Empiree:



@bold suggests that islam was right all along when it says:

"And indeed, there is among them a party who alter the Scripture with their tongues so you may think it is from the Scripture, but it is not from the Scripture. And they say, "This is from Allah ," but it is not from Allah . And they speak untruth about Allah while they know." Qur'an 3:78

So when muslims say Bible is corrupted they say the truth. You exposed Christianity here big time. Book of God should be one. That's. There should be no addition or omission. That book (Bible) is hell of culprit. And we have a lady here pointing finger and accusing islam.

The Hadith (sayings and actions of Prophet Muhammad in Islam) as well point out to Biblical Corruption. Consider these hadith:

Narrated Abu Huraira: The people of the Scripture (Jews) used to recite the Torah in Hebrew and they used to explain it in Arabic to the Muslims. On that Allah's Apostle said, "Do not believe the people of the Scripture or disbelieve them, but say:-- "We believe in Allah and what is revealed to us." (2.136) (Bukhari Volume 6, Book 60, Number 12)

Rilwayne001, tola9ja, true2god...see how they exposed themselves.

Oga, no addition by tongue and words, the unscriptural additions in the translations are being, and have been removed. At least there was no abrogation of false truth.
U have numerous questions u guys have not answered and u are jumping to this one

Orunto:
Never read their Bible. Always read King James' Version. It is on KJV's version that Christianity is founded.

Wrong! A lot of Bible's existed before KJV was published. KJV was not the very first ENGLISH bible translation I think.

KJV is full of inconsistencies:

1) They remove God's Name YHWH from the Bible.

2) The substituted the word "Tree" with "Cross" in the bible to support their traditional beliefs.

3) They added words to 1 John 5:7, which they later removed now in newer translations.

4) They made wrongful translations - eg "the Kingdom of God suffereth violence and violence taketh it by force"

author=dolphinheart

Oga, no addition by tongue and words, the unscriptural additions in the translations are being, and have been removed.

But because of their breach of their covenant, We cursed them, and made their hearts grow hard; they change the words from their (right) places and forget a good part of the message that was sent them, nor wilt thou cease to find them- barring a few - ever bent on (new) deceits: but forgive them, and overlook (their misdeeds): for Allah loveth those who are kind. From those, too, who call themselves Christians, We did take a covenant, but they forgot a good part of the message that was sent them: so we estranged them, with enmity and hatred between the one and the other, to the day of judgment. And soon will Allah show them what it is they have done.
(Quran 5:13-14)

There enough evidence displayed already that your book is corrupted. It's not just translation. They practically removed original words and replaced them. Remove the mole from your eyes to see what we see

At least there was no abrogation of false truth.

No abrogation?. You kidding right?.

When one studies the Hebrew and Greek scriptures, it becomes clear that omnipotent and omniscient God did make mistakes and repented. This means that the God did not know his own actions and the outcomes of the actions. According to Bible... Now for some fine examples.

Now start with Old Testament. In the story of Noah(P), it is mention that:

And the LORD smelled a sweet savour; and the LORD said in his heart, I will not again curse the ground anymore for man's sake; for the imagination of man's heart is evil from his youth; neither will I again smite any more everything living, as I have done [Genesis 8:21]

And in the story of Moses(P), we read

And the LORD repented of the evil which he
thought to do unto his people [Exodus 32:14]

Oh no! that is Old Testament, cries the Christian. The New Testament has replaced all that. Yes, in the New Testament, the monotheistic and henotheistic God of Israel, Yahweh, suddenly starts to be interpreted as Trinity. So, the concept of monotheistic and henotheistic God itself got abrogated in the New Testament as the Christians allege! So we have to assume that the monotheistic and henotheistic God of Israel did not know that he was Trinity and made a serious mistake or he simply changed his mind or in the worst case scenario, he cheated the People of Israel.

Definition of abrogation: ab-ro-gate: v.tr. repeal, annul, abolish (a law or custom)

[b]In the context of the will and law of God (Holy is He above all that is attributed to Him) as expressed in Scripture, it refers to the nullification of an older Law or concept in favour of a newer and more appropriate one.

We might ask whether an omniscient God, if He is the one who sent Torah and Injeel, might employ such a concept as abrogation? Surely an all-knowing God would be able to impart His will in entirety without recourse to change? Doesn't the idea of abrogating, or nullifying, a previous law in light of a better one suggest that the Author is not all-knowing?

What these questions don't take into account, is that whilst God is all-knowing, unchanging (e.g., Malachi 3:6, with lots of problems with the concept of Trinity), His audience, humanity, is not. The very concept that Christianity holds so dear, of the difference between the old covenantal relationship of law, as opposed to the new covenantal relationship of grace relies on the understanding that human beings as individuals and in human societies are in fact subjected to change in condition.[/b]

According to Matthew, Jesus(P) said:

" Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished. Anyone who breaks one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in the kingdom of heaven " [Matthew 5:17-19]

And surprising, Jesus(P), the omniscient Yahweh incarnate (allegedly!) suddenly had to change the,

* Laws of Divorce
* Justice
* Oaths
* Changing his own mind

Abrogation Of Divorce

In the Old Testament we find the following law concerning divorce:

" If a man marries a woman who becomes displeasing to him because he finds something indecent about her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce, gives it to her and sends her from his house, and if after she leaves his house she becomes the wife of another man " [Deutronomy 24:1-2]

Now without going into the minute of this particular law of divorce, one thing becomes immediately clear. Not only is divorce permitted by God, it is legal for her to remarry.

However in the time of Jesus(P), the rules of divorce seem to have taken a U-turn.

"It has been said, Anyone who divorces his wife must give her a certificate of divorce. But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, causes her to become an adulteress, and anyone who marries the divorced woman commits adultery" [Matthew 5:31-32]

Here Jesus(P) abrogated the former permission to divorce according to the husband's displeasure and strictly allowed it under one condition - adultery. He even went so far as to legislate that divorcees were not permitted to remarry, clearly abrogating the former permission. But what is the reason given for this abrogation? Had God changed His mind? Is this evidence of God not being omniscient? Or more importantly, is this evidence that in fact God was never the author of these laws? Well Jesus(P) himself explains:

"Why then," they asked, "did Moses command that a man give his wife a certificate of divorce and send her away?" Jesus replied, "Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning. I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery " [Matthew 19:7-9]
Anyway, Jesus(P) points to the fact that God designs laws that are suitable to the needs and exigencies of the time and audience.

