6 / 2 ( 1 + 2 ) = ?

9

Na so u dull?....9 jor

the answer is 9

9

1 is d correct answer

To me, I think the answer is subjective. It depends on what is the function between 2 and (1+2). If it is 'of' function, then the answer is 1 but if it is 'multiplication' function then the answer is 9

Working:
6 ÷ 2 of (1+2) = 6 ÷ 2 of 3 = 6 ÷ 6 = 1 if the function is 'of'

OR

6 ÷ 2 * (1+2) = 6 ÷ 2 * 3 = 3 * 3 = 9 if the function is 'multiplication'

Obinoscopy: To me, I think the answer is subjective. It depends on what is the function between 2 and (1+2). If it is 'of' function, then the answer is 1 but if it is 'multiplication' function then the answer is 9

Working:
6/2of(1+2) = 6/2of3 = 6/6 = 1 if the function is 'of'

OR

6/2*(1+2) = 6/2*3 = 3*3 = 9 if the function is 'multiplication'

Ol' boy see Euler o... You are so great that you never knew that 'of' is actually translated to 'times' or multiplication in Mathematics? The answer is 1.

hakunajay:

Ol' boy see Euler o... You are so great that you never knew that 'of' is actually translated to 'times' or multiplication in Mathematics? The answer is 1.

They might be the same to a layman but they are not the same to a mathematician. Remember BODMAS. The O stands for 'of' while the M stands for 'multiplication' or 'times'. Thus 'of' comes before 'division' which in turn comes before 'multiplication'

So my brother the fact remains that 'of' is different from 'multiplication'. That explains why they are placed differently in the BODMAS organogram. Get my drift?

Obinoscopy:

They might be the same to a layman but they are not the same to a mathematician. Remember BODMAS. The O stands for 'of' while the M stands for 'multiplication' or 'times'. Thus 'of' comes before 'division' which in turn comes before 'multiplication'

So my brother the fact remains that 'of' is different from 'multiplication'. That explains why they are placed differently in the BODMAS organogram. Get my drift?

okay. how will you solve this? 1/3 of 9? pls give me solution then i will continue from there.

6 / 2 ( 1 + 2 ) = ?
Explanation:
Using BODMAS (Bracket Of Division, multiplication, addition and subtraction)
B = treat bracket (Parenthesis) first: 6 / 2 * 3
DM = treat division and multiplication from left to right (please note from left to right): 3 * 3
Since there is no need for addition and subtraction, the answer is therefore = 9.

hakunajay:

okay. how will you solve this? 1/3 of 9? pls give me solution then i will continue from there.

Sorry do you mean 1 ÷ 3 of 9 or one third of 9?

If the former, applying BODMAS 'of' comes before 'division' thus it would be:
1 ÷ [3 of 9] = 1 ÷ 0.333... = 3

If later, then its simple a fraction times an integer. Thus there would even be no need need for BODMAS since its just two numbers with a function in between:
1/3 of 9 = 1/3 * 9 = 3

Both answers gives us 3. However that won't be the case for 3/2 of 2 and 3 ÷ 2 of 2. The solution to the former is 3 while the answer to the later is 3/4. Get my drift?

Forget all these grammerz.........The answer is 1.
If you don't agree to that answer, then you need to start again from Prim. 1
Or better still, come and get the map and drive to hell.

Geewan: 6 / 2 ( 1 + 2 ) = ?
Explanation:
Using BODMAS (Bracket Of Division, multiplication, addition and subtraction)
B = treat bracket (Parenthesis) first: 6 / 2 * 3
DM = treat division and multiplication from left to right (please note from left to right): 3 * 3
Since there is no need for addition and subtraction, the answer is therefore = 9.

You guys dont get it, do you? Ask yourself this question.. what is the usefulness of bracket in relation to the coefficient? Dont you realise that 6 can be written as 2(1+2)? Just like writing 6a as 2(a+2a). so the coefficient in the question 6/2(1+2), is attached to whatever is in the brackets and therefore can not be touched without FULLY considering the operation joining it with whatever is in the brackets.
Further analysis....
Let rewrite 6a as 2(a+2a). Correct?
Now, divide this whole lots by 6.
Hence, 6/2(a+2a).... Using BODMAS, take care of whatever is in the brackets, therefore we will have
6/2(3a)
taking away the brackets yields *
hence we have, 6/2*3a
leading to 6/6a which can now be easily divided.

