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Has God Ever Answered Your Prayer(s)? Has Juju Ever Worked For You? / No! Pastor Adeboye, Your Approach Is Wrong… Peniel Plus / No Pastor Will Tell U This On Sunday During Preaching (2) (3) (4)
| No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by Bigbang2013(m): 10:05am On Jul 03, 2015 |
if jesus has the same will has God why did he prayed to God on the cross he even went to an extent of say "father ,father why have though forsaken me" do u know the gravity of that word.... 2 Likes |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by INTROVERT(f): 10:11am On Jul 03, 2015 |
Jesus is human and God and understood his divine position. Remember he cursed the fig tree, he scattered the temple and what just posted. The physical pain and anguish he felt as a human was what led him to make that statement on the cross. Remember in the garden sweat as blood formed on his head while he prayed for the cup to pass him over. Do not forget that when one of his disciples sliced someone's ear he told them that he could as his father to send 10000 angels to fight on his behalf and afterwards he healed the person. 3 Likes |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by Bigbang2013(m): 10:25am On Jul 03, 2015 |
if u say e cursed the fig tree do u know it was because jesus told his disciples that were hungry that if they get to the tree they will eat but on getting dere jesus saw nothing then he cursed it if he was a divine God should e not av know d tree would av no fruit wen e was coming 1 Like |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by Nobody: 10:33am On Jul 03, 2015 |
INTROVERT:how can you be two different things at the same time  |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by johnydon22(m): 10:50am On Jul 03, 2015 |
List of children born by the union of a god and a human woman 1)Krishna: union of the God vasudeva and the human mother Devaki 2) Romulus: is born of a vestal virgin, which was a priestess of the hearth god Vesta sworn to celibacy. His mother claims that the divine impregnated her. 3)Dionysus: Father was the God zeus and mother the human semele 4)Heracles (hercules): Father was the God zeus and human mother Alcmene 5)Glycon: The son of the God apollo and a human mother 6)Persus: His father is the God zeus and a human mother Danae 7)Jesus: Father was the God yahweh and the human mother Mary  Achilles:Born to the human father Pelius and a nymph mother Thetis. to mention a few. . . we have seen many claims of god parenting through out history. . .Out of this list the earliest is Glycon which happened 100Ad followed by jesus which was 04Bc-00Ad. . . others span way back into BC. . . we have a lot of godmen around  3 Likes 1 Share |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by menesheh(m): 10:55am On Jul 03, 2015 |
Bigbang2013: Corrections (edit your post; nice one) if Jesus is the same as God, why did he prayed to God on the cross, he even went to the extent of saying "father, father why has thou forsaken me" do u know the gravity of that word.... Fixed This is one of the confusions and contradictions in Christian faith. Most pastors, as referred in your topic can't answer that because they are just good at cramming bible quotation (Matthew chapter this or that) but they don't use their thinking faculty. Approach any apologist, he will tell you Jesus and god are the same; your point here shows that they are apparently different mediums. Go further to inquire why god allowed and supported slavery, killings, malevolent behaviors etc in the old testament, they will deny god as a different medium from the newer jesus, the reformer. Confusions everywhere until one step out a bit from their indoctrination to view things in a different angles, you wouldn't know the crappy content of the teachings. 1 Like |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by jnrbayano(m): 10:56am On Jul 03, 2015 |
Jesus took flesh to do one thing, SAVE MAN and that ultimately is the will of his father (God) He submitted to his father's will albeit the demands of his flesh which manifested very well in the Garden of Gethsemane (Take this cup away from Me) and on the cross (Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani?) The man Jesus's will is different from that of the father but he humbly submitted to his father's will. But remember Jesus himself is God. That God's will is nothing but his will. Note: Father=God the father Jesus=God the son God the father=God the son |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by johnydon22(m): 11:06am On Jul 03, 2015 |
