 5:3). And we know that Adam had sons and daughters (Genesis 5:3). At 130 he could have had grandkids and great-grandkids by the time that Cain killed Abel. Cain had plenty of family members to be afraid of after killing his brother.

Cain apparently married a family member (a necessity back then) at some point before Abel’s murder. It seems odd to us today, but incest wasn’t outlawed by God until the Law of Moses. It may have been around that time that generations of degenerative genetic mutations began to take a toll on our DNA. God outlawed incest for our protection. It became (and remains) dangerous for close relatives to procreate because of shared genetic defects which become expressed in their children causing severe deformities and other problems.

As for Cain founding a city, if he lived to be the average age back then, he probably lived to be about 900 years old. By the time he died, his family would have been a small city. If Cain had a child at the age of 30, and his child had a child at the age of 30 and so on, Cain could have produced 30 generations by the time he died (30 generations times 30 years each equals 900 years).

The Ruin-Reconstruction interpretation takes a somewhat different approach to the pre-Adamic race theory. According to the Gap Theory, an unspecified amount of time passed between Genesis 1:1 and 1:2, during which God created a pre-Adamic race of men who lived upon the earth until God destroyed them in judgment. Other extinct creatures, like the dinosaurs, are said to have also lived during this time. Afterwards, the theory goes, God remodeled the earth in six days. He created Adam on the sixth day, and the rest is history. Some say that Satan’s fall occurred at some point during the ambiguous gap.

A “mistranslation” has contributed to the case for this misinterpretation. In the King James Version of the Bible, God says to Adam, “Be fruitful, and multiply, and replenish the earth.” Proponents of the Gap Theory emphasize the word “replenish.” They interpret the text as saying that Adam and Eve were to refill the Earth. They were to fill it again. The problem with this view is that, regardless of what it says in English translations, the Hebrew word is mâlê’, and it simply means “to fill” or “to be full.” Moreover, the English translators of the King James Version knew the word means “to fill.” They chose “replenish” because, in 17th-century Elizabethan English, “replenish” meant “to fill” (similar to how in modern English the word “replete” doesn’t mean to “abound again,” it simply means “abundant” or “abounding”). Language is not static, but dynamic. Words change meaning over time. Today “replenish” means “to fill again.” It didn’t mean the same thing in 17th century England. Nearly all modern translations translate mâlê’ as simply “fill” in the passage in question (Genesis 1:28).

Proponents of the Gap Theory respond by pointing out that God said to Noah after the flood, “Be fruitful and multiply, and fill [mâlê’] the earth” (Genesis 9:1). It is evident that Noah was meant to refill the earth after the flood. Can’t we then interpret the same command to Adam to mean the same thing—that Adam was to repopulate the earth after God’s judgment? The fact is that, regardless what the condition of the planet was before Noah’s flood, God didn’t tell Noah to “refill” the Earth. He simply said to fill it. God chose the words He chose and no others. If He said “refill,” that would have been something, but since He just said “fill,” that argument falls flat.

The real problem with the Gap Theory is that it places human mortality (pre-Adamic human mortality) before Adam’s sin. The Bible is quite clear that death entered in through Adam’s sin. “For since by a man came death, by a man also came the resurrection of the dead. For as in Adam all die, so also in Christ all will be made alive” (1 Corinthians 15:21-22). Regardless of whether or not we believe in animal mortality before sin, the Bible is quite explicit about human mortality before Adam’s sin. There wasn’t any. To deny this is to deny a central Christian doctrine.

Recommended Resources: The Case for a Creator by Lee Strobel

jeruzi:
The real person is the spirit, the body is the house or casing, the soul is the processing unit.

Information is being fed into the soul through the body and the spirit.

With our body we contact the pysical: whatever information we get is processed in the soul.

With our spirit we contact the spiritual. whatever information is gotten through our spirit is processed in the soul.

The Soul is the seat will, emtions,mind, intellect.

The soul is in the spirit. Both the spirit and the soul are immortal. Hence in the after life, people are contious and remembers who they are and what they had done while the body is just lifeless on earth and can no longer respond to anything.

