OLAADEGBU:

1 x 1 x 1 = 1

Therefore,

Father x Son x Holy Spirit = God. Simples

Please make sure no kid sees the above.

Some of them in primary or secondary school would know that Father x Son x Holy Spirit = Father x Son x Holy Spirit ...............and not = God

This is the most illogical way of explaining the concept of 3Gods in 1 I have ever seeing by a trinitarian.

I stand on the Bible's revelation of God as a trinity of three persons in perfect unity. I will not try to show how that concept makes sense, but I will gladly show that the Scriptures takes the trinity of God for granted.

But, for those who question the deity of Jesus Christ, I ask you to please show me how His Death on the Cross made any sense if He was not God Himself.

And for those who insist that the trinity is absurd, that there is only one person in the Godhead, please show that the Bible says so and indicate willingness to reconcile portions in the Bible that contradict that position.

Finally, for those who think that the Trinity is One Person Who assumes three different aspects, explain how such a Person is Perfect Love, because the Bible says that God is Love, and Love must have an object. Note also that if this Person is Perfect Love, they must have been Loving Something from before there ever was a Creation. You will indicate how God as One Person is Perfect Love while loving nothing until He created. Also explain why He created at all.

My questions are directed only at such as accept the Bible as final authority. If you do not, please ignore my questions, they are not directed at you at all.

I have gone on to start a new thread to discuss the Trinity addressing the concept from the perspective of God's Nature as Love as the Bible reveals. If you wish to respond to my post above, you might find it more productive to do so on the new thread. I welcome all responses which respect the Bible as final authority.

The link is www.nairaland.com/1009156/trinity-true-false-love-perspective

Enigma: Good job here, Olaadegbu.

And tangential to the issue of Jesus Christ, i.e. God The Son, as object of worship the Bible reflects this in many ways ---- except that people refuse to understand the synchronisation and the synthesis which lead to the inevitable demonstration of the Trinity. Consider the following verses, take them together and consider the implications on the "status" of Jesus Christ.

Matthew 28:19

2 Cor 13:14

Acts 15:11

Titus 2:13 (according to the predominantly accepted rendering)

Jude 1:21


One problem I have noticed with many people who struggle to understand or especially to accept God as Trinity (The Father, The Son and The Holy Spirit) is that they are not able to get over the particular mental obstacle of just looking at Jesus and picturing Him solely in the flesh as a human being. In reality, they have not fully engaged with the issue of incarnation and they have not fully understood the ramifications of ascension in particular in addition of course to resurrection.

This is why they struggle when you quote that 1 Timothy 3:16

(*Even if you go with the NIV's "He", you will still end with the same result)

** This one is for those who accuse us of cop-out when we speak of "mystery" --- God as 'mystery' and The Trinity as 'mystery'.

God bless you my brother.

This mystery is difficult for adherents of cults and false religion to understand, but it has been revealed to all who received Christ in simple faith without any controversy.

"And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory."(1 Timothy 3:16)

"God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit." "The Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us" (John 1:14), and was "declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the Spirit of holiness" (Romans 1:4).

You can see here that this couplet relates Christ’s human/divine nature. His humanity was evident to all; His divinity was declared through the Spirit.

Those whose eyes have been opened to the mystery will find out that before the Word was made flesh (John 1:14), No man has seen God at any time (John 1:18). The Father and the Spirit are still omnipresent and therefore invisible, but the Son has finally become Son of man as well as Son of God, and will forever be in His glorified human body.

ijawkid:

In essence ur also saying that the holy spirit = JESUS.....right??

If A=B=C then u also mean JESUS was the holyspirit too.....

Hope u see how useless ur analogy is........

Think well o b4 u bring mathematics into the bible.......

The Father, the Word and the Holy Spirit are equal and that's why they are One God

A = B = C

"Who being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men" (Philippians 2:6).

This verse shows that Jesus Christ was equal to God the Father before His incarnation and that He was not afraid of temporarily losing His deity when He exchanged the outward form of God for the outward form of man.

Freksy:

I am happy you are back to your senses. You cannot add or multiply dissimilar objects ( even if they are of the same family like Gods, Fruits or Alphabets) and get a unit result. I knew you will 'fumble over' the mathematical expressions. If you show them to any capable mathematician he will tell you I am correct.

Father * Son * Holy Spirit = Father * Son * Holy Spirit........... not = 1...............The Father is different from son and holy spirit (they are dissimilar)

Note: I use * as multiplication sign and not exponential.