Haba! adultery for marrying divorced woman?. Let me give you another one.

I got more and i can go on and on like Law of Oaths, Law of Absolute Justice etc

U have numerous questions u guys have not answered and u are jumping to this one

kindly. I am not aware of them. However when you people asked and we answered you said we lied. In that case, answers seized. Rilwayne provided nice details up there and tola as well.

Rilwayne001:


Deuteronomy 31:25-29 [b] "And it came to pass, when Moses had made an end of writing the words of this law in a book, until they were finished, That Moses commanded the Levites (Jews), which bare the ark of the covenant of the LORD, saying, Take this book of the law, and put it in the side of the ark of the covenant of the LORD your God, that it may be there for a witness against thee. For I know thy rebellion, and thy stiff neck: behold, while I am yet alive with you this day, ye have been rebellious against the LORD; and how much more after my death? Gather unto me all the elders of your tribes, and your officers, that I may speak these words in their ears, and call heaven and earth to record against them. [size=15pt] For I know that after my death ye will become utterly corrupt, [/size] and turn aside from the way which I have commanded you; and evil will befall you in the latter days;because ye will do evil in the sight of the LORD, to provoke him to anger through the work of your hands. [/b]

1) The red part is not written by moses

2) The green part are the words of moses

3) The italize - We are told that moses has already written the book and ask them to put it at the side of the ark

4) @Underline moses is aware of how rebelion and stiffnecked they are during when he was alive and ask how much more will they be after his death.

5) He is aware that after is death they will become utterly corrupt to the extent that they will twist the book that was why he told them to put the book at the side of the ark and call heaven and earth to bear him witness.


NOW DID THEY TWIST THE BOOK OR NOT? DID THEY ADD THEIR OWN WORD OR NOT? WERE THEY CORRUPT OR NOT? THE RED PART and the entirety of the book call bible says it all.

This is detailed man but they won't listen. Love the underlines. I always get "underline" wrong anytime i try to highlight. How do you underline?

Empiree:

This is detailed man but they won't listen. Love the underlines. I always get "underline" wrong anytime i try to highlight. How do you underline?

insert whatever you want to underline in between.

Rilwayne001:


insert whatever you want to underline in between.

u see ma bro, no matter how hard ya try, ya can't say anytin contradicting in d Bible. D greatest comandment ma Jesus gave mi, is "love ya neighbor as yaself". If ya luv if ya luv ya neighbor as yaself, ya won't rape a 9 years old child just as ya prophet a pig did. So stop wasting ya time and address d issue caused by dat idiot called muhammed

OREMUSSANCTUS:
u see ma bro, no matter how hard ya try, ya can't say anytin contradicting in d Bible. D greatest comandment ma Jesus gave mi,

is "love ya neighbor as yaself

". If ya luv if ya luv ya neighbor as yaself, ya won't rape a 9 years old child just as ya prophet a pig did. So stop wasting ya time and address d issue caused by dat idiot called muhammed

Deuteronomy 14:21King James Version (KJV)

21 Ye shall not eat of anything that dieth of itself: [size=18pt]thou shalt give it unto the stranger that is in thy gates, that he may eat it[/size]; or thou mayest sell it unto an alien: for thou art an holy people unto the Lord thy God. Thou shalt not seethe a kid in his mother's milk.

Thighing of children
Mohammed married Ayesha when she was six, but as she was too small to consumate, he practised the sacred rite of Mufa' Khathat (otherwise known as 'thighing') whereby he rubbed himself between the tops of her thighs, but did not enter, until she was nine.

When he climaxed at the end of his thighing sessions, he came all over his clothes, so he gave little Ayesha the job of washing them

don't forget you still a special estate build for you inside HELL for this fabrication

tola9ja:




Deuteronomy 14:21King James Version (KJV)

21 Ye shall not eat of anything that dieth of itself: [size=18pt]thou shalt give it unto the stranger that is in thy gates, that he may eat it[/size]; or thou mayest sell it unto an alien: for thou art an holy people unto the Lord thy God. Thou shalt not seethe a kid in his mother's milk.



don't forget you still a special estate build for you inside HELL for this fabrication

for crying out loud, I didn't lie, check well, muhammed married ayesha wen she was 6 yrs old, and was not able to penetrate her cos he feels she is too young. He instead thighed her, kinda using it to remove or discharge. D verses I quoted is dere from an islamic site. So how come ya accusing me of lying. And den wen she became 9 years old he bursted d speakers , like dat of Zeezahbee and YourMain. Forget muhammed is a baddest guy

Emperor4God:


The King James Bible is the word of God.
All these new versions are all work of the Illumnati.



Any bible in English that is not KJV is bad.

Read

http://www.av1611.org/tracts.html#BibleVersions




Revised Standard Version is very dubious too.
It has so many missing verses.

See http://www.av1611.org/biblevs.html

How old is the King James Bible. Is it older than the Latin Vulgate? Hint: the Latin Vulgate is 1200 years older than the KJV. So how does the KJV become the true word of God?

Papist:

How old is the King James Bible. Is it older than the Latin Vulgate? Hint: the Latin Vulgate is 1200 years older than the KJV. So how does the KJV become the true word of God?

Wahala dey ooo. You guys got many versions and still telling us you are on the right path? hell no.

As for your question you owe that to yourself.

Empiree:

Wahala dey ooo. You guys got many versions and still telling us you are on the right path? hell no.

As for your question you owe that to yourself.

muhammed raped a 9 years old grl, can ya pls explain dat?

OREMUSSANCTUS:
muhammed raped a 9 years old grl, can ya pls explain dat?

the only thing that can stop you to get to ur final destination{estate in hell } is death

Empiree:



@bold suggests that islam was right all along when it says:

"And indeed, there is among them a party who alter the Scripture with their tongues so you may think it is from the Scripture, but it is not from the Scripture. And they say, "This is from Allah ," but it is not from Allah . And they speak untruth about Allah while they know." Qur'an 3:78

So when muslims say Bible is corrupted they say the truth. You exposed Christianity here big time. Book of God should be one. That's. There should be no addition or omission. That book (Bible) is hell of culprit. And we have a lady here pointing finger and accusing islam.

