Many of the Christians reject the Qur’an out rightly (even before having an opportunity to read what is written inside it) because they have been programmed right from childhood with the belief that Jesus (peace be upon him) was the last prophet of God sent to the entire world to die for the sins of all mankind. But how true is this claim? Have we not really been fooled with the assumption that religious faith of our parents is always right? Is it not high time for us to wake up from our slumber and then seek the truth with all diligence and open-mindedness? Was Jesus actually sent to the entire world? If Jesus (pbuh) was actually the last prophet of God sent to the entire world, then why did he have to say: I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 15:24)? Now compare this Biblical verse with this Qur’anic verse; And We have not sent you (O Muhammad- pbuh) except as a giver of glad tidings and as a Warner to all mankind, but most men do not know (Qur’an 34:28). See how Bible categorically declared that Jesus (pbuh) was sent only to the Israelites and see how Qur’an declared that Muhammad (pbuh) was sent to all mankind! There is no any indication in that Biblical verse that Jesus (pbuh) would later have anything to do with the Non- Israelites. In fact, when Jesus (pbuh) was sending out his apostles for evangelical mission, he also warned them categorically to avoid preaching to the Gentiles i:e the Non-Israelites: THESE TWELVE JESUS SENT FORTH, AND COMMANDED THEM,SAYING, GO NOT INTO THE WAY OF THE GENTILES,AND INTO ANY CITY OF THE SAMARITANS ENTER YE NOT: BUT GO RATHER TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 10:5-6). This further corroborates the fact that Jesus was sent only to the Israelites. But many of the Christian scholars proclaimed that this command of not preaching to the Gentiles was later cancelled and replaced by new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19, where Jesus was reported to have commanded the apostles to make disciples of all nations. Therefore, according to these Christian scholars, Jesus (pbuh) who was originally sent only to the Israelites later became the last prophet sent to the entire world. But should we really accept Matthew 28:19 as the actual word of Jesus (pbuh)? If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the gospel to all the nations of the world as spuriously stated in Matthew 28:19, then why did Peter have to tell some of the Gentiles (Cornelius and his households) that sent for him as follows; YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN (Acts 10:28 NIV)? This very incident occurred many years after Jesus’ departure from this world. Was Peter, who happened to be a Jewish man, not aware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations stated in Matthew 28:19? Then why did peter have to say it is unlawful for him to associate with or visit a Gentile i:e the Non-Israelite after Jesus departure? Has he forgotten such a very great and important command in Matthew 28:19? Very hard to believe! The fact that the other apostles also criticized peter and became astonished when they overheard that Peter later honored the invitation of those Gentiles ( Acts 11:1-18) prove further that Peter and other apostles were completely unaware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19; Not that they had all forgotten. How could all apostles have forgotten such a very great and important command from their master? Even when Peter was justifying his visitation to those gentiles, he only defended himself and convinced the other apostles by making reference to the vision he had before he received the message from those Gentiles (Acts 10:1-28, 11:4-18) instead of simply reminding the other apostles about the so-called new command in Matthew 28:19. After Jesus ascension to heaven, Jesus’ apostles understood the command of not preaching to the gentiles so well that even under intense persecution, they refused to leave Jerusalem (Acts 8:1). In fact, those disciples under the authority of the Jesus’ apostles who were forced to leave Jerusalem preached the gospel message to none except the Jews (Acts 11:19) and the Hellenists (Acts 11:20).Hellenists are the Greek- speaking Jews living in Greece. King James Version of the Bible called them Grecians (Acts 11:20 KJV) and New international version called them Greeks (Acts 11:20 NIV). But International standard version of the Bible reveal their true identity by calling them Hellenistic Jews (Acts 11:20 ISV). Ellicott and John-gill’s commentaries on this very verse (Acts 11:20) also confirm that these people were most likely to be Jews. You can Google search for parallel verses of Acts 11:20 on the internet to confirm all these facts. Moreover, if it was already in the divine plan ( i:e before Jesus came into the world) that the command of not preaching to the Gentiles in Matthew 10:5-6 would later be cancelled and replaced by the new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19, then Jesus’ statement in Matthew 15:24 should have been; “IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES” or something similar in meaning, rather than; “I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. All these facts are enough to prove that the new command of preaching to all the nations attributed to Jesus in Matthew 28:19 and other similar verses like it in other books of the New Testament are nothing but forgery.

