when i posted the first issue of shakespeare being a racist i didnt have an idea that the literature teacher would think otherwise, being a science student, i decided to give him fair hearing, this was what he wrote that I can still remeber.
Could Shakespeare have been a racist when in his days the words 'racist' and 'racism' were virtually non-existent? Recall that the character used by many critics as being oppressed, Caliban, was in actual sense referred to as 'innocent'. (nice beginning huh?)
Being one of the few authors whose work has outlived them, the literary man has been associated with much criticisms, his being a gay(tragedy of king lear), but the most dominant of them all is his being aa racist.
In most of his books 'the tempest', 'othello' and 'the merchant of venice' shakespeare had an element of racial undertones embedded in the book, but is it really fair to associate that aas an 'Authorial intrusion?' that stands in doubt! oscar wilde author of the picture of dorian gray, was known in many circles as being gay, but none of his works reflected his lifestyle.
Actually, we should take coignizance of the fact that in Shakespeare's time which was the victorian era, what was in vougue was oppression of slaves, both white and black, so his works that might have been thought to depict racism was just the reflection of the mood of his time and NOT his personal sentiments.
So, the question should be whether he had sympathies for those oppressed or not and not if he was a racist or not.
N/B: please if you have any comment don't hesitate in writing it, i will need it for my hypothesis. AJAH ELIEZER.

Dont knw.......maybe I should start readin Ȋ̝̊̅̄§ book all ova again......