When we study the word of God, we are enabling our soul to respond to spiritual impulses coming to us the way God wants.

You did a good work with this post

Bolaji21:

Let me quote a less ambiguous translation:
EasyEnglish This is why even the dead people heard the good news about Christ. Their bodies had to die, as all people must die. But they heard the good news so that their *spirits could live. Their *spirits could live as God wants them to live.

The point been made here is that all people necessarily heard the gospel so they can receive judgement on the same criteria. Remember, those that lived before the advent of Christ won't be judged with the same criteria and we will because the gospel was not been preached in their own time. Apostle Peter is saying the gospel is preached to everyone, including those dead now, so that we can all be judged by the same parameter and also have the same privilege of been spirit filled being who will be raised first (1 Thess 4:16)


As I said earlier, Jesus didn't go to hell to preach the gospel. He went there to make an announcement. That is what scripture sa I.e that is what apostle Peter was referring to the earlier quoted verse.
Yes, Jesus was 'active' for the 3 days he was dead. We don't know much of the details except what Peter mentioned (that he went to make an announcement). It was during this period that he went to hades. As earlier stated, death is separation, and in this case, separation from the body.

They are. That's why we say man is tripartite and that is the testimony of scripture.
1Th 5:23 And the very God of peace sanctify you wholly; and I pray God your whole spirit and soul and body be preserved blameless unto the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.

I'll make the distinction by stating the human functions of each.
Spirit: Consists of the conscience (part of you that tells you that you're wrong) , Intuition , fellowship (part of you that can relate with spirits, this part makes relating with God possible)
Soul: Emotion, intellect, will

Your explanation of the tripartite nature of Man is correct scripturally. Have you checked the original Bible script for that 1 Peter 4vs6? What about the idea that Christ went to preach the gospel to the Saints(spirits) that were imprisoned ? What do you say about Matthew 27 Vs 51 - 53? What criteria will be used to judge those before the manifestation of Christ?

jeruzi:
man is a three part being comprising of spirit, soul, and body.
Death is of two types
1) separation of the spirit and soul from the body
2) sparation of the spirit and soul God.

Every human experience the first, but only the unbeliever experience the second.
The death that invoves the separation from God is the reason why sinner go to hell.
spirit doesn't stop existing after the physical body dies.
Jesus said, do not fear those who kill the body, but fear God who can kill both the body and the spirit in hell.
The death of the spirit is simply the spirit being tormented in hell
The Scripture talks about death in the lake of fire also( they be alive in torment).

Jesus Christ experienced both for us.
1) He died in the body.
2) He went to hell.

Also Abraham bosom is not up but under this earth. It is above hell but separated from it, so that the inhabitant of both places do not meet.

Jesus being righteous went to hell because he bore our sins.

Is Abraham's bosom same thing as paradise? What is your scriptural proof that Abraham's bosom is beneath the earth?

Bolaji21:

In biblical terms, death means separation. Hence, physical death is separation from your body of earth.
1. Man is Spirit, soul, body. The merging of the body (dust) and spirit (breathe) in Genesis 2, precipitated the soul which is the seat of personality.
2. The life of the creature is in the blood, Lev17:11.
3. The Bible says, without the shedding of blood, there's no remission of sin (Hebrew 9:22).
Hence, Jesus went to the cross to shed his blood as required in Heb 9:22, which means he gave his life (since the life is in the blood Lev 17:11).
Hence he proclaimed: It is finished John 19:30.

Additional info: Mat 10:28 And fear not them which kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul: but rather fear him which is able to destroy both soul and body in hell.
Jesus is here telling us that physical death affects only the body. Only God is able to destroy the soul.
Joh 10:17 Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again.

To answer your question, Yes Jesus died. That's one of the pillars of the gospel. The gospel won't be complete without that.



By the way, I noticed that some brethren here are saying Jesus went to hell to preach the gospel to the spirits there. That's not correct. I assume the scripture they have in mind are:
I Pet 3:19 By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison;
I Peter 4:6 For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit

A proper look at those texts will reveal that Peter meant something else. For example, the Word translated preach in I Pet 3:19 is kērussō
Definition:
to be a herald, to officiate as a herald
to proclaim after the manner of a herald
always with the suggestion of formality, gravity and an authority which must be listened to and obeyed

The proper usage being in the sense of a town crier or a public announcement.