jnrbayano: This bolded is called Unitarianism meaning Jesus = yahweh and yahweh = jesus. trinitarian doctrine is Jesus is not the father and the father is not jesus but both are God. . . check your doctrine well because the upper part of your post connotes trinitarian doctrine while the bolded part shows Unitarianism |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by Digriz(m): 11:31am On Jul 03, 2015 |
It was a rhetorical question. Jesus was both fully man and fully God (Philippians 2:5-9) and, as evidenced of this verse ( Matthew 26:39 ), He was conflicted about what was about to happen. He knew that He had to go through with it ("not mine but your will be done" , but His human nature didnot want to die. You also have to consider those three days that He would be buried before the Resurrection. The best Biblical reference to this is 1 Peter 3:18-20 which addresses that he was "made alive in the spirit". This suggests a death of the spirit. In the description of the Ascension by Luke (Acts 1:9-11), His spirit is taken up into Heaven, meaning He wasn't there when His body was killed. I don't believe there is a consensus among scholars about where exactly Jesus' spirit went during that time, but it was not to Heaven. For the first time in Jesus' existence, He was to be separated from The Father. He and The Father and The Spirit are one and that separation must have been extremely painful to consider. Jesus was the perfect man. But He was also man. He knew He would die, He knew it was to God's glory, and He knew that He would be apart from God for those three days. He was very conflicted. His last cry of anguish is the embodiment of that conflict and a clear representation of His humanity, but also His last hours are a clear representation of His Godliness. In the descriptions in Luke and John, His other "last words" are mentioned in which He asks The Father to forgive them, He tells the disciples to love His mother and His mother to love them, and He proclaims the Paradise awaiting them all with The Father. So, to more directly answer your question: He did not have to ask The Father. He knew exactly why it had to be done. But He was still afraid. 2 Likes |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by MuttleyLaff: 11:58am On Jul 03, 2015 |
Bigbang2013:"... Father, Father why have thou forsaken me..." is not what was said in the Aramaic language He uttered. This wrong interpretation has been passed down and incorrectly taught this way |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by NumberOne3(m): 1:03pm On Jul 03, 2015 |
Bigbang2013: God did forsake Him. God cannot behold sin... Thou art of purer eyes than to behold evil, and canst not look on iniquity: - Habakuk 1:13a Most will say Jesus is God (in the general sense) and He is. Is Jesus the Father? NO. Jesus always spoke of the Father seperately. I and my Father are one. - John 10:30 You cannot be one with yourself as you are already one. Just like husband and wife. They are one, but are seperate beings. |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by Nobody: 1:14pm On Jul 03, 2015 |
Bigbang2013:Another one on the loose again.. I dont av my bible here,but was Jesus said was that "My God,My God why have you forsaken me". John 1:1:- "In the beginning was the WORD and the WORD was with GOD and the WORD was GOD". From this scripture,we can say that THE WORD = GOD. Notice that the "Word" used in John1:1 is a person. Vs14And the WORD became flesh and dwelt amongst us. This simply means GOD became flesh and dwelt amongst Us. When Jesus said "My God,My God,why av you forsaken men". At that point on the cross,Jesus took the place of the sinner on the cross. At that point he was identified with man as a Sinner.see 2cor5:21. He became SIN for me(us),he took MY(our) place on the cross. 1 Like |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by jnrbayano(m): 5:10pm On Jul 03, 2015 |
johnydon22: How? |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by Scholar8200(m): 5:22pm On Jul 03, 2015 |
Bigbang2013:John 1:18 was halted briefly resulting in the outcry on the cross. Isaiah 59:2 tells us iniquity separates us from God and that is what happened to He Who bore our guilt. That was the real cause of the sorrow and agony at Gethsemane, not the death on the cross per se. 1 Like 1 Share |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by Scholar8200(m): 5:23pm On Jul 03, 2015 |