The Hadith (sayings and actions of Prophet Muhammad in Islam) as well point out to Biblical Corruption. Consider these hadith:

Narrated Abu Huraira: The people of the Scripture (Jews) used to recite the Torah in Hebrew and they used to explain it in Arabic to the Muslims. On that Allah's Apostle said, "Do not believe the people of the Scripture or disbelieve them, but say:-- "We believe in Allah and what is revealed to us." (2.136) (Bukhari Volume 6, Book 60, Number 12)

Rilwayne001, tola9ja, true2god...see how they exposed themselves.

[Quran 10:94] - And if thou (Muhammad)
art in doubt concerning that which We
reveal unto thee, then question those
who read the Scripture (that was)
before thee. Verily the Truth from thy
Lord hath come unto thee. So be not
thou of the waverers.

Please answer these questions. If
properly answered, you will discover that
quran is not only inconsistent but a book
of confusion.
1. At what point did the people throw
away the Torah and Injeel, was it before
islam, during Muhammad's time of after
him?
2. If it was before islam, why would Allah
refer Muhammad to something that is
non-existent to make confirmation?
3. If it was after Muhamad had died, how
was he able to receive the revelation that
the Scripture (Torah and Injeel) had been
thrown away?
4. The quran confirms that the Scripture
was a clear proof in writings. This means
there were copies in circulation. How
possible all copies vanished without
anyone having a copy anywhere? You
should by now discover a lie is told.
5. Why would God be so weak as to allow
man throw away His words before He
would vow to protect the subsequent
revelations? Did He learn from
experience?

OREMUSSANCTUS:
for crying out loud, I didn't lie, check well, muhammed married ayesha wen she was 6 yrs old, and was not able to penetrate her cos he feels she is too young. He instead thighed her, kinda using it to remove or discharge. D verses I quoted is dere from an islamic site. So how come ya accusing me of lying. And den wen she became 9 years old he bursted d speakers , like dat of Zeezahbee and YourMain. Forget muhammed is a baddest guy

which islamic site state that you are going to hell?


Proverbs 26:5New International Version (NIV)

5 Answer a fool according to his folly,
or he will be wise in his own eyes.

Empiree:
author=dolphinheart



But because of their breach of their covenant, We cursed them, and made their hearts grow hard; they change the words from their (right) places and forget a good part of the message that was sent them, nor wilt thou cease to find them- barring a few - ever bent on (new) deceits: but forgive them, and overlook (their misdeeds): for Allah loveth those who are kind. From those, too, who call themselves Christians, We did take a covenant, but they forgot a good part of the message that was sent them: so we estranged them, with enmity and hatred between the one and the other, to the day of judgment. And soon will Allah show them what it is they have done.
(Quran 5:13-14)

There enough evidence displayed already that your book is corrupted. It's not just translation. They practically removed original words and replaced them. Remove the mole from your eyes to see what we see

No abrogation?. You kidding right?.

When one studies the Hebrew and Greek scriptures, it becomes clear that omnipotent and omniscient God did make mistakes and repented. This means that the God did not know his own actions and the outcomes of the actions. According to Bible... Now for some fine examples.

Now start with Old Testament. In the story of Noah(P), it is mention that:

And the LORD smelled a sweet savour; and the LORD said in his heart, I will not again curse the ground anymore for man's sake; for the imagination of man's heart is evil from his youth; neither will I again smite any more everything living, as I have done [Genesis 8:21]

And in the story of Moses(P), we read

And the LORD repented of the evil which he
thought to do unto his people [Exodus 32:14]

Oh no! that is Old Testament, cries the Christian. The New Testament has replaced all that. Yes, in the New Testament, the monotheistic and henotheistic God of Israel, Yahweh, suddenly starts to be interpreted as Trinity. So, the concept of monotheistic and henotheistic God itself got abrogated in the New Testament as the Christians allege! So we have to assume that the monotheistic and henotheistic God of Israel did not know that he was Trinity and made a serious mistake or he simply changed his mind or in the worst case scenario, he cheated the People of Israel.

Definition of abrogation: ab-ro-gate: v.tr. repeal, annul, abolish (a law or custom)

[b]In the context of the will and law of God (Holy is He above all that is attributed to Him) as expressed in Scripture, it refers to the nullification of an older Law or concept in favour of a newer and more appropriate one.

We might ask whether an omniscient God, if He is the one who sent Torah and Injeel, might employ such a concept as abrogation? Surely an all-knowing God would be able to impart His will in entirety without recourse to change? Doesn't the idea of abrogating, or nullifying, a previous law in light of a better one suggest that the Author is not all-knowing?

What these questions don't take into account, is that whilst God is all-knowing, unchanging (e.g., Malachi 3:6, with lots of problems with the concept of Trinity), His audience, humanity, is not. The very concept that Christianity holds so dear, of the difference between the old covenantal relationship of law, as opposed to the new covenantal relationship of grace relies on the understanding that human beings as individuals and in human societies are in fact subjected to change in condition.[/b]

According to Matthew, Jesus(P) said:

" Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished. Anyone who breaks one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in the kingdom of heaven " [Matthew 5:17-19]

And surprising, Jesus(P), the omniscient Yahweh incarnate (allegedly!) suddenly had to change the,

* Laws of Divorce
* Justice
* Oaths
* Changing his own mind

Abrogation Of Divorce

In the Old Testament we find the following law concerning divorce:

" If a man marries a woman who becomes displeasing to him because he finds something indecent about her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce, gives it to her and sends her from his house, and if after she leaves his house she becomes the wife of another man " [Deutronomy 24:1-2]

Now without going into the minute of this particular law of divorce, one thing becomes immediately clear. Not only is divorce permitted by God, it is legal for her to remarry.

However in the time of Jesus(P), the rules of divorce seem to have taken a U-turn.