Not only Christians, but no human will havea y excuse on that day.
I didn't read your Op tho.

Abdulgaffar22:
Many of the Christians reject the Qur’an out rightly (even before having an opportunity to read what is written inside it) because they have been programmed right from childhood with the belief that Jesus (peace be upon him) was the last prophet of God sent to the entire world to die for the sins of all mankind. But how true is this claim? Have we not really been fooled with the assumption that religious faith of our parents is always right? Is it not high time for us to wake up from our slumber and then seek the truth with all diligence and open-mindedness? Was Jesus actually sent to the entire world? If Jesus (pbuh) was actually the last prophet of God sent to the entire world, then why did he have to say: I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 15:24)? Now compare this Biblical verse with this Qur’anic verse; And We have not sent you (O Muhammad- pbuh) except as a giver of glad tidings and as a Warner to all mankind, but most men do not know (Qur’an 34:28). See how Bible categorically declared that Jesus (pbuh) was sent only to the Israelites and see how Qur’an declared that Muhammad (pbuh) was sent to all mankind! There is no any indication in that Biblical verse that Jesus (pbuh) would later have anything to do with the Non- Israelites. In fact, when Jesus (pbuh) was sending out his apostles for evangelical mission, he also warned them categorically to avoid preaching to the Gentiles i:e the Non-Israelites: THESE TWELVE JESUS SENT FORTH, AND COMMANDED THEM,SAYING, GO NOT INTO THE WAY OF THE GENTILES,AND INTO ANY CITY OF THE SAMARITANS ENTER YE NOT: BUT GO RATHER TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 10:5-6). This further corroborates the fact that Jesus was sent only to the Israelites. But many of the Christian scholars proclaimed that this command of not preaching to the Gentiles was later cancelled and replaced by new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19, where Jesus was reported to have commanded the apostles to make disciples of all nations. Therefore, according to these Christian scholars, Jesus (pbuh) who was originally sent only to the Israelites later became the last prophet sent to the entire world. But should we really accept Matthew 28:19 as the actual word of Jesus (pbuh)? If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the gospel to all the nations of the world as spuriously stated in Matthew 28:19, then why did Peter have to tell some of the Gentiles (Cornelius and his households) that sent for him as follows; YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN (Acts 10:28 NIV)? This very incident occurred many years after Jesus’ departure from this world. Was Peter, who happened to be a Jewish man, not aware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations stated in Matthew 28:19? Then why did peter have to say it is unlawful for him to associate with or visit a Gentile i:e the Non-Israelite after Jesus departure? Has he forgotten such a very great and important command in Matthew 28:19? Very hard to believe! The fact that the other apostles also criticized peter and became astonished when they overheard that Peter later honored the invitation of those Gentiles ( Acts 11:1-18) prove further that Peter and other apostles were completely unaware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19; Not that they had all forgotten. How could all apostles have forgotten such a very great and important command from their master? Even when Peter was justifying his visitation to those gentiles, he only defended himself and convinced the other apostles by making reference to the vision he had before he received the message from those Gentiles (Acts 10:1-28, 11:4-18) instead of simply reminding the other apostles about the so-called new command in Matthew 28:19. After Jesus ascension to heaven, Jesus’ apostles understood the command of not preaching to the gentiles so well that even under intense persecution, they refused to leave Jerusalem (Acts 8:1). In fact, those disciples under the authority of the Jesus’ apostles who were forced to leave Jerusalem preached the gospel message to none except the Jews (Acts 11:19) and the Hellenists (Acts 11:20).Hellenists are the Greek- speaking Jews living in Greece. King James Version of the Bible called them Grecians (Acts 11:20 KJV) and New international version called them Greeks (Acts 11:20 NIV). But International standard version of the Bible reveal their true identity by calling them Hellenistic Jews (Acts 11:20 ISV). Ellicott and John-gill’s commentaries on this very verse (Acts 11:20) also confirm that these people were most likely to be Jews. You can Google search for parallel verses of Acts 11:20 on the internet to confirm all these facts. Moreover, if it was already in the divine plan ( i:e before Jesus came into the world) that the command of not preaching to the Gentiles in Matthew 10:5-6 would later be cancelled and replaced by the new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19, then Jesus’ statement in Matthew 15:24 should have been; “IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES” or something similar in meaning, rather than; “I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. All these facts are enough to prove that the new command of preaching to all the nations attributed to Jesus in Matthew 28:19 and other similar verses like it in other books of the New Testament are nothing but forgery.