Bigbang2013:As per the highlighted, Jesus NEVER said that!!!!! |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by Syncan(m): 7:38pm On Jul 03, 2015 |
Psalm 22. |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by Nobody: 8:13pm On Jul 03, 2015 |
Scholar8200:I was just about to point that out for him 1 Like |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by MuttleyLaff: 9:03pm On Jul 03, 2015 |
Bigbang2013:"... Father, Father why have thou forsaken me..." is not what was said in the Aramaic language He uttered. This wrong interpretation has been passed down and incorrectly taught this way Syncan:So? What about Psalm 22? That right there, the Psalm 22 you displayed, is the genesis. By hook or by crook, translators try to align Jesus's utterance on the cross with David's lamentation in Psalms 22:1, but the two scenarios really arent the same Not sure of the translators' sincerety when imagining and settling for "forsaken" when that wasnt what Jesus, in the Aramaic language uttered on the cross. I do understand, and do see why the translators leaned towards "forsaken" but going for that strong and "borrowed from Psalms 22:1" "forsaken" word stretched the truth and obliterated getting the true understanding of what Jesus actually said and/or really meant on the cross Quite sure Jesus is fully aware of Deuteronomy 31:6, Deuteronomy 31:8, Joshua 1:5 and 1 Chronicles 28:20 to not have used that strong "forsaken" word in the manner or way, that the translators want to lead all to believe is what and how He uttered the words |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by Syncan(m): 10:07pm On Jul 03, 2015 |
MuttleyLaff: I just read through your "I too know" write up here, you seem to just be arguing with your self to a simple quote that says "Psalm 22". Why you are quarreling with Psalm 22 which obviously began with "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me"? Indeed a messianic psalm which illustrates the agony the suffering servant will go through. Don't be perplexed, God the Father did not abandon his Son in his Son’s suffering but allowed him in his humanity to experience the sense of divine abandonment that humans often feel during times of need, and especially when in sin. Just as we often feel that God has abandoned us when we are suffering (even though this isn’t the case), so the Son of God in his humanity experienced that aspect of human suffering as well. He died for our sins, and the weight of those sins—and thus the feeling of abandonment—must have been exceedingly heavy at that point. This is God's will, and note that Jesus had prayed that "Thy will be done" in the garden of Gethsemane. By quoting this psalm, Jesus shows that he is the fulfillment of that prophecy and that he will be vindicated, which is evident in the psalm’s triumphant ending. Yes it is the first verse of the Psalm like you pointed out, but Jesus does not need to read the whole Psalm. If i say "The Lord is my shepherd" for example, many will know to complete the rest. He quoted Psalm 22. As for the Aramaic translation stuff, bring your Aramaic here and show us how it wasn't psalm 22:1. It's not everything that I want to argue about, but I just had to make myself clear since you quoted my post "Psalm 22". |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by MuttleyLaff: 11:12pm On Jul 03, 2015 |
Syncan:Dont ever mistake truth for ITK If the truth is incontrovertible then your swipe is a small price to pay for airing it. If you thought I was arguing with myself, then...  and your "Don't be perplexed" bit is just hilarious, you must have had a good laugh writing that but then you seem oblivious of the Socratic method used in the post, you got "perplexed" reading the post, not realising am asking questions and returning a few odd answers to stimulate critical thinking towards illuminating the truth Fulfilment of prohecy? Pfft SMH. Fulfilment of prohecy indeed. " thus the feeling of abandonment—must have been exceedingly heavy at that point." - LOL, kai listen to yourself "Agba o le wa lọja, ki ori ọmọ wọ" - ask any igbati/yooba neighbours for the meaning of that You definitely noticed I used "strong borrowed Psalms 22:1 forsaken word", as opposed to not using the actual word Jesus uttered on the cross You need to examine the sorroundings and backdrop up to when Jesus uttered those words to ascertain if He was "forsaken" The fact is Jesus uttered those famous words out in Aramaic, if He were referring to Psalms 