"It has been said, Anyone who divorces his wife must give her a certificate of divorce. But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, causes her to become an adulteress, and anyone who marries the divorced woman commits adultery" [Matthew 5:31-32]

Here Jesus(P) abrogated the former permission to divorce according to the husband's displeasure and strictly allowed it under one condition - adultery. He even went so far as to legislate that divorcees were not permitted to remarry, clearly abrogating the former permission. But what is the reason given for this abrogation? Had God changed His mind? Is this evidence of God not being omniscient? Or more importantly, is this evidence that in fact God was never the author of these laws? Well Jesus(P) himself explains:

"Why then," they asked, "did Moses command that a man give his wife a certificate of divorce and send her away?" Jesus replied, "Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning. I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery " [Matthew 19:7-9]
Anyway, Jesus(P) points to the fact that God designs laws that are suitable to the needs and exigencies of the time and audience.

Haba! adultery for marrying divorced woman?. Let me give you another one.

I got more and i can go on and on like Law of Oaths, Law of Absolute Justice etc


kindly. I am not aware of them. However when you people asked and we answered you said we lied. In that case, answers seized. Rilwayne provided nice details up there and tola as well.

is this what you called abrogation? God repented of evil ,what sin God commit? Your knowledge of the word of God is soo weak.

Surah 16:101: “And when We put a
revelation in place of (another)
revelation, – and Allah knoweth best
what He revealeth – they say: Lo!
thou art but inventing. Most of them
know not.” (Pickthall)

Here, Allah abrogate his REVELATION, what happened to the other revelation?
Read here and know the truth about the quran https://www.nairaland.com/1835490/say-quran-word-god

@ empiree

Empiree:
author=dolphinheart



But because of their breach of their covenant, We cursed them, and made their hearts grow hard; they change the words from their (right) places and forget au good part of the message that was sent them, nor wilt thou cease to find them- barring a few - ever bent on (new) deceits: but forgive them, and overlook (their misdeeds): for Allah loveth those who are kind. From those, too, who call themselves Christians, We did take a covenant, but they forgot a good part of the message that was sent them: so we estranged them, with enmity and hatred between the one and the other, to the day of judgment. And soon will Allah show them what it is they have done.
(Quran 5:13-14)

There enough evidence displayed already that your book is corrupted. It's not just translation. They practically removed original words and replaced them. Remove the mole from your eyes to see what we see

No abrogation?. You kidding right?.

When one studies the Hebrew and Greek scriptures, it becomes clear that omnipotent and omniscient God did make mistakes and repented. This means that the God did not know his own actions and the outcomes of the actions. According to Bible... Now for some fine examples.

Now start with Old Testament. In the story of Noah(P), it is mention that:

And the LORD smelled a sweet savour; and the LORD said in his heart, I will not again curse the ground anymore for man's sake; for the imagination of man's heart is evil from his youth; neither will I again smite any more everything living, as I have done [Genesis 8:21]

And in the story of Moses(P), we read

And the LORD repented of the evil which he
thought to do unto his people [Exodus 32:14].

My reply will be final, straight to point , why? Cus I'm afraid of muslims , more importantly, I can't study the koran as a muslim , cus if i do and I find something wrong with it, I can't leave cus their law States that I should be killed if Ieave the religion and talk. So on ur Islamic quotes, ill rather yet asking questions and not even wait for the answer.

You quoted Quran 5:13-14
Now Is verse 13 talking about christians ? (take note of who had the covenant in verse 12.

Now verse 13 states .
They broke the covenant......(they did not abide by the rules giving to them).....They change words from their context .(they had a different understanding of the words recorded, take note of the word context, one of ur translations used "original meaning)
Therefore what that verse is telling me is that they recorded the correct words, but mis-understood its meaning. Not that they changed the words in the written manuscripts .

In verse 14:
what is the covenant that the christians made and what have they forgoten ?
Is "love ur neigbour as urself part of that covenant
Did verse 14 accuse christians of changing the wordings of the scripture giving to them, if yes, show us?
Are these verses you quoted not abrograted by chapter 9:5 , 9:29. So why make reference to it when you are not supposed to follow it.(annuled)?

Like I said, all of satans attempt to change those wordings have been twarted and exposed.





Now u attributed Gen 18:21 and ex 32:14 to God making mistakes and repenting .
If you where a bible student, you would have understood better. Now let me explain to you.

Let's start with Gen 18:21 ;
New International Version
The LORD smelled the pleasing aroma and said in his heart: "Never again will I curse the ground because of humans, even though every inclination of the human heart is evil from childhood. And never again will I destroy all living creatures, as I have done.

New Living Translation
And the LORD was pleased with the aroma of the sacrifice and said to himself, "I will never again curse the ground because of the human race, even though everything they think or imagine is bent toward evil from childhood. I will never again destroy all living things.

King James 2000 Bible
And the LORD smelled a sweet odor; and the LORD said in his heart, I will not again curse the ground any more for man's sake; for the imagination of man's heart is evil from his youth; neither will I again smite any more everything living, as I have done.


After the flood subsided , God told “Go out of the ark,” he told Noah, “you and your wife and your sons and your sons’ wives with you.” Obediently, the family led the way, and all the animals followed. How? In a chaotic stampede? Not at all! The record states that “according to their families they went out of the ark.” (Genesis 8:15-19) Once outdoors, breathing in the fresh mountain air and looking out over the highlands of Ararat, Noah and his family saw before them a cleansed earth. Gone were the Nephilim, the violence, the rebellious angels, and that entire wicked society! Mankind had a chance to make a fresh start.
Noah knew what to do. He started with worship. He built an altar and used some of the animals that God viewed as clean— which they had brought aboard in “sevens”— and offered up a burnt sacrifice to God.( Genesis 7:2; 8:20)
Did that worship please God? The Bible answers in these reassuring words: “ God began to smell a restful odor.” The pain that had filled God’s heart when mankind was filling the world with violence was replaced by the restful, pleasant sensation of seeing a family of faithful worshippers on earth who were determined to carry out his will.(remember the issue of Satan and his questioning Gods sovereignty and how his action let to mans imperfection hence making mans thought not to be in line with Gods directives) . God did not expect them to be perfect. The same verse continues: “The inclination of the heart of man is bad from his youth up.” the verse helps us to understand how God further expressed his patient compassion for humankind. God lifted the curse on the
ground. Back in the days of the rebellion of Adam and Eve, God had pronounced that curse, making cultivation unusually difficult. Noah’s
father, Lamech, had named his son Noah— probably meaning “Rest,” or “Consolation”—
and had foretold that his son would lead mankind to a time of rest from that curse.
Noah must have beamed when he learned that he would now see that prophecy fulfilled and that the earth would respond more readily to efforts to cultivate it. Little wonder that Noah soon took up farming!—Genesis 3:17, 18; 5:28, 29; 9:20.