The proper word for preaching in the Bible is euaggelizō from which we derive evangelism, evangelist etc.
Definition:
to bring good news, to announce glad tidings
used in the OT of any kind of good news
of the joyful tidings of God's kindness, in particular, of the Messianic blessings.

With this understanding, we see that Jesus didn't go to preach the gospel to the dead. That's unbiblical because Heb 9:27 And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment:
Jesus went there to make an announcement, something like Mat 28:18 And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.
Notice also that the scripture use 'spirits' to describe the beings referred to in I Pet 3:19.


As regard the second text, the dead been referred to is not those that are physically dead, but spiritually dead. I think it's clear what the apostle is trying to say. The gospel. Was preached to those that are now dead. That is, they gospel was preached to them while they were alive. The preceding verses shed more light.

Jesus neither went to hell to preach thr gispel, neither did he go there because of our sins (as a sinner)

Thank you for your analysis , but what is the usefulness of the statement 'that they might be judged according to men in the flesh' in 1Peter 4vs6?
What are the spirits he went to preach to? Why did he have to preach to them? Your assumption of the announcement he went to make is not verifiable from scriptures. Was Jesus in anyway active for the 3days he was dead? If he was what are the details? When was the gospel made available to man? Your definition of the precipitation of the soul is very correct, but can you distinguish between the soul and spirit? Are they separate entities?

removetheturban:
I will put it in the simplest form for you. Person is a human being; an individual while personality is the trait of the person

So is God a person or personality by your definition?

removetheturban:
That is another good point emphasized there.

Good point? Did he say ye are GODS or gods?

Peacefullove:


Let the writer of the same John answer you .


But these have been written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, - John 20 vs 31

It wasn't written so you can believe he is the supreme God . showing clearly your understanding is flawed in some cases like John 1:1-3, if you have any point to raise from the verse say it .

There is nothing in this post

removetheturban:
God is a person. Let us move from here.

What is the difference between a person and a personality?

prinzfavian:

Lol... Boss...
That verse wasn't even talking about Jesus, but the Christians from the days of the apostles down to our day... The dead there are the spiritually unconscious ones, not literally dead people... And whereas, it was imprisoned spirits Jesus preached too, disobedient ones of old not to the dead... Eph 2:1 puts more light on 1pet 4:6

Thanks Boss.

I hail you o! Gospel preached to them that are dead that they might be judged according to men in the flesh ? How can the dead be judged according to men in the flesh, if by your claim they are in the flesh?
By the way your explanation of Hebrews 4vs12 is worse than the change we get from APC

prinzfavian:

Busted! How? Well I like your sense of humour... Okay to the Bible portion you cited.... 1 Peter 3 vs 18-20...
I don't see anything in that verse that contradicts what I have been saying... Jesus was dead all through the three days... Verses 18...help us see that he was made alive in spirit, Boss this was after the third day and not during the three days of his death as you think...(1cor 15:45)....also read 1 cor 15:20...
So the preaching recorded in verses 19 and 20 of 1 Peter was carried out by Jesus as a spirit after he had been resurrected... Not during his three days in the middle of the earth (Matthew 12:40)...he was sleeping during those periods, just as his friend lazarus whom he himself resurrected did when he was dead for four days... (John 11:11-13)
Thank you Boss.

Was it after he resurrected he preached to the dead according to 1 Peter 4vs6

Peacefullove:




I cannot laugh abeg, Very funny guy .
Okay, Some part are figurative ... while other part are Not figurative ? in the same story o

Relax Sir .



Am sure the Matthew 10 vs 28 question I popped up got on your nerves . don't worry, I will invite you to the thread .


anyway , The question here are still valid

Religious bias has killed your sense of objectivity. I only took a cue from your brother's notion about some things being figurative. Is it right to visit a native doctor?

prinzfavian:

Lol, Thanks... I've responded, sorry it came in a bit late...
Jesus wasn't alive,he was dead,no part of him was somewhere else...Unconscious of nothing at all.... (matthew 12:40, eccl 9:5)

Busted! 1 Peter 3vs18-20 says otherwise.