Leave Christians alone and face your allah the devil.

May Allah reward you with Firdaus.

Our responsibility is only to convey the message, May Allah accept this as an of Ibadat.

Abdulgaffar22:

Many of the Christians reject the Qur’an out
rightly (even before having an opportunity to read
what is written inside it) because they have been
programmed right from childhood with the belief
that Jesus (peace be upon him) was the last
prophet of God sent to the entire world to die for
the sins of all mankind. But how true is this
claim? Have we not really been fooled with the
assumption that religious faith of our parents is
always right? Is it not high time for us to wake
up from our slumber and then seek the truth with
all diligence and open-mindedness? Was Jesus
actually sent to the entire world? If Jesus (pbuh)
was actually the last prophet of God sent to the
entire world, then why did he have to say: I WAS
NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE
HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 15:24)? Now
compare this Biblical verse with this Qur’anic
verse; And We have not sent you (O Muhammad-
pbuh) except as a giver of glad tidings and as a
Warner to all mankind, but most men do not
know (Qur’an 34:28). See how Bible categorically
declared that Jesus (pbuh) was sent only to the
Israelites and see how Qur’an declared that
Muhammad (pbuh) was sent to all mankind!
There is no any indication in that Biblical verse
that Jesus (pbuh) would later have anything to
do with the Non- Israelites. In fact, when Jesus
(pbuh) was sending out his apostles for
evangelical mission, he also warned them
categorically to avoid preaching to the Gentiles
i:e the Non-Israelites: THESE TWELVE JESUS
SENT FORTH, AND COMMANDED THEM,SAYING,
GO NOT INTO THE WAY OF THE GENTILES,AND
INTO ANY CITY OF THE SAMARITANS ENTER YE
NOT: BUT GO RATHER TO THE LOST SHEEP OF
THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 10:5-6). This
further corroborates the fact that Jesus was sent
only to the Israelites. But many of the Christian
scholars proclaimed that this command of not
preaching to the Gentiles was later cancelled and
replaced by new command of preaching to all the
nations in Matthew 28:19, where Jesus was
reported to have commanded the apostles to
make disciples of all nations. Therefore, according
to these Christian scholars, Jesus (pbuh) who
was originally sent only to the Israelites later
became the last prophet sent to the entire world.
But should we really accept Matthew 28:19 as the
actual word of Jesus (pbuh)? If the apostles were
later instructed by Jesus to preach the gospel to
all the nations of the world as spuriously stated
in Matthew 28:19, then why did Peter have to tell
some of the Gentiles (Cornelius and his
households) that sent for him as follows; YOU
ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW
FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A
GENTILE. BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I
SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR
UNCLEAN (Acts 10:28 NIV)? This very incident
occurred many years after Jesus’ departure from
this world. Was Peter, who happened to be a
Jewish man, not aware of the Jesus’ new
command of preaching to all the nations stated in
Matthew 28:19? Then why did peter have to say
it is unlawful for him to associate with or visit a
Gentile i:e the Non-Israelite after Jesus
departure? Has he forgotten such a very great
and important command in Matthew 28:19? Very
hard to believe! The fact that the other apostles
also criticized peter and became astonished when
they overheard that Peter later honored the
invitation of those Gentiles ( Acts 11:1-18) prove
further that Peter and other apostles were
completely unaware of the Jesus’ new command
of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19;
Not that they had all forgotten. How could all
apostles have forgotten such a very great and
important command from their master? Even
when Peter was justifying his visitation to those
gentiles, he only defended himself and convinced
the other apostles by making reference to the
vision he had before he received the message
from those Gentiles (Acts 10:1-28, 11:4-18)
instead of simply reminding the other apostles
about the so-called new command in Matthew
28:19.
After Jesus ascension to heaven, Jesus’ apostles
understood the command of not preaching to the
gentiles so well that even under intense
persecution, they refused to leave Jerusalem
(Acts 8:1). In fact, those disciples under the
authority of the Jesus’ apostles who were forced
to leave Jerusalem preached the gospel message
to none except the Jews (Acts 11:19) and the
Hellenists (Acts 11:20).Hellenists are the Greek-
speaking Jews living in Greece. King James
Version of the Bible called them Grecians (Acts
11:20 KJV) and New international version called
them Greeks (Acts 11:20 NIV). But International
standard version of the Bible reveal their true
identity by calling them Hellenistic Jews (Acts
11:20 ISV). Ellicott and John-gill’s commentaries
on this very verse (Acts 11:20) also confirm that
these people were most likely to be Jews. You
can Google search for parallel verses of Acts
11:20 on the internet to confirm all these facts.
Moreover, if it was already in the divine plan ( i:e
before Jesus came into the world) that the
command of not preaching to the Gentiles in
Matthew 10:5-6 would later be cancelled and
replaced by the new command of preaching to all
the nations in Matthew 28:19, then Jesus’
statement in Matthew 15:24 should have been;
“IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES” or
something similar in meaning, rather than; “I WAS
NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE
HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. All these facts are enough to
prove that the new command of preaching to all
the nations attributed to Jesus in Matthew 28:19
and other similar verses like it in other books of
the New Testament are nothing but forgery.