22:1 verbatim, as in word for word, copy to copy, why didnt He repeat it same, as it was in Hebrew? Why didnt He utter: ""Eli, Eli, lamah azabtani?" in Hebrew like in Psalms 22:1 but instead in Aramaic uttered "Eli, Eli, lema sabachthani? Why did Jesus change words, why change "azabtani" to "sabachthani"? - Obviously they have different meanings, besides the mago-mago, wuru-wuru trying to pass "sabachthani" as "azabtani" clearly is there for any willing to see "Nashatani" AND NOT "sabachthani", is the Aramaic word for Hebrew's "azabtani", which in Psalms 22:1 is the translated English word "forsaken" For whose benefit there, did Jesus, in Aramaic utter those words ? Who were listening, who there could have understood the language He uttered and who there was the message in that utterance for? Jesus doesnt speak impetuously, like David did, with "forsaken me" in Psalms 22:1 It just isnt at all part of any of Jesus' m.o |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by Syncan(m): 9:05am On Jul 04, 2015 |
MuttleyLaff: So you read George Lamsa's claim, and that suddenly makes you authoritative in the matter. Your question is whether the Aramaic shavaktani (which is spelled sabachthani in Greek) really means “abandoned.” And the answer is yes. Though it is a remote possibility that both Mark and Matthew translated it wrong (note that mark used eloi eloi), It is still likely that Jesus substituted another word rather than translating azavtani directly, but we have external evidence about shavaktani. In particular, we find the same verb (in different conjugations) in Ezra 6:6 and Daniel 4:23. In each spot, it has to do with “leaving alone.” Furthermore, we frequently find the Aramaic shavak as a translation for the Hebrew azav, just for example, in Targum Onkolos (aramaic translation) to Genesis 2:24. Wikipedia has this to say "The Aramaic word form šəbaqtanî is based on the verb šəbaq/šābaq, 'to allow, to permit, to forgive, and to forsake', with the perfect tense ending -t (2nd person singular: 'you'), and the object suffix -anî (1st person singular: 'me')." https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Language_of_Jesus. Lastly, I prefer to choose he was quoting Psalm 22 as He always does concerning various passages that points to his life, many of such were pointed out by the evangelists, referring us to the prophets. Also on that Cross we cannot overlook his other last words such as the last words "Into the hands I commit my spirit" , which comes straight from Psalm 31:5 nor "I thirst" which is believed to come from Psalm 63:1. Read the whole Psalm, short as it is and it becomes clear what Jesus was saying on the cross, especially since he rejected the vinegar soaked sponge after reciting those words. Sorry, Lamsa's is just a claim by one who spoke syriac of 2000 years old from what Jesus spoke, and I’m not convinced by his (unsupported) claim that Jesus would not have referred to the Psalms in Aramaic. |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by Bigbang2013(m): 9:31am On Jul 04, 2015 |
NumberOne3: first of when you say two married people can be co joined as one yes it is true but God has a heavenly father cannot b one with jesus because he his a messanger of God look at what jesus said here Matthew 24:36 But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.....if jesus is a God I believe e should av divine power n authority to know what his father knows ...dat is too tell u dey r two different people Mark 10:18 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God.(stating his difference from God) John 14:28 Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I.(another evidence) in conclusion for the fact that he performed miracles doesn't make him God |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by NumberOne3(m): 11:26am On Jul 04, 2015 |
Bigbang2013: I NEVER said Jesus is God. I said he is a god (a deity or supreme being). There are heirachies in the Spirit. God is a Spirit. The Spirit of Christ is Joined with God just like Christians are joined (one) with Christ. Spirits can be joined. Stop viewing it from the angle of the flesh. That is why I used Husband and Wife as physical examples (seperate bodies, one spirit) What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh. But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit. - 1 Corinthians 6:16-17 Summary: Jesus is Jesus. God is God. Both are deities (Gods) joined by one Spirit. 1 Like |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by MuttleyLaff: 2:21pm On Jul 05, 2015 |