So in Gen 18:21, God did not regret or make mistake on his actions.


Now to ex 32:14.
Moses went up Mount Horeb several times, remaining on two occasions for periods of 40 days and nights. On this first occasion Moses showed himself to be fittingly qualified as mediator between God and Israel and leader of this great nation of perhaps three million or more. When Moses was in the mountain, Jehovah informed him that the people had turned to idolatry and Jehovah said: “Now let me be, that my anger may(not will, to signify certainty) blaze against them and I may(again ,not will to signify certainty) exterminate them, and let me make you into a great nation.” Moses’ immediate reply revealed that the sanctification of Gods name was the thing of primary importance to him— that he was completely unselfish and did not desire fame for himself(unlike some so called prophets I know). He asked nothing for himself but, rather, showed concern for Gods name that He had recently exalted by the Red Sea miracle, and regard for God’s promise to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. Jehovah, in approval of Moses’ plea, spared the people. Here it is seen that Jehovah regarded Moses as satisfactorily filling his mediatorial role and that He respected the arrangement through which he had appointed Moses to that office.
Thus, God “began to feel regret over the evil that he had spoken of doing to his people”— that is, because of altered circumstances, he changed his attitude regarding bringing evil upon them.— Ex 32:7-14.(pls read up on what eventually happened ).

The context of events was colmunated by other translations of that verse as ;

"Then the LORD relented and did not bring on his people the disaster he had threatened.

"So the LORD changed his mind about the terrible disaster he had threatened to
bring on his people."

"So the LORD reconsidered his threat to destroy his people.

In conclusion of these part,pls answer the following questions ;
are those verses real?
Are they part of the words allah gave to the isrealites or was it added by humans later.?
if you still feel that the God moses served abrogated those verses like the kora abrogated itself (cus u have not denied abrogation in the koran ) then allah (which you believe is the God of moses)makes mistakes and repent(which I bet u wunt agree to) , cus allah gave them those words . Unless u state that allah is not God of moses that wrote those words u quoted or those words where fake(added later),then you should not use those scriptures in claiming abrogation (cus it will affect ur understanding of the koran ) .

@ empiree

Empiree:
author=dolphinheart

Oh no! that is Old Testament, cries the Christian. The New Testament has replaced all that. Yes, in the New Testament, the monotheistic and henotheistic God of Israel, Yahweh, suddenly starts to be interpreted as Trinity. So, the concept of monotheistic and henotheistic God itself got abrogated in the New Testament as the Christians allege! So we have to assume that the monotheistic and henotheistic God of Israel did not know that he was Trinity and made a serious mistake or he simply changed his mind or in the worst case scenario, he cheated the People of Israel.
.

Now on the new testament you made mention of . I liked the words you used . You used the words" suddenly starts to be interpreted as" .this means words where not changed, adjusted , added to or removed from , but like the Jews , mis - understood the words written in the scriptures . Mis understanding or mis application does not mean change in the original words of god. Or dnt you claim that the terrorist quoting from the koran misunderstand the meaning of the words stated there? Or are you saying from your own understanding of the bible that those who believe in ur so called interpretation are true?

If you believe by ur understanding of the scriptures that these your christians allegations(interpretation/understanding are true, tell us why you believe they are true, then we know if the truth about God is abrogated or not. If you dnt believe that the understanding of the scriptures by these christians are true(that it is false), then why are you stating that the bible abrogated itself?

malvisguy212:
i

Surah 16:101: say-quran-word-god

Sorry pal, theory of abrogation was explained to you already. I did. You chose to not accept it. So there is nothing to discuss with you on this. Maybe this video may help you again.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=a500voEH92g

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=eQHuzRc2lwk

@ empiree

Empiree:
author=dolphinheart

Definition of abrogation: ab-ro-gate: v.tr. repeal, annul, abolish (a law or custom)

[b]In the context of the will and law of God (Holy is He above all that is attributed to Him) as expressed in Scripture, it refers to the nullification of an older Law or concept in favour of a newer and more appropriate one.

We might ask whether an omniscient God, if He is the one who sent Torah and Injeel, might employ such a concept as abrogation? Surely an all-knowing God would be able to impart His will in entirety without recourse to change? Doesn't the idea of abrogating, or nullifying, a previous law in light of a better one suggest that the Author is not all-knowing?

What these questions don't take into account, is that whilst God is all-knowing, unchanging (e.g., Malachi 3:6, with lots of problems with the concept of Trinity), His audience, humanity, is not. The very concept that Christianity holds so dear, of the difference between the old covenantal relationship of law, as opposed to the new covenantal relationship of grace relies on the understanding that human beings as individuals and in human societies are in fact subjected to change in condition.[/b]
.

Definition of abrogation: ab-ro-gate: v.tr. repeal, annul, abolish (a law or custom)

Definition of abrogation in islam:

http://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Naskh_(tafsir)

Does the two correspond?
Does islam totally follow the first definition of abrogation (which you posted)



You are right, societal norms,customs, laws and views do change and adjust with time.

But it does not totally change in a period of 30 to 40 years that requires an expansive change of the laws. this is done for the koran and not for the scriptures.

The laws does not require certain situations to happen to the writer before the laws are being made or abrogated . That is what the koran is being accused of and the bible is not .

The laws giving in the OT where not changed by the same man, unlike the koran .

Unlike the koran , the law God gave the isrealites was not changed for thousands of years.