I am waiting to see your counter~proof/proofs.

Obinoscopy:

Sorry do you mean 1 ÷ 3 of 9 or one third of 9?

If the former, applying BODMAS 'of' comes before 'division' thus it would be:
1 ÷ [3 of 9] = 1 ÷ 0.333... = 3

If later, then its simple a fraction times an integer. Thus there would even be no need need for BODMAS since its just two numbers with a function in between:
1/3 of 9 = 1/3 * 9 = 3

Both answers gives us 3. However that won't be the case for 3/2 of 2 and 3 ÷ 2 of 2. The solution to the former is 3 while the answer to the later is 3/4. Get my drift?

Boss, do you know that you are contradicting yourself? i can simply show you different methods of solving this without using BODMAS and will yield same answer.
Let me start with your example. 3/2 of 2. the of changes to x(times). and of course the answer is 3. Now for the 3÷2 of 2. the answer is not 3/4. do you know that i can replace that ÷ sign with x sign by inverting the first 2?
this becomes 3x (1/2) of 2
hence, 3x (1/2) x2...
which now gives you 3.
Now do u get the REAL drift?
Also, im humbled to tell you that one third is the same as 1/3, which is also the same as 1÷3. Take it anywhere.

hakunajay:

You guys dont get it, do you? Ask yourself this question.. what is the usefulness of bracket in relation to the coefficient? Dont you realise that 6 can be written as 2(1+2)? Just like writing 6a as 2(a+2a). so the coefficient in the question 6/2(1+2), is attached to whatever is in the brackets and therefore can not be touched without FULLY considering the operation joining it with whatever is in the brackets.
Further analysis....
Let rewrite 6a as 2(a+2a). Correct?
Now, divide this whole lots by 6.
Hence, 6/2(a+2a).... Using BODMAS, take care of whatever is in the brackets, therefore we will have
6/2(3a)
taking away the brackets yields *
hence we have, 6/2*3a
leading to 6/6a which can now be easily divided.

I am waiting to see your counter~proof/proofs.

On the bolded, do you know that 6/2*3a is different from 6/(2*3a)?

The problem is that you don't appreciate the importance of BODMAS and the technical difference between 'of' and *

hakunajay:

Boss, do you know that you are contradicting yourself? i can simply show you different methods of solving this without using BODMAS and will yield same answer.
Let me start with your example. 3/2 of 2. the of changes to x(times). and of course the answer is 3. Now for the 3÷2 of 2. the answer is not 3/4. do you know that i can replace that ÷ sign with x sign by inverting the first 2?
this becomes 3x (1/2) of 2
hence, 3x (1/2) x2...
which now gives you 3.
Now do u get the REAL drift?
Also, im humbled to tell you that one third is the same as 1/3, which is also the same as 1÷3. Take it anywhere.

I'm sorry but you are catastrophically wrong on the bolded. I'd bet a million naira on this! Its obvious you are not a fan of BODMAS!!

And for the records I never said the answer the OP's question was not 1. All I said that the answer is 1 if the function between 2 and (1+2) is 'of'. But if the function between 2 and (1+2) is * then the answer is 9.

Regards

[quote author=]6 / 2 ( 1 + 2 ) = ?[/quote]

From bodmas, open brackets 1st so d answer is

1

hakunajay:

You guys dont get it, do you? Ask yourself this question.. what is the usefulness of bracket in relation to the coefficient? Dont you realise that 6 can be written as 2(1+2)? Just like writing 6a as 2(a+2a). so the coefficient in the question 6/2(1+2), is attached to whatever is in the brackets and therefore can not be touched without FULLY considering the operation joining it with whatever is in the brackets.
Further analysis....
Let rewrite 6a as 2(a+2a). Correct?
Now, divide this whole lots by 6.
Hence, 6/2(a+2a).... Using BODMAS, take care of whatever is in the brackets, therefore we will have
6/2(3a)
taking away the brackets yields *
hence we have, 6/2*3a
leading to 6/6a which can now be easily divided.

