Many of the Christians reject the Qur’an out rightly (even before having an opportunity to read what is written inside it) because they have been programmed right from childhood with the belief that Jesus (peace be upon him) was the last prophet of God sent to the entire world to die for the sins of all mankind. But how true is this claim? Have we not really been fooled with the assumption that religious faith of our parents is always right? Is it not high time for us to wake up from our slumber and then seek the truth with all diligence and open-mindedness? Was Jesus actually sent to the entire world? If Jesus (pbuh) was actually the last prophet of God sent to the entire world, then why did he have to say: I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 15:24)? Now compare this Biblical verse with this Qur’anic verse; And We have not sent you (O Muhammad-pbuh) except as a giver of glad tidings and as a Warner to all mankind, but most men do not know (Qur’an 34:28). See how Bible categorically declared that Jesus (pbuh) was sent only to the Israelites and see how Qur’an declared that Muhammad (pbuh) was sent to all mankind! There is no any indication in that Biblical verse that Jesus (pbuh) would later have anything to do with the Non- Israelites. In fact, when Jesus (pbuh) was sending out his apostles for evangelical mission, he also warned them categorically to avoid preaching to the Gentiles i:e the Non-Israelites: THESE TWELVE JESUS SENT FORTH, AND COMMANDED THEM,SAYING, GO NOT INTO THE WAY OF THE GENTILES,AND INTO ANY CITY OF THE SAMARITANS ENTER YE NOT: BUT GO RATHER TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 10:5-6). This further corroborates the fact that Jesus was sent only to the Israelites. But many of the Christian scholars proclaimed that this command of not preaching to the Gentiles was later cancelled and replaced by new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19, where Jesus was reported to have commanded the apostles to make disciples of all nations. Therefore, according to these Christian scholars, Jesus (pbuh) who was originally sent only to the Israelites later became the last prophet sent to the entire world. But should we really accept Matthew 28:19 as the actual word of Jesus (pbuh)? If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the gospel to all the nations of the world as spuriously stated in Matthew 28:19, then why did Peter have to tell some of the Gentiles (Cornelius and his households) that sent for him as follows; YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN (Acts 10:28 NIV)? This very incident occurred many years after Jesus’ departure from this world. Was Peter, who happened to be a Jewish man, not aware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations stated in Matthew 28:19? Then why did peter have to say it is unlawful for him to associate with or visit a Gentile i:e the Non-Israelite after Jesus departure? Has he forgotten such a very great and important command in Matthew 28:19? Very hard to believe! The fact that the other apostles also criticized peter and became astonished when they overheard that Peter later honored the invitation of those Gentiles ( Acts 11:1-18) prove further that Peter and other apostles were completely unaware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19; Not that they had all forgotten. How could all apostles have forgotten such a very great and important command from their master? Even when Peter was justifying his visitation to those gentiles, he only defended himself and convinced the other apostles by making reference to the vision he had before he received the message from those Gentiles (Acts 10:1-28, 11:4-18) instead of simply reminding the other apostles about the so-called new command in Matthew 28:19.
After Jesus ascension to heaven, Jesus’ apostles understood the command of not preaching to the gentiles so well that even under intense persecution, they refused to leave Jerusalem (Acts 8:1). In fact, those disciples under the authority of the Jesus’ apostles who were forced to leave Jerusalem preached the gospel message to none except the Jews (Acts 11:19) and the Hellenists (Acts 11:20).Hellenists are the Greek-speaking Jews living in Greece. King James Version of the Bible called them Grecians (Acts 11:20 KJV) and New international version called them Greeks (Acts 11:20 NIV). But International standard version of the Bible reveal their true identity by calling them Hellenistic Jews (Acts 11:20 ISV). Ellicott and John-gill’s commentaries on this very verse (Acts 11:20) also confirm that these people were most likely to be Jews. You can Google search for parallel verses of Acts 11:20 on the internet to confirm all these facts.
Moreover, if it was already in the divine plan ( i:e before Jesus came into the world) that the command of not preaching to the Gentiles in Matthew 10:5-6 would later be cancelled and replaced by the new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19, then Jesus’ statement in Matthew 15:24 should have been; “IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES” or something similar in meaning, rather than; “I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. All these facts are enough to prove that the new command of preaching to all the nations attributed to Jesus in Matthew 28:19 and other similar verses like it in other books of the New Testament are nothing but forgery.