The koran changed directive within the same body of laws. Jesus brought a new covenant with new directive , directive that does not put the older laws as false or wrong.

malvisguy212:
[Quran 10:94] - And if thou (Muhammad)
art in doubt concerning that which We
reveal unto thee, then question those
who read the Scripture (that was)
before thee. Verily the Truth from thy
Lord hath come unto thee. So be not
thou of the waverers.

Honestly, i dont have time for you guys. I see you people as arrogant as you can be. I have made up my mind to ignore you and few others cus, your writings are neither friendly nor professional but attacks and blasphemies. I know you 've been throwing questions all around seeking answers but people ignore you because when they answer you and others call them liars, taqqiya as you fondly call it. If i want i will answer with precedent and i wont care whether you are satisfied with it or not.

By way, if you believe that verse of Quran is true, why dont you then accept Quran as the word of God? Why are you yourself acting like a double standard hypocrite to quote a verse from Quran and yet deny Quran as a LIE? If you really think that Quran 10:94 is true, why then you dont reject the religion of falsehood and corruptions called Christianity with that for Islam?

Empiree poset=30600857:
author=dolphinheart

According to Matthew, Jesus(P) said:

" Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished. Anyone who breaks one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in the kingdom of heaven " [Matthew 5:17-19]

And surprising, Jesus(P), the omniscient Yahweh incarnate (allegedly!) suddenly had to change the,

* Laws of Divorce
* Justice
* Oaths
* Changing his own mind

Abrogation Of Divorce

In the Old Testament we find the following law concerning divorce:

" If a man marries a woman who becomes displeasing to him because he finds something indecent about her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce, gives it to her and sends her from his house, and if after she leaves his house she becomes the wife of another man " [Deutronomy 24:1-2]

Now without going into the minute of this particular law of divorce, one thing becomes immediately clear. Not only is divorce permitted by God, it is legal for her to remarry.

However in the time of Jesus(P), the rules of divorce seem to have taken a U-turn.

"It has been said, Anyone who divorces his wife must give her a certificate of divorce. But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, causes her to become an adulteress, and anyone who marries the divorced woman commits adultery" [Matthew 5:31-32]

Here Jesus(P) abrogated the former permission to divorce according to the husband's displeasure and strictly allowed it under one condition - adultery. He even went so far as to legislate that divorcees were not permitted to remarry, clearly abrogating the former permission. But what is the reason given for this abrogation? Had God changed His mind? Is this evidence of God not being omniscient? Or more importantly, is this evidence that in fact God was never the author of these laws? Well Jesus(P) himself explains:

"Why then," they asked, "did Moses command that a man give his wife a certificate of divorce and send her away?" Jesus replied, "Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning. I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery " [Matthew 19:7-9]
Anyway, Jesus(P) points to the fact that God designs laws that are suitable to the needs and exigencies of the time and audience.

Haba! adultery for marrying divorced woman?. Let me give you another one.

I got more and i can go on and on like Law of Oaths, Law of Absolute Justice etc
.

IN 1513 B.C.E., Jehovah gave the Israelites a code of laws. He told the people that if they obeyed his voice, he would bless them and they would enjoy happy, satisfying lives.— Exodus 19:5, 6. That Law code, called the Mosaic Law , or simply “the Law ,” was “holy and righteous and good.” (Romans 7:12) It promoted such virtues as kindness, honesty, morality, and neighborliness. ( Exodus 23:4, 5; Leviticus 19:14; Deuteronomy 15:13-15; 22:10, 22) The Law also incited the Jews to love one another. (Leviticus 19:18) Furthermore, they were not to mix with or take wives from among Gentiles who had not submitted to the Law . (Deuteronomy 7:3, 4)

As a “wall” of separation between Jews and Gentiles, the Mosaic Law kept God’s people from becoming contaminated by pagan thinking and practices.— Ephesians 2:14, 15; John
18:28.

One of the reasons why the Law was given to Israel was “to make transgressions manifest.” ( Galatians 3:19) The Law made sincere Jews conscious of their desperate need for a Redeemer. When that One arrived, faithful Jews rejoiced. Their deliverance from the curse of sin and death was at hand!— John 1:29.

The Mosaic Law was to be a temporary arrangement. Writing to fellow Christians,
the apostle Paul described it as a “tutor leading to Christ.” ( Galatians 3:24) A tutor of ancient times accompanied children to and from school. He was generally not the teacher; he merely led the children to the teacher. Similarly, the Mosaic Law was designed to lead God-fearing Jews to Christ.

Jesus promised that he would be with his followers “all the days until the conclusion of
the system of things.” ( Matthew 28:20) Once
the Christian congregation was formed, therefore, the “tutor”—the Law —served no
further purpose. (Romans 10:4; Galatians 3:25)

Thefore Matthew 5:17-19 is making reference to jesus fufilling the law, his total assurance that he will fufill it and that the law must be observed till the law is fufilled .


On the issue of jesus change in divorce laws,it was not sudden .
Now let's look at the verses you quoted, and analyse it under ur view of Abrogation.

Deut 24:1 ;If a man marries a woman who becomes displeasing to him because he finds something *indecent( found some indecency )about her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce, gives it to her and sends her from his house.

Matthew 5:31-32: "It has been said, 'Anyone who divorces his wife must give her a certificate of divorce.'
But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, makes her the victim of adultery, and anyone who marries a divorced woman commits adultery.

Matthew 19:7-9; "Why then," they asked, "did Moses command that a man give his wife a certificate of divorce and send her away?" Jesus replied, "Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning. I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery.

Religious leaders of that time devised legalistic loopholes to weaken the force of God’s Law. For instance, the Law allowed a man to divorce his wife if he found “something indecent” on her part, evidently some serious problem that brought shame on the household. ( Deuteronomy 24:1)
However, by Jesus’ day, the religious leaders used that concession as an excuse to allow a man to divorce his wife on all manner of grounds—even for burning his supper! . Jesus showed that they had badly misrepresented Moses’ inspired words. He then restored Gods original standard for marriage, that of monogamy, leaving sexual immorality as the only proper grounds for divorce.— Matthew 19:3-12.