While you are still basking on your high horse let me humour you about the perjury your founder, Russel Taze made when under oath in the court of law he said that he has qualification and understanding of the Greek language. He had to admit that he was ignorant of the Greek language when he was examined. You are here claiming to be a mathematician when you do not understand the simple logic of 1 x 1 x 1 = 1. The Father, The Word and the Holy Spirit = God. What part of that don't you understand? They all have the nature of God.

Freksy:

In what sense is Mary the "spouse" of the holy spirit? The scripture has never said so, can you please expatiate on it?

it is a simple metaphor, mary got pregnant thru d power of d holy spirit, if u get someone pregnant then u are her 'spouse'. But it is more than that, a christain also has a love relation with the holy spirit though it does nt involve pregnancy.

OLAADEGBU:

We are still expecting Ubenedictus to get back and tell us how Mary became the spouse of the Holy Spirit.

sorry ola i took some weeks holiday from the internet im sorry i couldnt answer u earlier. How are u doing buddy?

Revisiting the Equality of Jesus Christ with God (the Father).

The Incarnate Deity

"Christ Jesus: Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men." (Philippians 2:5-7)

The entire gospel message runs counter to the human mind. The Creator dying for the creation. The judge paying the penalty for the guilty. The immortal One dying. Sinless God substituting for human sinners. No human or devil ever could have thought of this scheme, and indeed, no such one did. This is evidenced by the works-oriented salvation offered by all cults and false religions, as conjured up by such sources.

But make no mistake! The babe in the manger was the Creator, holy and eternal! "Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature. . . . All things were created by him, and for him: . . . that in all things he might have the preeminence. For it pleased the Father that in him should all fulness dwell; And, having made peace through the blood of his cross, by him to reconcile all things unto himself" (Colossians 1:15-20).

In order to qualify as a sacrificial substitute, He had to be born as a child into humankind, but without the inherited sin nature of His human parents. A virgin birth was therefore necessary.

He had to live a sinless life. He had to be fully human, but also fully God, so that His substitutionary death could apply to the sins of more than one guilty sinner. He had to be "God with us," the meaning of the precious title Emmanuel (Matthew 1:23), as prophesied years before (Isaiah 7:14). JDM

@OLAADEGBU;

Revisiting the Equality of Jesus Christ with God (the Father).

The Incarnate Deity

"Christ Jesus: Who, being in the [size=14pt]form[/size] of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men." (Philippians 2:5-7)

see the greek word used for 'form' in phil 2:5-7 below;

μορφή

morphē

mor-fay'

shape ; figuratively nature: - form.

form = nature and used figuratively;

and let us consider same verse in the jewish bible;


Philippians 2:4-12
Complete Jewish Bible (CJB)


[size=18pt]6 Though he was in the form of God,
he did not regard equality with God
something to be possessed by force.[/size]
7 On the contrary, he emptied himself,
in that he took the form of a slave
by becoming like human beings are.

in verse 6 above;

a person,in the form or nature of God,

did not regard equality with God something to be possessed by force

let us consider the matter being discussed in the preceeding three verses phil 2:3-5;

3 Do nothing out of rivalry [/b]or vanity; [b]but, in humility, regard each other as better than yourselves — 4 look out for each other’s interests and not just for your own.


unselfish interest is to be promoted among the church in phillipians, as in 'one-another' below;
as in christ,
5 Let your attitude toward[b] one another[/b] be governed by your being in union with the Messiah Yeshua:

so christ demostrates an unselfish love a good example for christians, not considering his own gain to force worship and honor to himself, but consider to have himself sacrificed in-order to get humans in union with God.

so reading another meaning to the book of phillipians above 'is considered out of context'

The entire gospel message runs counter to the human mind. The Creator dying for the creation. The judge paying the penalty for the guilty. The immortal One dying. Sinless God substituting for human sinners. No human or devil ever could have thought of this scheme, and indeed, no such one did. This is evidenced by the works-oriented salvation offered by all cults and false religions, as conjured up by such sources.

lie!!! the catholics made the gospel looks complex to gain undue advantage of the poeple, the bible quote below aknowledge the fact that jesus message are to be understood by the followers,read (bolded)
john 17:6,7;
6 “I have manifested Your name to the men whom You have given Me out of the world. They were Yours, You gave them to Me, and they have kept Your word. 7[size=14pt] Now they have known that all things which You have given Me are from You.[/size]


But make no mistake! The babe in the manger was the Creator, holy and eternal! "Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature. . . . All things were created by him, and for him: . . . that in all things he might have the preeminence. For it pleased the Father that in him should all fulness dwell; And, having made peace through the blood of his cross, by him to reconcile all things unto himself" (Colossians 1:15-20).

