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Nairaland Forum / Nairaland / General / Religion / In Hebrew 4:8, KJV Referred To Jesus While Other Versions Referred To Joshua. (1411 Views)
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In Hebrew 4:8, KJV Referred To Jesus While Other Versions Referred To Joshua. by ayusadeg(m): 11:55am On Mar 19, 2015 |
Bible scholars having gone through several versions of the Bible, it seems 'Joshua' was recorded in the manuscript of Hebrew 4:8, as only King James Version recorded 'Jesus' instead, please what could have happened to the translation or could it be a suitable replacement? Can anyone explain that? |
Re: In Hebrew 4:8, KJV Referred To Jesus While Other Versions Referred To Joshua. by Hawlahscho(m): 12:40pm On Mar 19, 2015 |
[size=30pt]Is true o [/size]
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Re: In Hebrew 4:8, KJV Referred To Jesus While Other Versions Referred To Joshua. by johnydon22(m): 12:51pm On Mar 19, 2015 |
so much infallibility
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Re: In Hebrew 4:8, KJV Referred To Jesus While Other Versions Referred To Joshua. by Sanchez01: 3:51pm On Mar 19, 2015 |
ayusadeg, Johnydon22 and Hawlascho, understand something here; KJV mentions 'Jesus' and my version, the KJVer mentions 'Jesus' as well. I checked up and NIV version and saw 'Joshua'... The explanation is pretty simple, For if Jesus - Margin, "That is, Joshua." The Syriac renders it, "Joshua the son of Nun." "Jesus" is the Greek mode of writing "Joshua," and there can be no doubt that Joshua is here intended. The object is to prove that Joshua did" not" give the people of God such a rest as to make it improper to speak of a "rest" after that time. "If Joshua had given them a complete and final rest; if by his conducting them to the promised land all had been done which had been contemplated by the promise, then it would not have been alluded to again, as it was in the time of David." Joshua "did" give them a rest in the promised land; but it was not all which was intended, and it did not exclude the promise of another and more important rest. Then would he not - Then "God" would not have spoken of another time when that rest could be obtained. The "other day" here referred to is that which is mentioned before by the phrase "today," and refers to the time in which it is spoken of long after Joshua, to wit, in the time of David. To understand this better, read Heb 4 from verse 1. To back this up, check for the meaning of 'Joshua'. Here, From the Hebrew name (Yehoshu'a) meaning "YAHWEH is salvation". It also means "more than that" I got the excerpt below from an Hebrew Bible Etymology of the name Joshuahttp://www.abarim-publications.com/Meaning/Joshua.html#.VQrgt9LF_l8 In all, 'Joshua' is the old Testament form of 'Jesus'. This implies that the names mean the same, this was specifically why "Christ" was added to one, to distinguish both characters. Hope I helped . Shalom NB: The 'Jesus'/'Joshua' being referred to in Heb 4:8 is the Son of Nun who was Moses' minister (servant). 2 Likes 1 Share |
Re: In Hebrew 4:8, KJV Referred To Jesus While Other Versions Referred To Joshua. by Goshen360(m): 3:59pm On Mar 19, 2015 |
^^^ I was just going to type it short and say the same thing. Many people think there are contradictions in the bible but they fail to do contextual word study. Joshua in the Hebrew is same word with Jesus. ...Yeshua. Plus, Joshua is a type of Christ and both translation having Joshua or Jesus is right depending how one is looking at it, either as a type or as substance. 2 Likes 1 Share |
Re: In Hebrew 4:8, KJV Referred To Jesus While Other Versions Referred To Joshua. by sinkhole: 4:15pm On Mar 19, 2015 |
In the light of the very long and complicated explanations, can I ask if the Bible was writen for ordinary person or an academician? All a man on the street knows is that there is Joshua and there is Jesus, so why trying to confuse the ordinary man by mixing Joshua and Jesus? |
Re: In Hebrew 4:8, KJV Referred To Jesus While Other Versions Referred To Joshua. by Sanchez01: 4:27pm On Mar 19, 2015 |
sinkhole:Nothing is complicated, understand the meaning of the name 'Joshua' and that settles it. 1 Like |
Re: In Hebrew 4:8, KJV Referred To Jesus While Other Versions Referred To Joshua. by ayusadeg(m): 5:43pm On Mar 19, 2015 |
Sanchez01:Thanks so much you have done justice to it, I also thought of this answer, I have also learnt more on it online via google search, thanks alot! 1 Like |
Re: In Hebrew 4:8, KJV Referred To Jesus While Other Versions Referred To Joshua. by Hiswordxray(m): 6:00pm On Mar 19, 2015 |
ayusadeg:Jesus is the Greek word for Joshua. The old testament was written in Hebrew and the Hebrew word is Joshua. While the new testament is written in Greek and the Greek word is Jesus. I think the English word is Messiah or anointed one. But Hebrews 4:8 was referring to Joshua not Jesus. Maybe the King James thought it was referring to Jesus that it translated it as Jesus. |
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