double post |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by jcross19: 4:25pm On Jul 05, 2015 |
crusadistic:is impossible to a mortal man but possible to immortal power. In your quran, it was stated there that jesus made bird through clay and breath into it and the mould of bird became living bird, then tell me who can give life? Why did jesus gave life to bird made of clay? Answer me please. |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by jcross19: 4:30pm On Jul 05, 2015 |
Bigbang2013:you are made up of three materials which are body, spirit and soul but some people can make spirit leave their body that's mystic power like God=jesus=holy spirit according john 1 vs 1 -3. |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by jcross19: 4:37pm On Jul 05, 2015 |
Bigbang2013:see in your quran it was written there he gave life to a bird of clay that clay became living bird then please who can give life? Unless if your quran is lying. |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by jcross19: 4:39pm On Jul 05, 2015 |
NumberOne3:jesus is the God in flesh and the word of God and you can't separate the word from God. Can anyone separate your word from you? |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by MuttleyLaff: 2:09am On Jul 06, 2015 |
Syncan:I might have, at some time, a very long time ago for that matter, milked George Lamsa's cow but so also have I milked other people cows to make that cheddar post Syncan:If I am being objective why not. I advise you should try objective too. You honestly should, it is healthy. You should be a stickler for Truth. Be less conservative and more objective instead of hanging/holding on to tradition or dogmatism for dear life Syncan:When will this practice of passing other people's posts, word for word, copy for copy verbatim as ones and not giving or showing the credit Syncan:This answer is no. Go back over the link below, to see how I constructed the question and post https://www.nairaland.com/2423726/no-pastor-ever-answered-questions#35452634 Syncan:Using "Eloi lema" or "Eli lama" has nothing to do with getting anything wrong, the fact is they at least, both retained "sabachthani" (i.e. the bone of contention) Mark and Matthew must have known and realised something which is why they both preserved "sabachthani" I have mentioned before in a previous post that Mark and Matthew were writing to different audiences. Mark used "eloi" because he was writing to an Aramaic audience and Mark used "Eli" because he was writing to a Hebrew audience Syncan:Are these your own very words, or is it another direct lift off a website and it's someone's else work? Syncan:SMH, how can I possibly comment on this when it's not even original. This comment is someone's else work Syncan:Hope you took note of "to allow, to permit, to forgive, and to forsake" in there. I am more particular that the first two are noted & remembered, as they'll be referred to in my later addressing and/or unfolding post Syncan:This is a dead link (i.e. Wikipedia does not have an article with that link) You should have left out the dot at the end when typing or copying out the link Syncan:You know the contention is not about if Jesus was quoting Psalm 22 or not, but is that, Jesus did not quote Psalm 22:1 verbatim, as in, He did not directly word for word or copy for copy it. Jesus deliberately and consciously changed "azabtani" in Psalm 22:1 to "sabachthani" when He uttered His 4th words on the cross "azabtani" rightly means forsaken or abandoned but "sabachthani" interestingly, is a homonym. Homonyms are words which are written alike and sound alike but have different meanings "sabachthani" is not neccesarily "forsaken or abandoned", as it has multiple meanings You actually touched on the crucial and other meanings of "sabachthani" above when you did your verbatim copying of "to allow, to permit, to forgive, and to forsake" "sabachthani" apart from "to allow" or "to permit", actually, also means "to keep" (i.e. that's my contribution to your "sabachthani" meaning collection) Examples of homonyms just like "sabachthani" is, are: rose: My favorite flower is a rose - "flower" He quickly rose from his seat - "got up" date: His favorite fruit to eat is a date - "fruit" He took her out on a date - "outing" Syncan:I was pleased reading you quoting Jesus' "into your Hands I commit my spirit" - Jesus' 7th and last word on the cross. You obviously did not realise that Jesus' 6th word on