If the babe in the manger was God,and God is the firstborn of every creature, how do you reconcile bible facts below;

Proverbs 8:22-31

22 [size=14pt]“The Lord [/size]brought me forth[size=14pt] as the first of his works[/size],
before his deeds of old;
jesus confesed as being the 'among God's first works' of couse it shows that at a particular time,jesus was not existing with God in the heaven before he was created as one of the first works of God.

23 I was formed long ages ago,
at the very beginning, when the world came to be.

jesus also mark his beggining with 'before or when the world came to be' it shows a begining, but God has no beginning.

In order to qualify as a sacrificial substitute, He had to be born as a child into humankind, but without the inherited sin nature of His human parents. A virgin birth was therefore necessary.

He had to live a sinless life. He had to be fully human, but also fully God, so that His substitutionary death could apply to the sins of more than one guilty sinner.[size=14pt] He had to be "God with us," the meaning of the precious title Emmanuel[/size] (Matthew 1:23), as prophesied years before (Isaiah 7:14). JDM

yes he was reffered to as 'God'in the prophecy, no doubt about that,but then he is only reffered to in the same book of isiah below as 'mighty God' and not 'Almighty' baba God.read it yourself;
Isaiah 9:6

6 For to us a child is born,
to us a son is given,
and the government will be on his shoulders.
And he will be called
Wonderful Counselor,[size=14pt] Mighty God,[/size]
Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

any more verses quoted out of context?.......bring them on pls and stop forcing meaning to a sub-sentence within a bible paragraphs.

lets all thank William tyndale who at the cost of his life took the risk to laid bare the false teachings of 3-1. no wonder the catholics burned him alive, but could not stop the arguments for more than a century.

BARRISTERS: @OLAADEGBU;

see the greek word used for 'form' in phil 2:5-7 below;

μορφή

morphē

mor-fay'

shape ; figuratively nature: - form.

form = nature and used figuratively;

and let us consider same verse in the jewish bible;


Philippians 2:4-12
Complete Jewish Bible (CJB)


[size=18pt]6 Though he was in the form of God,
he did not regard equality with God
something to be possessed by force.[/size]
7 On the contrary, he emptied himself,
in that he took the form of a slave
by becoming like human beings are.

in verse 6 above;

a person,in the form or nature of God,

did not regard equality with God something to be possessed by force

let us consider the matter being discussed in the preceeding three verses phil 2:3-5;

3 Do nothing out of rivalry [/b]or vanity; [b]but, in humility, regard each other as better than yourselves — 4 look out for each other’s interests and not just for your own.


unselfish interest is to be promoted among the church in phillipians, as in 'one-another' below;
as in christ,
5 Let your attitude toward[b] one another[/b] be governed by your being in union with the Messiah Yeshua:

so christ demostrates an unselfish love a good example for christians, not considering his own gain to force worship and honor to himself, but consider to have himself sacrificed in-order to get humans in union with God.

so reading another meaning to the book of phillipians above 'is considered out of context'

When it says that Jesus was in the form of God it means that He was God from eternity who created all things and this is corroborated in John 1:1-3

Jesus Christ thought it not robbery to be equal with God means that He didn't cling to His deity as a robber will cling to its plunder. It means that despite the fact that He took up the outward form of a man it did not detract from His intrinsic deity.

BARRISTERS:
lie!!! the catholics made the gospel looks complex to gain undue advantage of the poeple, the bible quote below aknowledge the fact that jesus message are to be understood by the followers,read (bolded)
john 17:6,7;
6 “I have manifested Your name to the men whom You have given Me out of the world. They were Yours, You gave them to Me, and they have kept Your word. 7[size=14pt] Now they have known that all things which You have given Me are from You.[/size]

If Charles T. Russel understood it he wouldn't have twisted it to mean something else and there wouldn't have been this many false religion and cults today. If you read further in John 17 that you quoted you will discover that Jesus Christ was with the Father before coming down to earth. He said:

"And now, O Father, glorify me with your own self with the glory which I had with you before the world was" (John 17:5).