Abdulgaffar22:
Many of the Christians reject the Qur’an out rightly (even before having an opportunity to read what is written inside it) because they have been programmed right from childhood with the belief that Jesus (peace be upon him) was the last prophet of God sent to the entire world to die for the sins of all mankind.

But how true is this claim? Have we not really been fooled with the assumption that religious faith of our parents is always right?

Is it not high time for us to wake up from our slumber and then seek the truth with all diligence and open-mindedness? Was Jesus actually sent to the entire world? If Jesus (pbuh) was actually the last prophet of God sent to the entire world, then why did he have to say: I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 15:24)? Now compare this Biblical verse with this Qur’anic verse; And We have not sent you (O Muhammad-pbuh) except as a giver of glad tidings and as a Warner to all mankind, but most men do not know (Qur’an 34:28).

See how Bible categorically declared that Jesus (pbuh) was sent only to the Israelites and see how Qur’an declared that Muhammad (pbuh) was sent to all mankind! There is no any indication in that Biblical verse that Jesus (pbuh) would later have anything to do with the Non- Israelites. In fact, when Jesus (pbuh) was sending out his apostles for evangelical mission, he also warned them categorically to avoid preaching to the Gentiles i:e the Non-Israelites: THESE TWELVE JESUS SENT FORTH, AND COMMANDED THEM,SAYING, GO NOT INTO THE WAY OF THE GENTILES,AND INTO ANY CITY OF THE SAMARITANS ENTER YE NOT: BUT GO RATHER TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 10:5-6).

. But should we really accept Matthew 28:19 as the actual word of Jesus (pbuh)? If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the gospel to all the nations of the world as spuriously stated in Matthew 28:19, then why did Peter have to tell some of the Gentiles (Cornelius and his households) that sent for him as follows; YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN (Acts 10:28 NIV)?

The fact that the other apostles also criticized peter and became astonished when they overheard that Peter later honored the invitation of those Gentiles ( Acts 11:1-18) prove further that Peter and other apostles were completely unaware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19; Not that they had all forgotten. How could all apostles have forgotten such a very great and important command from their master? Even when Peter was justifying his visitation to those gentiles, he only defended himself and convinced the other apostles by making reference to the vision he had before he received the message from those Gentiles (Acts 10:1-28, 11:4-18) instead of simply reminding the other apostles about the so-called new command in Matthew 28:19.

After Jesus ascension to heaven, Jesus’ apostles understood the command of not preaching to the gentiles so well that even under intense persecution, they refused to leave Jerusalem (Acts 8:1). In fact, those disciples under the authority of the Jesus’ apostles who were forced to leave Jerusalem preached the gospel message to none except the Jews (Acts 11:19) and the Hellenists (Acts 11:20).Hellenists are the Greek-speaking Jews living in Greece. King James Version of the Bible called them Grecians (Acts 11:20 KJV) and New international version called them Greeks (Acts 11:20 NIV). But International standard version of the Bible reveal their true identity by calling them Hellenistic Jews (Acts 11:20 ISV). Ellicott and John-gill’s commentaries on this very verse (Acts 11:20) also confirm that these people were most likely to be Jews. You can Google search for parallel verses of Acts 11:20 on the internet to confirm all these facts.
Moreover, if it was already in the divine plan ( i:e before Jesus came into the world) that the command of not preaching to the Gentiles in Matthew 10:5-6 would later be cancelled and replaced by the new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19, then Jesus’ statement in Matthew 15:24 should have been; “IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES” or something similar in meaning, rather than; “I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. All these facts are enough to prove that the new command of preaching to all the nations attributed to Jesus in Matthew 28:19 and other similar verses like it in other books of the New Testament are nothing but forgery.