Peacefullove:


So the entire story was FIGURATIVE ( not actually real ) ? Lolzzzzz



Mr, Soul means life nah . isn't it ?

Body and soul in hell, Matthew 10:28, So the human body also go to hell ? I wonder why pastors preach soul alone, when Yeshua said soul and body . ( I have a thread on that, will mention you )


Too many holes in the cloth of so called Jesus followers

Destroying body and soul in hell is a proof that both are distinct part of Man. Shekinah!

prinzfavian:


Now regarding the issue of the Bible chapters and verses you cited....
First, Matthew 10:28: as I said earlier, The soul according to the scriptures basically means:
1. People
2. Animal and
3. The life that an animal or that a person has...
Now looking closely at that Bible book of Matthew 10:28, the 3rd definition of the soul fits in perfectly....
That passage reads:"And fear not them which kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul: but rather fear him which is able to destroy both soul and body in hell".... Now if as I claim, that the soul is the person himself and not something intangible that is inside of a person, then how is it possible to kill the body and not kill the soul since the soul is the person humself..... Jesus here was talking about resurrection, that his followers should not be afraid of those that would kill them (just as they would later go on to kill him too) just because they are Christ follower because if any of them should loose their life because of him they will preserve it till a later time when they will get it back again (resurrection) - luke 17:33....
He goes on and says... But fear him that can destroy both the body and soul in hell..... Meaning, we should not be afraid of men but God who is the source of life, and can choose to either resurrect us or not when we die...

Hebrews 4:12.... ".... Piercing even to the dividing asunder of soul and spirit, and of the joint and marrow...." To understand the sense in which soul and spirit is used in the context, we need to read it carefully....
This verse is emphasising the powerfulness of the word of God, so powerful and effective that it can bring about the most impossible kind of change in ones life, it can touch the deepest part of your heart and help you make some difficult changes in your life even such as difficult as the dividing of soul and spirit, and joints from marrow...
It doesn't mean the soul and spirit is being inhabited in the body...

Was Jesus active in the 3days he was dead? Why do you all skip this question?

Peacefullove:


So the entire story was FIGURATIVE ( not actually real ) ? Lolzzzzz



Mr, Soul means life nah . isn't it ?

Body and soul in hell, Matthew 10:28, So the human body also go to hell ? I wonder why pastors preach soul alone, when Yeshua said soul and body . ( I have a thread on that, will mention you )


Too many holes in the cloth of so called Jesus followers

Be smart! I didn't say the whole story is figurative! Stop telling lies. I seem to enjoy my conversations with prinzfavian and removetheturban more than you. At least they 'pretend' to be objective and don't misquote me. I am proud to be a Jesus follower, of course he is the way. Who are you following? The ancestors from your village?

prinzfavian:


Boss, Many translations presents Jesus statement at luke 23:43 in different way, The punctuation shown in the rendering of these words @ luke 23:43 must, of course, depend on the translator’s understanding of the sense of Jesus’ words, since no punctuation was used in the original Greek text. Punctuation in the modern style did not become common until about the ninth century C.E. Whereas many translations place a comma before the word “today” and thereby give the impression that the evildoer entered Paradise that same day, there is nothing in the rest of the Scriptures to support this. Jesus himself was dead and in the tomb until the third day and was then resurrected as “the firstfruits” of the resurrection. (Ac 10:40; 1Co 15:20; Col 1:18) He ascended to heaven 40 days later.—Joh 20:17; Ac 1:1-3, 9.
There fore, The evidence is, therefore, that Jesus’ use of the word “today” was not to give the time of the evildoer’s being in Paradise but, rather, to call attention to the time in which the promise was being made and during which the evildoer had shown a measure of faith in Jesus. It was a day when Jesus had been rejected and condemned by the highest-ranking religious leaders of his own people and was thereafter sentenced to die by Roman authority. He had become an object of scorn and ridicule. So the wrongdoer alongside him had shown a notable quality and commendable heart attitude in not going along with the crowd but, rather, speaking out in Jesus’ behalf and expressing belief in his coming Kingship. Recognizing that the emphasis is correctly placed on the time of the promise’s being made rather than on The evidence is, therefore, that Jesus’ use of the word “today” was not to give the time of the evildoer’s being in Paradise but, rather, to call attention to the time in which the promise was being made and during which the evildoer had shown a measure of faith in Jesus. It was a day when Jesus had been rejected and condemned by the highest-ranking religious leaders of his own people and was thereafter sentenced to die by Roman authority. He had become an object of scorn and ridicule. So the wrongdoer alongside him had shown a notable quality and commendable heart attitude in not going along with the crowd but, rather, speaking out in Jesus’ behalf and expressing belief in his coming Kingship. Recognizing that the emphasis is correctly placed on the time of the promise’s being made rather than on the time of its fulfillment. As to the identification of the Paradise of which Jesus spoke, it is clearly not synonymous with the heavenly Kingdom of Christ. Earlier that day entry into that heavenly Kingdom had been held out as a prospect for Jesus’ faithful disciples but on the basis of their having ‘stuck with him in his trials,’ something the evildoer had never done, his dying alongside Jesus being purely for his own criminal acts. (Lu 22:28-30; 23:40, 41) The evildoer obviously had not been “born again,” of water and spirit, which Jesus showed was a prerequisite to entry into the Kingdom of the heavens. (Joh 3:3-6) Nor was the evildoer one of the ‘conquerors’ that the glorified Christ Jesus stated would be with him on his heavenly throne and that have a share in “the first resurrection.”—Re 3:11, 12, 21; 12:10, 11; 14:1-4; 20:4-6.
Sorry for the long epistle.

About the long epistle, ko si wahala! Was Jesus active in the 3 days he was dead( beyond the earthly realm)? Dear you didn't respond to my other questions on Matthew 10vs28 and Hebrews 4vs 12

removetheturban:
God is a person. Let us move from here.

And who is that person?
I would like you to interprete John 1vs1-3

Peacefullove:


Revelation 2 vs 7 mentions Paradise as being in heaven .

So are you. now telling me Jesus was telling the thief they will both be in heaven immediately they died ?

You didn't answer my questions completely, please do

prinzfavian:

Yes, there is a clear distinction as per the eternal location of the righteous and unrighteous... The paradise Jesus promised to the thief on when dying is an earthly one, which is yet to come or not existing NOW.... And that's where the likes of Abraham himself and many more faithfuls of old and those of our time will be.
Abraham's bosom isn't a physical location...

But Jesus said TODAY? Beloved, we can't change that. Don't you think Abraham's bosom is a figurative expression of Abraham's location after his death (same place the righteous will be)?
Can you correlate your claim of the body being part of the soul and the statement of Jesus in Matthew 10vs28 in which he placed a demarcation between the soul and the body? I think Hebrews 4vs12 separates the three entities

Peacefullove:


First, you can now see your attempt to use son of God to rationalize what is not true was trashed .

you now shifted to image, Pls how does image or no image prove Godship ? cos even humans are in the image of the Father , so what exactly is your point ?

Trashed?
Is Jesus God? Please explain John 1vs1-3. If you say he is not God then who is he?

removetheturban:

Mary was his earthly mother.

God is the title of Jehovah. But, since God (Elohim) was also used to refer to other entities, the adjective "Almighty" is used to distinguish him from all other gods.

If you believe that he is 100% God, are you in contention with the verse that says that he emptied himself and TOOK the form of a man?

Please answer my question whether God is a person or personality? We can move forward from there

removetheturban:
Is Jesus the almighty God, the father?

Jesus is not the father but he is as much God as the Father. John 1vs1-3

Peacefullove:


interesting

@ Bolded, Are angels not also son of God ? Do you guess they are God too ?

Are angels the express image of the Father?