You see here that Jesus Christ declared that He was with the Father before the world came into existence, and that the Father loved Him before the foundation of the world (vs 24). In John 1:1-3 as I earlier quoted you will see that Jesus Christ is the eternal Word through which the Father created the Cosmos but that He laid aside His glory temporary so as to finish God's work of the redeeming of His creation.

BARRISTERS:

OLAADEGBU:

But make no mistake! The babe in the manger was the Creator, holy and eternal! "Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature. . . . All things were created by him, and for him: . . . that in all things he might have the preeminence. For it pleased the Father that in him should all fulness dwell; And, having made peace through the blood of his cross, by him to reconcile all things unto himself" (Colossians 1:15-20).

If the babe in the manger was God,and God is the firstborn of every creature, how do you reconcile bible facts below;

Proverbs 8:22-31

22 [size=14pt]“The Lord [/size]brought me forth[size=14pt] as the first of his works[/size],
before his deeds of old;
jesus confesed as being the 'among God's first works' of couse it shows that at a particular time,jesus was not existing with God in the heaven before he was created as one of the first works of God.

23 I was formed long ages ago,
at the very beginning, when the world came to be.

jesus also mark his beggining with 'before or when the world came to be' it shows a begining, but God has no beginning.

I hope you are not quoting from the dodgy NWT that has been twisted to deny the truth. Here is what the authorised version says:

"The LORD possessed me in the beginning of his way, before his works of old. I was set up from everlasting, from the beginning, or ever the earth was" (Proverbs 8:22-23).

The word "Possessed" in verse 22 is the same word as "acquired". It means that the Lord Jesus Christ was not just the Son of God, but that He was the only begotten Son of God. It means that He was "in the beginning" with God as the gospel of John put it in (John 1:1-2), Simultaneously He is the only begotten, eternally proceeding from the Father

BARRISTERS:

yes he was reffered to as 'God'in the prophecy, no doubt about that,but then he is only reffered to in the same book of isiah below as 'mighty God' and not 'Almighty' baba God.read it yourself;
Isaiah 9:6

6 For to us a child is born,
to us a son is given,
and the government will be on his shoulders.
And he will be called
Wonderful Counselor,[size=14pt] Mighty God,[/size]
Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

I have addressed this misconception of yours if you read earlier posts. The Father and Son are both referred to as the mighty God. (See Isaiah 1:24).

"Therefore saith the Lord, the LORD of hosts, the mighty One of Israel, Ah, I will ease me of mine adversaries, and avenge me of mine enemies." (Isaiah 1:24).

"But how his bow abode in strength, and the arms of his hands were made strong by the hands of the mighty God of Jacob . . . " (Genesis 49:24).

"Until I find a place for the LORD, an habitation for the mighty God of Jacob." (Psalm 132:5).

"For the LORD your God is God of gods, and Lord of lords, a great God, a mighty, and a terrible, which regards not persons, nor takes reward" (Deuteronomy 10:17).

Who do you think is referred to as the mighty God here?

BARRISTERS:

any more verses quoted out of context?.......bring them on pls and stop forcing meaning to a sub-sentence within a bible paragraphs.

lets all thank William tyndale who at the cost of his life took the risk to laid bare the false teachings of 3-1. no wonder the catholics burned him alive, but could not stop the arguments for more than a century.

Can you answer this question? Is Jesus Christ your Lord and Saviour?

OLAADEGBU:

When it says that Jesus was in the form of God it means that He was God from eternity who created all things and this is corroborated in John 1:1-3

Jesus Christ thought it not robbery to be equal with God means that He didn't cling to His deity as a robber will cling to its plunder. It means that despite the fact that He took up the outward form of a man it did not detract from His intrinsic deity.



If Charles T. Russel understood it he wouldn't have twisted it to mean something else and there wouldn't have been this many false religion and cults today. If you read further in John 17 that you quoted you will discover that Jesus Christ was with the Father before coming down to earth. He said:

"And now, O Father, glorify me with your own self with the glory which I had with you before the world was" (John 17:5).

You see here that Jesus Christ declared that He was with the Father before the world came into existence, and that the Father loved Him before the foundation of the world (vs 24). In John 1:1-3 as I earlier quoted you will see that Jesus Christ is the eternal Word through which the Father created the Cosmos but that He laid aside His glory temporary so as to finish God's work of the redeeming of His creation.