the cross (i.e. "It is finished'') is from Psalm 22 He paraphrased Psalm 22:31, (i.e. the last verse in Psalm 22) Lets knuckle down BUT whilst at it, it is necessary to read this unfolding section with an open and receptive mind. - previous post start - "Nashatani" AND NOT "sabachthani", is the Aramaic word for Hebrew's "azabtani", which in Psalms 22:1 is the translated English word "forsaken" For whose benefit there, did Jesus, in Aramaic utter those words? Who were listening, who there could have understood the language He uttered and who there was the message in that utterance for? Jesus doesnt speak impetuously, like David did, with "forsaken me" in Psalms 22:1 It just isnt at all part of any of Jesus' m.o - previous post end - I asked the above questions, because no matter how much any dying person has talked in life, the final words of most dying persons in life seems to command that little extra respect, as listeners pay special attention to the last words of a dying person, they strain ears to hear and listen to them. Most people' last words are very profound, and Jesus' is no exception to this. Jesus as a dying man hung on a cross, uttered the below famous seven dying last words 1) Luke 23:34 - Father, forgive them, for they do not know what they do. 2) Luke 23:43 - Truly, I say to you, today you will be with me in paradise. 3) John 19:26–27 - Woman, behold your son. Son Behold your mother. 4) Matthew 27:46 & Mark 15:34 - My God, My God, (this bit is blanked out, to be revealed later) 5) John 19:28 - I thirst. 6) John 19:30 - It is finished (or "It is accomplished'') 7) Luke 23:46 - Father, into your hands I commit my spirit Most enquiring minds after reading Matthew 27:46 or Matthew 27:50 and then reading Mark 15:34 or Mark 15:37 would ask: "What were those Jesus' last words on the cross not explicitly mentioned in Matthew 27:50 and Mark 15:37?" Well of courtesy of John 19:30 and Luke 23:46, we know what the last words, which were not explicitly mentioned in Matthew 27:50 and Mark 15:37 are Syncan, if you keep, "Eli, Eli, lama, Sabachthani", (i.e. Matthew 27:46 and Matthew 27:50) in the mind, and also keep "it is finished" or "it is accomplished" together with "Father, into your hands I commit my spirit" in mind too (i.e. Matthew 27:50 or Mark 15:37 with John 19:30 and Luke 23:46) then there is a good chance of understanding what Jesus Christ actually said with "Eli, Eli, lama, Sabachthani" (i.e. My God, My God, (the continuing bit here is blanked out, to be revealed later)) and also know what He was saying and was doing with those last dying words. As previously hinted above "Sabachthani" is a homonym and it apart from meaning "forsaken or abandoned", it also means "to keep or kept", "to allow" or "to permit" The final words of most dying persons are very important, and last words of such dying people, are usually filled with messages for certain people, last wishes, final requests, final blessings, special instructions, cryptic messages (e.g. Jesus switching to Aramaic with "Eli, Eli, lama, Sabachthani'') etcetera The dying last four words of Jesus were: 4) Matthew 27:46 & Mark 15:34 - My God, My God, (this bit is blanked out, to be revealed later) 5) John 19:28 - I thirst. 6) John 19:30 - It is finished (or "It is accomplished'') 7) Luke 23:46 - Father, into your hands I commit my spirit The first of the last four words were for the benefit of the disciples, which is why it was spoken in Aramaic (e.g. "Eli, Eli, lama, Sabachthani'') The last two words are self explanatory and makes everthing else fall into place once the proper translation of the "Eli, Eli, lama, Sabachthani" is done. "Eli, Eli, lama, Sabachthani" means: "My God, My God, this is why You kept me" or "My God, My God, this is My destiny" or "My God, My God, this is what You permitted" or "My God, My God, this is what You allowed" So we have "My God, My God, this is why You kept me"; "It is finished (or "It is accomplished'') and then "Father, into your hands I commit my spirit" Jesus for the benefit of the disciples uttered in Aramaic the purpose (i.e. the reason all those things were happening, the reason why He was created or the reason why He came to exist) He then after declaring that the purpose (i.e. the process for salvation) is finished or accomplished excused Himself with the "Father, into your hands I commit my spirit" last word Jesus chose His word very carefully and didnt speak impetuously when He used "Eli, Eli, lama, Sabachthani" He actually was paraphrasing