Peacefullove:



Bossom is chest , making it an imaginary location WILL REQUIRE that Every other thing in the story a Representative of another. thus symbolic ... are u ready to face that penalty ?




It is in your Bible that Paradise is in heaven, Now How could Jesus be in Paradise ( Heaven) the same day he died ? Did he ascend to heaven immediately he dies?

Where is Paradise sir? Please respond with scriptural proofs. According to the Bible how many heaven(s) are there?

Peacefullove:


I was observing cos I didn't wanna digress from the main topic, which you and others are yet to answer. here you are again applying parabolic meaning to Abraham blossom yet u accuse someone. of saying its a parable.



If you want to take the story as it is, why give another meaning to Abraham bossom ?

What is your bosom ? Your chest or a location in space .

prove the bolded

First let us stay in love with an open heart to learn. The Bible says Lazarus was CARRIED into Abraham's bosom by the angels. CARRY speaks of transportation, and transportation leads to destination. If I have not answered your question I will do in due time

prinzfavian:

Bosom can also refer to the breast or chest part of the body...
What does it mean to be in someone's Bosom? A close look at the 23rd verse of the 13th chapter of the book of John will help us out.... We see there that one of Jesus' favourite disciple was said to be leaning on Jesus' Bosom... Which also means he was closest to him in the manner with which they were sitting...
Now if the account of luke 16:19-31 is to be taking literally, it would mean that those enjoying divine favour could all fit at the bosom of one man, Abraham; and that a mere drop of water would bring relief to one suffering in hades... And all these will lead to contradictions in the Bible but it's an establish fact that the Bible doesn't contradict itself in fact it explains itself....
Take into consideration that the account is a story that has no historical backings... Hence, the principal subjects, such as "the rich man", "lazarus" and "abraham" must have represented some important details that Jesus was trying to pass across in a message to his listeners...
One reasonable question one should ask is, if lazarus went to Abraham's bosom, where was Abraham himself?
The end note is that, that account at luke 16:19-31 is a parable that has a special meaning and should not be taken literally.

Obviously Abraham's bossom is a physical location, whether you call it parable or not. Jesus is enough history, Abraham is someone we know and was regarded in that account in the light of our knowledge of him . One obvious truth in the account is that there is a clear distinction in location for the just and the unjust after death. Could that location of the just(Abraham's bossom) as seen in the passage be the said Paradise? Jesus told the thief on the cross TODAY you shall be with me in paradise

prinzfavian:


I already did boss, but I'll answer these ones too...

1). Before we can deduce in what form man will be in paradise, we first need to know the location of this paradise... Is it on earth or in heaven, because if it's heaven... Then flesh and blood can't survive there (1cor 15:50)...automatically, man's form or being has to be spiritual... That is, man will be a spirit....
But according to history, the precious paradise we had wasn't in heaven but here on Earth (gen 2:8, 9, 15)... So it's reasonable to conclude that the location of paradise will be here on Earth (psalms 37:11)....and if that's the case, the form of Man will be the way it is now, A soul, only that we will be perfect just the way Adam was before he sinned.

2). The breath of God there stands for the "spirit", that's why it's said at ecclesiastes 12:7 to return to God who gave it at Genesis 2:7.

3) Well, according to the same scripture, a soul consist of flesh and spirit, and hence can die (Ezekiel 18:4,20)...and flesh and blood can't survive in heaven (1 cor 15:50).... It's logical to say, being a soul is perfect only for earthly conditions.... No wonder why the angels in the past first had to become souls by taking up materialised bodies for them selves before coming down to earth... (Ge 6:1-4, Jude 6).

4). Soul is not a part of Man but man himself.... It's spirit and flesh that is part of Man.

I am enjoying this discuss, but I must be quick to say there is no scriptural proof that paradise is here on Earth, not even the Psalm 37vs11 you quoted( I stand to be corrected) . Where is the location of Abraham's bossom? Like you said the breath of God in Genesis 2vs7 stands for the spirit of man ,that gave man the capacity to relate with this earthly realm. If it is the spirit that made the clay a living being, doesn't the spirit stand more as the real 'force'? Is heaven a soulish realm or a spirit realm?