I hope you are not quoting from the dodgy NWT that has been twisted to deny the truth. Here is what the authorised version says:

"The LORD possessed me in the beginning of his way, before his works of old. I was set up from everlasting, from the beginning, or ever the earth was" (Proverbs 8:22-23).

The word "Possessed" in verse 22 is the same word as "acquired". It means that the Lord Jesus Christ was not just the Son of God, but that He was the only begotten Son of God. It means that He was "in the beginning" with God as the gospel of John put it in (John 1:1-2), Simultaneously He is the only begotten, eternally proceeding from the Father



I have addressed this misconception of yours if you read earlier posts. The Father and Son are both referred to as the mighty God. (See Isaiah 1:24).

"Therefore saith the Lord, the LORD of hosts, the mighty One of Israel, Ah, I will ease me of mine adversaries, and avenge me of mine enemies." (Isaiah 1:24).

"But how his bow abode in strength, and the arms of his hands were made strong by the hands of the mighty God of Jacob . . . " (Genesis 49:24).

"Until I find a place for the LORD, an habitation for the mighty God of Jacob." (Psalm 132:5).

"For the LORD your God is God of gods, and Lord of lords, a great God, a mighty, and a terrible, which regards not persons, nor takes reward" (Deuteronomy 10:17).

Who do you think is referred to as the mighty God here?



Can you answer this question? Is Jesus Christ your Lord and Saviour?

i wholeheartedly agree, probably the first time i totally agree with your post.
Peace

Ubenedictus:

i wholeheartedly agree, probably the first time i totally agree with your post.
Peace

Thanks for agreeing with me but aren't you stretching the truth a little bit here? was it not you that agreed with me in the thread below?

https://www.nairaland.com/945805/christ-solid-foundation

OLAADEGBU:

When it says that Jesus was in the form of God it means that He was God from eternity who created all things and this is corroborated in John 1:1-3

Jesus Christ thought it not robbery to be equal with God means that He didn't cling to His deity as a robber will cling to its plunder. It means that despite the fact that He took up the outward form of a man it did not detract from His intrinsic deity.



If Charles T. Russel understood it he wouldn't have twisted it to mean something else and there wouldn't have been this many false religion and cults today. If you read further in John 17 that you quoted you will discover that Jesus Christ was with the Father before coming down to earth. He said:

"And now, O Father, glorify me with your own self with the glory which I had with you before the world was" (John 17:5).

You see here that Jesus Christ declared that He was with the Father before the world came into existence, and that the Father loved Him before the foundation of the world (vs 24). In John 1:1-3 as I earlier quoted you will see that Jesus Christ is the eternal Word through which the Father created the Cosmos but that He laid aside His glory temporary so as to finish God's work of the redeeming of His creation.



I hope you are not quoting from the dodgy NWT that has been twisted to deny the truth. Here is what the authorised version says:

"The LORD possessed me in the beginning of his way, before his works of old. I was set up from everlasting, from the beginning, or ever the earth was" (Proverbs 8:22-23).

The word "Possessed" in verse 22 is the same word as "acquired". It means that the Lord Jesus Christ was not just the Son of God, but that He was the only begotten Son of God. It means that He was "in the beginning" with God as the gospel of John put it in (John 1:1-2), Simultaneously He is the only begotten, eternally proceeding from the Father



I have addressed this misconception of yours if you read earlier posts. The Father and Son are both referred to as the mighty God. (See Isaiah 1:24).

"Therefore saith the Lord, the LORD of hosts, the mighty One of Israel, Ah, I will ease me of mine adversaries, and avenge me of mine enemies." (Isaiah 1:24).

"But how his bow abode in strength, and the arms of his hands were made strong by the hands of the mighty God of Jacob . . . " (Genesis 49:24).

"Until I find a place for the LORD, an habitation for the mighty God of Jacob." (Psalm 132:5).

"For the LORD your God is God of gods, and Lord of lords, a great God, a mighty, and a terrible, which regards not persons, nor takes reward" (Deuteronomy 10:17).

Who do you think is referred to as the mighty God here?



Can you answer this question? Is Jesus Christ your Lord and Saviour?

Which authorized version are u using??
That fell down from heaven??

Which??

Let's check other translations not even the NWT.....

New Living Translation (©2007)
"The LORD formed me from the beginning,
before he created anything else.

Aramaic Bible in Plain English (©2010)
“Lord Jehovah created me at the beginning of
his creation and from before all of his works.”