Op , what you need is spiritual understanding.

Life itself is in stages.

Without the death and resurrection of Jesus , preaching to the gentiles would be a zero effect.
The Jews had a law given to them temporarily to prepare for the coming of the Messiah , Jesus Christ , but not the gentiles.

Jesus spoke to the Apostles and gave them command yo preach to the gentiles :

Acts 1:6-8 KJV
When they therefore were come together, they asked of him, saying, Lord, wilt thou at this time restore again the kingdom to Israel?
[7] And he said unto them, It is not for you to know the times or the seasons, which the Father hath put in his own power.
[8] But ye shall receive power, after that the Holy Ghost is come upon you: and ye shall be witnesses unto me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and in Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth.

It was not easy to preach to the Jews since the death of Jesus how much more to the gentiles.
This could only be possible by the power of the holy Spirit , which the apostles could not receive because Jesus had not yet died.
That was why at the beginning Jesus told them to preach only to the Jews but after his death he told them specifically to preach to the gentiles because they would be endowed with power to overcome fear and tribulations :

Acts 1:6-8 KJV
When they therefore were come together, they asked of him, saying, Lord, wilt thou at this time restore again the kingdom to Israel?
[7] And he said unto them, It is not for you to know the times or the seasons, which the Father hath put in his own power.

[8] But ye shall receive power, after that the Holy Ghost is come upon you: and ye shall be witnesses unto me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and in Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth.

Testimony of when the power came and how they started preaching about Jesus :



Acts 1:6-8 KJV
When they therefore were come together, they asked of him, saying, Lord, wilt thou at this time restore again the kingdom to Israel?
[7] And he said unto them, It is not for you to know the times or the seasons, which the Father hath put in his own power.
[8] But ye shall receive power, after that the Holy Ghost is come upon you: and ye shall be witnesses unto me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and in Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth.

Acts 2:1-12,32,37-41 KJV
And when the day of Pentecost was fully come, they were all with one accord in one place.
[2] And suddenly there came a sound from heaven as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled all the house where they were sitting.
[3] And there appeared unto them cloven tongues like as of fire, and it sat upon each of them.
[4] And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance. [5] And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven.
[6] Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language.
[7] And they were all amazed and marvelled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galilaeans?
[8] And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?
[9] Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites, and the dwellers in Mesopotamia, and in Judaea, and Cappadocia, in Pontus, and Asia,
[10] Phrygia, and Pamphylia, in Egypt, and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene, and strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes, [11] Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God.
[12] And they were all amazed, and were in doubt, saying one to another, What meaneth this?
[32] This Jesus hath God raised up, whereof we all are witnesses.
[37] Now when they heard this , they were pricked in their heart, and said unto Peter and to the rest of the apostles, Men and brethren, what shall we do?
[38] Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
[39] For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call.
[40] And with many other words did he testify and exhort, saying, Save yourselves from this untoward generation.
[41] Then they that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls.



THAT WAS HOW CHRISTIANITY STARTED UNLIKE ISLAM THAT LACKED THE POWER OF GOD TO CONVINCE PEOPLE TO ACCEPT FREELY WITHOUT KILLINGS AND SHEDDING PEOPLES BLOOD .

Stay there dey fool urself,
u know no say na Jesus go Judge everybody including all Muslims starting with their Prophet.