[b]Why is this important? cos JESUS himself said, John 17:3, and this is life eternal, that they might know thee THE ONLY TRUE GOD and JESUS CHRIST whom thou (THE TRUE GOD) has sent.
SO MY ETERNAL LIFE/YOUR ETERNAL LIFE EITHER IN HEAVEN OR ON EARTH DEPENDS ON KNOWING THE ABOVE 2 PERSONS, THE ISSUE NO BE JOKE!!

1) Matt. 26:39, RS: “Going a little farther he [Jesus Christ] fell on his face and prayed, ‘My Father, if it be possible, let

this cup pass from me; nevertheless, not as I will, but as thou wilt.’” (If the Father and the Son were not distinct

individuals, such a prayer would have been meaningless. Jesus would have been praying to himself, and his will would of

necessity have been the Father’s will.)


2) John 8:17, 18, RS: “[Jesus answered the Jewish Pharisees:] In your law it is written that the testimony of two men is true;

I bear witness to myself, and the Father who sent me bears witness to me.” (So, Jesus definitely spoke of himself as being

an individual separate and distinct from the Father.)


3) Col. 1:15, 16, RS: “He [Jesus Christ] is the image of the invisible God, the first-born of all creation; for in him all

things were created, in heaven and on earth.” In what sense is Jesus Christ “the first-born of all creation”?


4) Rev. 1:1; 3:14, RS: “The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him . . . ‘And to the angel of the church in La-odicea

write: “The words of the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning [Greek, ar·kheʹ] of God’s creation.”’” (KJ, Dy,

CC, and NW, as well as others, read similarly.) Is that rendering correct? Some take the view that what is meant is that

the Son was ‘the beginner of God’s creation,’ that he was its ‘ultimate source.’ But Liddell and Scott’s Greek-English

Lexicon lists “beginning” as its first meaning of ar·kheʹ. (Oxford, 1968, p. 252) The logical conclusion is that the one

being quoted at Revelation 3:14 is a creation, the first of God’s creations, that he had a beginning. Compare Proverbs

8:22, where, as many Bible commentators agree, the Son is referred to as wisdom personified. According to RS, NE, and JB,

the one there speaking is said to be “created.”)


5) Mark 13:32, RS: “Of that day or that hour no ones knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father.”

(Of course, that would not be the case if Father, Son, and Holy Spirit were coequal, comprising one Godhead. And if, as

some suggest, the Son was limited by his human nature from knowing, the question remains, Why did the Holy Spirit not

know?)


6) Matt. 20:20-23, RS: “The mother of the sons of Zebedee . . . said to him [Jesus], ‘Command that these two sons of mine may

sit, one at your right hand and one at your left, in your kingdom.’ But Jesus answered, . . . ‘You will drink my cup, but

to sit at my right hand and at my left is not mine to grant, but it is for those for whom it has been prepared by my

Father.’” (How strange, if, as claimed, Jesus is God! Was Jesus here merely answering according to his “human nature”? If,

as Trinitarians say, Jesus was truly “God-man”—both God and man, not one or the other—would it truly be consistent to

resort to such an explanation? Does not Matthew 20:23 rather show that the Son is not equal to the Father, that the Father

has reserved some prerogatives for himself?)


7) John 14:28, RS: “[Jesus said:] If you loved me, you would have rejoiced, because I go to the Father; for the Father is

greater than I.”


1 Cor. 11:3, KJV: “But I HAVE you know that the head of every man is Christ, the head of a woman is man, and the head of

Christ is God.” (Clearly, then, Christ is not God, and God is of superior rank to Christ. It should be noted that this was

written about 55 C.E., some 22 years after Jesus returned to heaven. So the truth here stated applies to the relationship

between God and Christ in heaven.)


9) 1 Cor. 8:5, 6, KJV: “For though there be that are called gods whether in heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and

lords many) but to us there is one God, the Father, of whom are all things and we in him, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by

whom are all things and we by him (This presents the Father as the “one God” of Christians and as being in a class distinct

from Jesus Christ.)


10) 1 Pet. 1:3, KJV: “Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ!” (Repeatedly, even following Jesus’ ascension to

heaven, the Scriptures refer to the Father as “the God” of Jesus Christ. At John 20:17, following Jesus’ resurrection, he

himself spoke of the Father as “my God.” Later, when in heaven, as recorded at Revelation 3:12, he again used the same

expression. But never in the Bible is the Father reported to refer to the Son as “my God,” nor does either the Father or

the Son refer to the holy spirit as “my God.”)


11) Heb 9:24 KJV For christ is not entered into the holy places made with hands, which are figures of the true but into heaven

itself, now to appear in the presence of GOD for us
[/b]

Matthew 28:18-20 is the most solid proof

"A Canaanite woman from that vicinity came to him, crying out, 'Lord, Son of David, have mercy on me! My daughter is suffering terribly from demon-possession. Jesus did not answer a word. So his disciples came to him and urged him, 'Send her away, for she keeps crying out after us.' He [Jesus] answered, 'I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel.

Lemme put it this way..
I was Born on A Sunday.. And am +1 this Sunday.. A big Happy Sunday and Happy Birthday to myself...
#ItsAWorkOfHisGrace
#StillGrowingInGrace
#MoreGrace



show some love

Book of Mathew says Jesus pbuh was only sent to the lost sheep of Israel.

This begs the question are the people of Nigeria the lost sheep of Israel ?

What do I need to do to make this hit front page? @ seun, lalasticlala, people need to be informed... Guess that's why we are all on NL? Abi I talk lie?