The hebrew word used was d same word used in genesis 4:1 when eve bore a child by the help of God.......

I believe we know eve existed b4 cain.....

Trinitarians always will never agree with this strong verse but it is what it is........

And can u please explain what u mean when u say Jesus christ is eternally proceeding from the Father??and show me where d bible makes such statement...??

And tell me how it is compatible with the word begotten......

Except the definition of the word beggoten has changed.......

According to the thesaurus dictionary beggoten is defined as::::

CREATE,BREED,BRING ABOUT,GENERATE,PRODUCE,REPRODUCE,SIRE,PRO CREATE,CAUSE.....

Jesus himself @ john 6:57 tells us who the owner of his life is and his life source....

New American Standard Bible (NASB)
57 As the living Father sent Me, and I live
because of the Father, so he who eats Me, he
also will live because of Me.

Jesus was caused by the Father which ever way u wanna look @ it.....

Jesus lives because of Yahweh......his lives are in Yahwehs hand.........

Keep reciting 1 corinthians 11:3 till u understand truths.....

I made a resolution years back that if I ever believed in the trinity dogma then I rather just become an atheist.....

There will be no need for me trying to prove what isn't there especially when I know when it all started.......

And again I will tell u to ur face that ofcus Jesus is my Lord...1 corinthians 8:5 $ 6 tells me that....but that same scripture also tells me who is Jesus's GOD and my GOD....(Yahweh).....

ijawkid:

Which authorized version are u using??
That fell down from heaven??

Which??

Let's check other translations not even the NWT.....

New Living Translation (©2007)
"The LORD formed me from the beginning,
before he created anything else.

Aramaic Bible in Plain English (©2010)
“Lord Jehovah created me at the beginning of
his creation and from before all of his works.”

The hebrew word used was d same word used in genesis 4:1 when eve bore a child by the help of God.......

I believe we know eve existed b4 cain.....

Trinitarians always will never agree with this strong verse but it is what it is........

And can u please explain what u mean when u say Jesus christ is eternally proceeding from the Father??and show me where d bible makes such statement...??

And tell me how it is compatible with the word begotten......

Except the definition of the word beggoten has changed.......

According to the thesaurus dictionary beggoten is defined as::::

CREATE,BREED,BRING ABOUT,GENERATE,PRODUCE,REPRODUCE,SIRE,PRO CREATE,CAUSE.....

Jesus himself @ john 6:57 tells us who the owner of his life is and his life source....

New American Standard Bible (NASB)
57 As the living Father sent Me, and I live
because of the Father, so he who eats Me, he
also will live because of Me.

Jesus was caused by the Father which ever way u wanna look @ it.....

Jesus lives because of Yahweh......his lives are in Yahwehs hand.........

Keep reciting 1 corinthians 11:3 till u understand truths.....

I made a resolution years back that if I ever believed in the trinity dogma then I rather just become an atheist.....

There will be no need for me trying to prove what isn't there especially when I know when it all started.......

And again I will tell u to ur face that ofcus Jesus is my Lord...1 corinthians 8:5 $ 6 tells me that....but that same scripture also tells me who is Jesus's GOD and my GOD....(Yahweh).....

I said that the word possessed there means to acquire, there's no need to complicate matter there. What does it mean to call Jesus the Son of God?

Does the title applied to Jesus, Son of God, imply that He is different than God? No. Jesus is the only begotten Son of God (John 3:16), while Christians are adopted sons of God (Romans 8:15-17). Christians are called adopted sons of God because we are different from God and must become His children (hence, adopted, not begotten). Jesus is not called adopted because He never became God's Son, but has always been God's Son. Calling Jesus the only begotten Son of God means that He is of the same nature as God, not a different nature, as C.S. Lewis explains:

"To beget is to become the father of: to create is to make. And the difference is this. When you beget, you beget something of the same kind as yourself. A man begets human babies, a beaver begets little beavers, But when you make, you make something of a different kind from yourself. A bird makes a nest, a beaver builds a dam . . . Now that is the first thing to get clear. What God begets is God; just as what man begets is man. What God creates is not God, just as what man makes is not man. That is why men are not Sons of God in the sense that Christ is. They may be like God in certain ways, but they are not things of the same kind."

There is a clear distinction between making and begetting, that is, you cannot make what you beget. What you make is different from yourself, what you beget has your nature. Therefore to call Jesus the only begotten Son is to say that He has God's nature and was not made. Since He has God's nature, He is, by definition, God and therefore eternal. If Jesus was created by God, He could not have been begotten, and John 3:16; 1:18, 1 John 4:9, etc. would be in error.