In his Sermon on the Mount, Jesus said that “everyone divorcing his wife, except on account of fornication, makes her a subject for adultery, and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery.” ( Mt 5:32) By this, Christ showed that if a husband divorces his
wife for reasons other than her “fornication” (por·nei′a), he exposes her to adultery in the future. That is so because the unadulterous wife is not properly disunited from her husband by such a divorce and is not free to marry another man and have sexual relations with another husband. When Christ said that whoever “marries a divorced woman commits adultery,” he was referring to a woman divorced on grounds other than “on account of fornication” (por·nei′a). Such a woman, though divorced legally, would not be divorced Scripturally.

So my friend , the law on marriage was not abrogated in the Islamic sense , but rather fufilled, jesus did not change it but explained it fully.


Read this verse :
3 And Pharisees came to him intent on testing him, and they asked: “Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife on every sort of grounds?” 4 In reply he said: “Have you not read that the one who created them from the beginning made them male and female. 5 and said: ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and his mother and will stick to his wife, and the two will be one flesh’? 6 So that they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore, what God has yoked together, let no man(the pharisses and their understanding ) put apart.” 7 They said to him: “Why, then, did Moses direct giving a
certificate of dismissal and divorcing her?”8 He said to them: “Out of regard for your hard-heartedness, Moses made the concession to you of divorcing your wives, but that has not been the case from the beginning. 9 I say to you that whoever divorces his wife, except on the grounds of sexual immorality, * and marries another commits adultery.”

At the institution of marriage by the Creator, he made no provision for divorce. A man was to stick to his wife, and “they must become one flesh.” ( Ge 2:24) A man would therefore have one wife who was considered one flesh with him. It was only after man’s fall and consequent imperfections and degradation that divorce
entered in. In giving the Law to Israel, God did not at that time choose to enforce the original
standard, but he regulated divorce so that it would not bring dissolution of the family arrangement in Israel or work undue hardship. However, at God’s due time his original standard was restored. Jesus stated the principle governing the Christian congregation—that “fornication” (Gr., por·nei′a) is the only valid ground for divorce. He explained that God did not enforce this standard through Moses out of regard for the hardheartedness of the Israelites.— Mt 19:3-9; Mr 10:1-11.

dolphinheart:
@ empire
[size=3pt]Definition of abrogation: ab-ro-gate: v.tr. repeal, annul, abolish (a law or custom)

Definition of abrogation in islam:

http://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Naskh_(tafsir)
Does the two correspond?Does islam totally follow the first definition of abrogation (which you posted)You are right, societal norms,customs, laws and views do change and adjust with time. But it does not totally change in a period of 30 to 40 years that requires an expansive change of the laws. this is done for the koran and not for the scriptures. The laws does not require certain situations to happen to the writer before the laws are being made or abrogated . That is what the koran is being accused of and the bible is not .The laws giving in the OT where not changed by the same man, unlike the koran .
Unlike the koran , the law God gave the isrealites was not changed for thousands of years.
The koran changed directive within the same body of laws. Jesus brought a new covenant with new directive , directive that does not put the older laws as false or wrong.[/size]

I really dont need to bother myself. Evidences are abound in your bibles. I didnt say old law are false. I simply said Jesus did not change nor relax old testament laws. So called new covenant are questionable when it's crystal clear from same NT that....
“For truly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass the law until all is accomplished. Whoever then relaxes one of the least of these commandments and teaches men so, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but he who does them and teaches them shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.” — Matthew 5:18-19

“It is easier for Heaven and Earth to pass away than for the smallest part of the letter of the law to become invalid.” (Luke 16:17)

“Do not think that I have come to abolish the law or the prophets. I have come not to abolish but to fulfill. Amen, I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not the smallest part or the smallest part of a letter will pass from the law, until all things have taken place.” (Matthew 5:17)

The law he referred to above is Mosaic law (Law of Moses)

“Did not Moses give you the law, and yet none of you keepeth the law” (John7:19)^

Keep in mind, this is Jesus Christ saying this–in the Bible that all Christians own and cherish. Don’t take my word for it; look it up–it’s all there.

Deuteronomy 31:25-29New International Version (NIV)

25 he gave this command to the Levites who carried the ark of the covenant of the Lord: 26 “Take this Book of the Law and place it beside the ark of the covenant of the Lord your God. There it will remain as a witness against you. 27 For I know how rebellious and stiff-necked you are. If you have been rebellious against the Lord while I am still alive and with you, how much more will you rebel after I die! 28 Assemble before me all the elders of your tribes and all your officials, so that I can speak these words in their hearing and call the heavens and the earth to testify against them. 29 For I know that after my death you are sure to become utterly corrupt and to turn from the way I have commanded you. In days to come, disaster will fall on you because you will do evil in the sight of the Lord and arouse his anger by what your hands have made.”

Jesus did not come with a new law. Some must have rewrote your bible. Why all the Bible (books) according to this and that and NOT according to Jesus himself?. All chronicles are hearsay...I got more evidences against you people. I can bring them up as i deem fit.

As for Quran, there is no abrogation in Quran. Verses of Quran that talks about abrogation simply refer to previous revealed Book like Torah and Gospel. All laws in those Books are abrogated by Quran as it's the final testament.

Empiree:
Honestly, i dont have time for you guys. I see you people as arrogant as you can be. I have made up my mind to ignore you and few others cus, your writings are neither friendly nor professional but attacks and blasphemies. I know you 've been throwing questions all around seeking answers but people ignore you because when they answer you and others call them liars, taqqiya as you fondly call it. If i want i will answer with precedent and i wont care whether you are satisfied with it or not.

By way, if you believe that verse of Quran is true, why dont you then accept Quran as the word of God? Why are you yourself acting like a double standard hypocrite to quote a verse from Quran and yet deny Quran as a LIE? If you really think that Quran 10:94 is true, why then you dont reject the religion of falsehood and corruptions called Christianity with that for Islam?

the bible was written century before the quran and it contradicts the truth in the bible,SATAN IS MANIPULATING THE TRUTH.