I am waiting to see your counter~proof/proofs.

Try using PEMDAS
Where P = Parenthesis
E = Exponents
M = multiplication
D = Division
NB: Order of multiplication and division is from left to right.
A = Addition
S = subtraction
NB: Order of addition and subtraction is from left to right.
Source: GMAT 2012 pg 226.

Geewan:

Try using PEMDAS
Where P = Parenthesis
E = Exponents
M = multiplication
D = Division
NB: Order of multiplication and division is from left to right.
A = Addition
S = subtraction
NB: Order of addition and subtraction is from left to right.
Source: GMAT 2012 pg 226.

And if PEMDAS is used, what will the answer be?

9

Hakunajay I want u to google this: 6/2(1+2) and tell me the answer the google calculator gave you (it gave me 9!). Also I want you to click this link and read its content extensively: http://www.askamathematician.com/2011/04/q-how-do-you-calculate-6212-or-48293-whats-the-deal-with-this-orders-of-operation-business/

The point I'm trying to establish here is that the problem with questiom lies with definition of terms. There is no solid mathematical rule governing what fxn shld be btw 2 and (1+2). That explains the confusion. Some say the answer is 1 others say 9.

Some even say 6 ÷ 2(1+2) is different from 6/2(1+2). Others argue that 6/2(1+2) should not be confused with 6/[2(1+2)]. I know the side u are on But that doesn't mean the guys on the other side are wrong. Unless we mathematicians all come together and define these rules and notations properly, the confusion would persist. Kind regards

Obinoscopy: Hakunajay I want u to google this: 6/2(1+2) and tell me the answer the google calculator gave you (it gave me 9!). Also I want you to click this link and read its content extensively: http://www.askamathematician.com/2011/04/q-how-do-you-calculate-6212-or-48293-whats-the-deal-with-this-orders-of-operation-business/

The point I'm trying to establish here is that the problem with questiom lies with definition of terms. There is no solid mathematical rule governing what fxn shld be btw 2 and (1+2). That explains the confusion. Some say the answer is 1 others say 9.

Some even say 6 ÷ 2(1+2) is different from 6/2(1+2). Others argue that 6/2(1+2) should not be confused with 6/[2(1+2)]. I know the side u are on But that doesn't mean the guys on the other side are wrong. Unless we mathematicians all come together and define these rules and notations properly, the confusion would persist. Kind regards

@obinoscopy the answer is one
my reason is 6/2(2+1)=6/2(3)=3/3 (u either say 6/2 b4 dividing by 3)=6/6( or u multiply the denominator 2(3) b4 dividing)=1

masperano:
@obinoscopy the answer is one
my reason is 6/2(2+1)=6/2(3)=3/3 (u either say 6/2 b4 dividing by 3)=6/6( or u multiply the denominator 2(3) b4 dividing)=1

You are right. But the guy who got 9 is right as well! The rules guiding Binary Operation is kinda ambigious and incomplete thus the confusion.

Type 6/2(1+2) in google and see what answer the google calculator will give u

So which is the correct answer: 9 or 1??

oyinmama: So which is the correct answer: 9 or 1??

Good question!

@op do u mean:

6÷2(1+2) or 6/2(1+2) i.e 6 over 2(1+2)?

For the former applying bodmas, the ans is 1, opening the bracket 2(1+2), we have 6, thus 6÷6=1

For the latter( bodmas need not be applied since only multiplication is the key and 6/2 is seen as a fraction and not two whole numbers dividing.), the ans is 6 over 2 * (1+2)=9. So 6 over 2=3 * (1+2)=3, thus 3*3=9..

Note: For the former, 6÷2(1+2), 2 is joined with the bracket (1+2) but for the latter we have 6/ 2 as a fraction multiplied by 3 which gives 9.

So depending on the op's use of sign the ans may vary.

Answer is 1. Use BODMAS.