the begining of Psalm 22 (i.e. Psalm 22:1) just like He paraphrased the end of Psalm 22 (i.e Psalm 22:31) There are a bunch of other scriptures and messianic psalms Jesus paraphrases. Paul Peter et al also display this behaviour Jesus deliberating DID NOT quote Psalms 22:1 verbatim or directly but consciously changed or switched language and used the Aramaic "sabachthani", so as to make the distinction from the Aramaic "nashatani" "nashatani" and "sabachthani" are both Aramaic "Nashatani" is the Aramaic word for the Hebrew word "azabtani", where in Psalms 22:1 it is correctly translated as the English word "forsaken" Since "Eli, Eli, lama, Sabachthani" is Aramaic, if Jesus meant "forsaken", He would have uttered "Eli, Eli, lama, Nashatani" where "Eli, Eli, lama, Nashatani" would mean "My God, My God, why hath Thou forsaken Me" but He used "Eli, Eli, lama, Sabachthani" which means: "My God, My God, this is why You kept me" or "My God, My God, this is My destiny" (i.e. I was born to do this) or "My God, My God, this is what You permitted" or "My God, My God, this is what You allowed" Unlike some saying insisting on "forsaken", the Aramaic speaking disciples and those in the crowd who were from Galilee never for a moment thought that Jesus had said God had forsaken Him. How can that possibly be? God, forsake Jesus? Nah, no, no, no. Those words, "My God, My God, for this I was kept" or "My God, My God, this is why You kept me" or "My God, My God, this is My destiny" (i.e. I was born for this) or "My God, My God, this is what You permitted" or "My God, My God, this is what You allowed" was deliberated spoken in Aramaic by Jesus to God the Father and He spoke it loudly enough for the benefit and hearing of the disciples and others who understood Aramaic. He confirmed the plan, confirmed the reason for His crucifixion, and confirmed the execution of the plan He did all this to the hearing of the disciples et al, made it publicly official, so that the beautiful message be known and be passed on to the entire world by the hearers of those unforgetable last words. Syncan:You must have already read the immediate above and it should have become clear what Jesus correctly was saying on the cross Syncan:I am not aware of Lamsa or I, saying Jesus didnt quote from the Psalms What I have posted is that God never forsook Jesus. Jesus wasnt saying God forsook Him Here, part of what I wrote is repeated below: "Quite sure Jesus is fully aware of Deuteronomy 31:6, Deuteronomy 31:8, Joshua 1:5 and 1 Chronicles 28:20 to not have used that strong "forsaken" word in the manner or way, that the translators want to lead all to believe is what and how He uttered the words" |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by Syncan(m): 7:20am On Jul 06, 2015 |
MuttleyLaff: Oga,amidst all these singing and chanting, Please read again these words of yours, especially in bold, and tell me what is in my post below that you're quarreling with. Syncan: Since I've seen you just want to pass an opinion to me, I have taken note of it, but like I said earlier I am not inclined towards it. Someone made a post about Jesus praying to the father, I referred the person to Psalm 22, You came in arguing against my post of "Psalm 22", only for you to start posting the bold. If the bone of contention is not Jesus quoting Psalm 22(as you stated above), and you accept he was quoting Psalm 22, why do you quarrel with my post that simply said "Psalm 22". O my people,"wherefore consider, I pray you, and see how he seeketh a quarrel against me" 2Kings 5:7. 1 Like |
| Re: No Pastor Has Ever Answered This Questions by STEVENcrack(m): 7:51am On Jul 06, 2015 |
Bigbang2013: meaning behind this action by Christ. When the Lord first saw the tree, he was yet “afar off.” He could only discern that it had leaves One must conclude that this circumstance reveals that though he was deity, Jesus did not exercise the full range of his divine powers constantly. He did not know the details regarding this tree until he was in close proximity . When the Savior arrived at the tree, he observed a curious thing — the fig tree was fruitless. Of what significance is this? This signifies that any thing that is of no value sud be cut down..so pls try and be useful to God so that u don't meet the fate of the Fig tree. |
Video Of Pastor Chris Oyakhilome Crying While Preaching On Stage / A Taboo: Watch D Pic / Prophesy Of War Coming To Nigeria. (pray For Nigeria)
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