Hello Nauralanders.
I will like to seek your legal advice on this issue.
Someone was owning different LOAN application certain amount, he has defaulted in repayment and they have been disturbing him and his close relatives and friends.
One day, a huge amount of money was mistakenly paid into his account. These funds were automatically removed by some LOAN APPS he's owing.
The sender contacted the bank to freeze the account but no funds in the account to freeze.
My question is , if such case is taken to the court of law can the owner of the account (the receiver) be enforced to repay the sender.
Remember he did not touch the money

Yes the owner of the account must pay because the money delivered into his account,and due to his liability to a third party,the money was also debited to fulfill his debt owed those third parties,,,if he was not owing anybody the money will still be in his account.

What if he is incapacitated to pay, can such person be sentence

delzbaba:
Yes the owner of the account must pay because the money delivered into his account,and due to his liability to a third party,the money was also debited to fulfill his debt owed those third parties,,,if he was not owing anybody the money will still be in his account.

gungab:
What if he is incapacitated to pay, can such person be sentence

Yes he is liable because the matter borders on unlawful conversion of funds,,all the money moved in his account and his actions or inactions resulted in loss of funds.