Empiree:
I really dont need to bother myself. Evidences are abound in your bibles. I didnt say old law are false. I simply said Jesus did not change nor relax old testament laws. So called new covenant are question when it's crystal clear from same NT that....
“For truly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass the law until all is accomplished. Whoever then relaxes one of the least of these commandments and teaches men so, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but he who does them and teaches them shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.” — Matthew 5:18-19

“It is easier for Heaven and Earth to pass away than for the smallest part of the letter of the law to become invalid.” (Luke 16:17)

“Do not think that I have come to abolish the law or the prophets. I have come not to abolish but to fulfill. Amen, I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not the smallest part or the smallest part of a letter will pass from the law, until all things have taken place.” (Matthew 5:17)

The law he referred to above is Mosaic law (Law of Moses)

“Did not Moses give you the law, and yet none of you keepeth the law” (John7:19)^

Keep in mind, this is Jesus Christ saying this–in the Bible that all Christians own and cherish. Don’t take my word for it; look it up–it’s all there.

Deuteronomy 31:25-29New International Version (NIV)

25 he gave this command to the Levites who carried the ark of the covenant of the Lord: 26 “Take this Book of the Law and place it beside the ark of the covenant of the Lord your God. There it will remain as a witness against you. 27 For I know how rebellious and stiff-necked you are. If you have been rebellious against the Lord while I am still alive and with you, how much more will you rebel after I die! 28 Assemble before me all the elders of your tribes and all your officials, so that I can speak these words in their hearing and call the heavens and the earth to testify against them. 29 For I know that after my death you are sure to become utterly corrupt and to turn from the way I have commanded you. In days to come, disaster will fall on you because you will do evil in the sight of the Lord and arouse his anger by what your hands have made.”

Jesus did not come with a new law. Some must have rewrote your bible. Why all the Bible (books) according to this and that and NOT according to Jesus himself?. All chronicles are hearsay...I got more evidences against you people. I can bring them up as i deem fit.

As for Quran, there is no abrogation in Quran. Verses of Quran that talks about abrogation simply refer to previous revealed Book like Torah and Gospel. All laws in those Books are abrogated by Quran as it's the final testament.

When the law was introduced, it was never intended to be the instrument by which man would save himself, but it was the instrument through which man was to be saved. In a very real sense, man is saved through the fulfilment (keeping) of the law. When Christ fulfilled the law, he earned the privilege of life.

It is because we lack the righteousness of God that why we can't obey the commandment of God,bible say He became sinner so that I can be made righteous.he crucified my guilt.
Those who are in Christ, likewise, share
in his righteousness and are delcared
righteous right along side him. In that
sense, the law has always stood and will continue to stand.


Surah 16:101: “And when We put a
revelation in place of (another)
revelation, – and Allah knoweth best
what He revealeth – they say: Lo!
thou art but inventing. Most of them
know not.” (Pickthall)

This Qur’anic verse shows that a number of people living during the time of Muhammad were troubled at this
concept of abrogation. In response to the claim that new revelations superseded the older ones, they said to Muhammad, “Thou art a mere forger.” And they are absolutely right.

Empiree:

Wahala dey ooo. You guys got many versions and still telling us you are on the right path? hell no.

As for your question you owe that to yourself.

I am talking translations here. Not saying the KJV is false. Meanwhile doesnt the Koran have its own translations like Yusuf Ali and Pickthall just to mention a few? Does it mean they are different Korans? Also why are Muslims derailing this thread?

Empiree:
I really dont need to bother myself. Evidences are abound in your bibles. I didnt say old law are false. I simply said Jesus did not change nor relax old testament laws. So called new covenant are questionable when it's crystal clear from same NT that....
“For truly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass the law until all is accomplished. Whoever then relaxes one of the least of these commandments and teaches men so, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but he who does them and teaches them shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.” — Matthew 5:18-19

“It is easier for Heaven and Earth to pass away than for the smallest part of the letter of the law to become invalid.” (Luke 16:17)

“Do not think that I have come to abolish the law or the prophets. I have come not to abolish but to fulfill. Amen, I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not the smallest part or the smallest part of a letter will pass from the law, until all things have taken place.” (Matthew 5:17)

The law he referred to above is Mosaic law (Law of Moses)

“Did not Moses give you the law, and yet none of you keepeth the law” (John7:19)^

Keep in mind, this is Jesus Christ saying this–in the Bible that all Christians own and cherish. Don’t take my word for it; look it up–it’s all there.

Deuteronomy 31:25-29New International Version (NIV)

25 he gave this command to the Levites who carried the ark of the covenant of the Lord: 26 “Take this Book of the Law and place it beside the ark of the covenant of the Lord your God. There it will remain as a witness against you. 27 For I know how rebellious and stiff-necked you are. If you have been rebellious against the Lord while I am still alive and with you, how much more will you rebel after I die! 28 Assemble before me all the elders of your tribes and all your officials, so that I can speak these words in their hearing and call the heavens and the earth to testify against them. 29 For I know that after my death you are sure to become utterly corrupt and to turn from the way I have commanded you. In days to come, disaster will fall on you because you will do evil in the sight of the Lord and arouse his anger by what your hands have made.”

Jesus did not come with a new law. Some must have rewrote your bible. Why all the Bible (books) according to this and that and NOT according to Jesus himself?. All chronicles are hearsay...I got more evidences against you people. I can bring them up as i deem fit.

Moses words there is not that people will rewrite the bible. You just misinterpreted it.

No one in Moses' day embarked on rewriting the bible, so the corruption he meant was 'living a life against the law' which even happened while he was alive.

The Mosaic law was never annulled during the lifetime of Jesus. However, the Jews had many misinterpretation about the law, so Jesus corrected that.

But the Law had a purpose. When that purposed fulfilled, it was no longer required for righteousness.

Jesus stated that the Law cannot go unfulfilled. That's true, but what if it had all been fulfilled, hasn't it purpose been realized? Jesus fulfilled the Law.

2. You have still confessed that there are abrogation in the Koran. In as much as you agree it was Allah that 'revealed' those Laws, what else is there to discuss?

Papist:

I am talking translations here. Not saying the KJV is false. Meanwhile doesnt the Koran have its own translations like Yusuf Ali and Pickthall just to mention a few? Does it mean they are different Korans? Also why are Muslims derailing this thread?

na u guys have different bibles. not just different translations

See why the title of this thread should be changed because so many comments here is derailing it. Lack of substance.