Abdulgaffar22:
Many of the Christians reject the Qur’an out rightly (even before having an opportunity to read what is written inside it)

Abdulgaffar22:
Many of the Christians reject the Qur’an out rightly (even before having an opportunity to read what is written inside it) because they have been programmed right from childhood with the belief that Jesus (peace be upon him) was the last prophet of God sent to the entire world to die for the sins of all mankind. But how true is this claim? Have we not really been fooled with the assumption that religious faith of our parents is always right? Is it not high time for us to wake up from our slumber and then seek the truth with all diligence and open-mindedness? Was Jesus actually sent to the entire world? If Jesus (pbuh) was actually the last prophet of God sent to the entire world, then why did he have to say: I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 15:24)? Now compare this Biblical verse with this Qur’anic verse; And We have not sent you (O Muhammad-pbuh) except as a giver of glad tidings and as a Warner to all mankind, but most men do not know (Qur’an 34:28). See how Bible categorically declared that Jesus (pbuh) was sent only to the Israelites and see how Qur’an declared that Muhammad (pbuh) was sent to all mankind! There is no any indication in that Biblical verse that Jesus (pbuh) would later have anything to do with the Non- Israelites. In fact, when Jesus (pbuh) was sending out his apostles for evangelical mission, he also warned them categorically to avoid preaching to the Gentiles i:e the Non-Israelites: THESE TWELVE JESUS SENT FORTH, AND COMMANDED THEM,SAYING, GO NOT INTO THE WAY OF THE GENTILES,AND INTO ANY CITY OF THE SAMARITANS ENTER YE NOT: BUT GO RATHER TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 10:5-6). This further corroborates the fact that Jesus was sent only to the Israelites. But many of the Christian scholars proclaimed that this command of not preaching to the Gentiles was later cancelled and replaced by new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19, where Jesus was reported to have commanded the apostles to make disciples of all nations. Therefore, according to these Christian scholars, Jesus (pbuh) who was originally sent only to the Israelites later became the last prophet sent to the entire world. But should we really accept Matthew 28:19 as the actual word of Jesus (pbuh)? If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the gospel to all the nations of the world as spuriously stated in Matthew 28:19, then why did Peter have to tell some of the Gentiles (Cornelius and his households) that sent for him as follows; YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN (Acts 10:28 NIV)? This very incident occurred many years after Jesus’ departure from this world. Was Peter, who happened to be a Jewish man, not aware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations stated in Matthew 28:19? Then why did peter have to say it is unlawful for him to associate with or visit a Gentile i:e the Non-Israelite after Jesus departure? Has he forgotten such a very great and important command in Matthew 28:19? Very hard to believe! The fact that the other apostles also criticized peter and became astonished when they overheard that Peter later honored the invitation of those Gentiles ( Acts 11:1-18) prove further that Peter and other apostles were completely unaware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19; Not that they had all forgotten. How could all apostles have forgotten such a very great and important command from their master? Even when Peter was justifying his visitation to those gentiles, he only defended himself and convinced the other apostles by making reference to the vision he had before he received the message from those Gentiles (Acts 10:1-28, 11:4-18) instead of simply reminding the other apostles about the so-called new command in Matthew 28:19.
After Jesus ascension to heaven, Jesus’ apostles understood the command of not preaching to the gentiles so well that even under intense persecution, they refused to leave Jerusalem (Acts 8:1). In fact, those disciples under the authority of the Jesus’ apostles who were forced to leave Jerusalem preached the gospel message to none except the Jews (Acts 11:19) and the Hellenists (Acts 11:20).Hellenists are the Greek-speaking Jews living in Greece. King James Version of the Bible called them Grecians (Acts 11:20 KJV) and New international version called them Greeks (Acts 11:20 NIV). But International standard version of the Bible reveal their true identity by calling them Hellenistic Jews (Acts 11:20 ISV). Ellicott and John-gill’s commentaries on this very verse (Acts 11:20) also confirm that these people were most likely to be Jews. You can Google search for parallel verses of Acts 11:20 on the internet to confirm all these facts.
Moreover, if it was already in the divine plan ( i:e before Jesus came into the world) that the command of not preaching to the Gentiles in Matthew 10:5-6 would later be cancelled and replaced by the new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19, then Jesus’ statement in Matthew 15:24 should have been; “IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES” or something similar in meaning, rather than; “I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. All these facts are enough to prove that the new command of preaching to all the nations attributed to Jesus in Matthew 28:19 and other similar verses like it in other books of the New Testament are nothing but forgery.
Many of the Christians reject the Qur’an out rightly (even before having an opportunity to read what is written inside it) because they have been programmed right from childhood with the belief that Jesus (peace be upon him) was the last prophet of God sent to the entire world to die for the sins of all mankind. But how true is this claim? Have we not really been fooled with the assumption that religious faith of our parents is always right? Is it not high time for us to wake up from our slumber and then seek the truth with all diligence and open-mindedness? Was Jesus actually sent to the entire world? If Jesus (pbuh) was actually the last prophet of God sent to the entire world, then why did he have to say: I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 15:24)? Now compare this Biblical verse with this Qur’anic verse; And We have not sent you (O Muhammad-pbuh) except as a giver of glad tidings and as a Warner to all mankind, but most men do not know (Qur’an 34:28). See how Bible categorically declared that Jesus (pbuh) was sent only to the Israelites and see how Qur’an declared that Muhammad (pbuh) was sent to all mankind! There is no any indication in that Biblical verse that Jesus (pbuh) would later have anything to do with the Non- Israelites. In fact, when Jesus (pbuh) was sending out his apostles for evangelical mission, he also warned them categorically to avoid preaching to the Gentiles i:e the Non-Israelites: THESE TWELVE JESUS SENT FORTH, AND COMMANDED THEM,SAYING, GO NOT INTO THE WAY OF THE GENTILES,AND INTO ANY CITY OF THE SAMARITANS ENTER YE NOT: BUT GO RATHER TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 10:5-6). This further corroborates the fact that Jesus was sent only to the Israelites. But many of the Christian scholars proclaimed that this command of not preaching to the Gentiles was later cancelled and replaced by new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19, where Jesus was reported to have commanded the apostles to make disciples of all nations. Therefore, according to these Christian scholars, Jesus (pbuh) who was originally sent only to the Israelites later became the last prophet sent to the entire world. But should we really accept Matthew 28:19 as the actual word of Jesus (pbuh)? If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the gospel to all the nations of the world as spuriously stated in Matthew 28:19, then why did Peter have to tell some of the Gentiles (Cornelius and his households) that sent for him as follows; YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN (Acts 10:28 NIV)? This very incident occurred many years after Jesus’ departure from this world. Was Peter, who happened to be a Jewish man, not aware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations stated in Matthew 28:19? Then why did peter have to say it is unlawful for him to associate with or visit a Gentile i:e the Non-Israelite after Jesus departure? Has he forgotten such a very great and important command in Matthew 28:19? Very hard to believe! The fact that the other apostles also criticized peter and became astonished when they overheard that Peter later honored the invitation of those Gentiles ( Acts 11:1-18) prove further that Peter and other apostles were completely unaware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19; Not that they had all forgotten. How could all apostles have forgotten such a very great and important command from their master? Even when Peter was justifying his visitation to those gentiles, he only defended himself and convinced the other apostles by making reference to the vision he had before he received the message from those Gentiles (Acts 10:1-28, 11:4-18) instead of simply reminding the other apostles about the so-called new command in Matthew 28:19.
After Jesus ascension to heaven, Jesus’ apostles understood the command of not preaching to the gentiles so well that even under intense persecution, they refused to leave Jerusalem (Acts 8:1). In fact, those disciples under the authority of the Jesus’ apostles who were forced to leave Jerusalem preached the gospel message to none except the Jews (Acts 11:19) and the Hellenists (Acts 11:20).Hellenists are the Greek-speaking Jews living in Greece. King James Version of the Bible called them Grecians (Acts 11:20 KJV) and New international version called them Greeks (Acts 11:20 NIV). But International standard version of the Bible reveal their true identity by calling them Hellenistic Jews (Acts 11:20 ISV). Ellicott and John-gill’s commentaries on this very verse (Acts 11:20) also confirm that these people were most likely to be Jews. You can Google search for parallel verses of Acts 11:20 on the internet to confirm all these facts.
Moreover, if it was already in the divine plan ( i:e before Jesus came into the world) that the command of not preaching to the Gentiles in Matthew 10:5-6 would later be cancelled and replaced by the new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19, then Jesus’ statement in Matthew 15:24 should have been; “IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES” or something similar in meaning, rather than; “I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. All these facts are enough to prove that the new command of preaching to all the nations attributed to Jesus in Matthew 28:19 and other similar verses like it in other books of the New Testament are nothing but forgery.