Therefore, when the Bible says that Jesus is the only begotten Son of God, it means that Jesus is equal to God, not less than God. QED.

ijawkid:
I made a resolution years back that if I ever believed in the trinity dogma then I rather just become an atheist.....

There will be no need for me trying to prove what isn't there especially when I know when it all started.......

And again I will tell u to ur face that ofcus Jesus is my Lord...1 corinthians 8:5 $ 6 tells me that....but that same scripture also tells me who is Jesus's GOD and my GOD....(Yahweh).....

To be an atheist is better than to belong to a false religion or cults because many atheists have open minds.

You say that Jesus is your Lord, is He your Saviour too? If so consider this verse that your folks have failed to respond to.

"You are my witnesses, says the LORD, and my servant whom I have chosen: that you may know and believe me, and understand that I am He: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after Me. I, even I, am the LORD; and beside Me there is no saviour.," (Isaiah 43:10,11)

If you study this verse objectively, you will discover the following pointers:

There always has been and always will be only one true God.

There is no Saviour of the world except for this one true God.

Therefore, the Saviour of the world must be the one true God.

This leads to another question:

Is Jesus the Saviour of the world?

I do not think that anyone who has read the New Testament would dispute this. Even your NWT version of the Bible refers to Jesus as the Saviour: "and of the Saviour of us, Christ Jesus" --Titus 2:13.

Therefore, since:

The one true God is the only Saviour of the world (Isaiah 43:10,11), and

Jesus is the Saviour of the world (Titus 2:13; 2 Peter 1:1),

Jesus must therefore be the one true God.

To deny that Jesus is the one true God, one would either have to deny that Jesus is the Saviour, or say that God is lying to us in Isaiah 43:11. Neither alternative fits with Scripture.

Does Titus 2:13 teach that Jesus is God our Saviour?

In Titus 2:13 it states the following:

"Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ; Who gave Himself for us, that He might redeem us from all iniquity, and purify to Himself a peculiar people, zealous of good works."

Paul is here through the inspiration of the Holy Spirit stating clearly that it is Jesus who is our great God and Saviour.

QED.

OLAADEGBU:

Thanks for agreeing with me but aren't you stretching the truth a little bit here? was it not you that agreed with me in the thread below?

https://www.nairaland.com/945805/christ-solid-foundation

ha! U have a sharp mind maybe i exagerated a little, but im sure we dont agree often. The trinity and a few other topic seem to be our only common ground.
Peace ola

[quote author=OLAADEGBU]



There always has been and always will be only one true God.

One is One , right

So one God = 1 and not 3 different persons, right ?

OLAADEGBU:

To be an atheist is better than to belong to a false religion or cults because many atheists have open minds.

You say that Jesus is your Lord, is He your Saviour too? If so consider this verse that your folks have failed to respond to.

"You are my witnesses, says the LORD, and my servant whom I have chosen: that you may know and believe me, and understand that I am He: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after Me. I, even I, am the LORD; and beside Me there is no saviour.," (Isaiah 43:10,11)

If you study this verse objectively, you will discover the following pointers:

There always has been and always will be only one true God.

There is no Saviour of the world except for this one true God.

Therefore, the Saviour of the world must be the one true God.

This leads to another question:

Is Jesus the Saviour of the world?

I do not think that anyone who has read the New Testament would dispute this. Even your NWT version of the Bible refers to Jesus as the Saviour: "and of the Saviour of us, Christ Jesus" --Titus 2:13.

Therefore, since:

The one true God is the only Saviour of the world (Isaiah 43:10,11), and

Jesus is the Saviour of the world (Titus 2:13; 2 Peter 1:1),

Jesus must therefore be the one true God.

To deny that Jesus is the one true God, one would either have to deny that Jesus is the Saviour, or say that God is lying to us in Isaiah 43:11. Neither alternative fits with Scripture.

Does Titus 2:13 teach that Jesus is God our Saviour?

In Titus 2:13 it states the following:

"Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ; Who gave Himself for us, that He might redeem us from all iniquity, and purify to Himself a peculiar people, zealous of good works."

Paul is here through the inspiration of the Holy Spirit stating clearly that it is Jesus who is our great God and Saviour.

QED.

U call the witnesses a cult??

No problem.....

but if u can't understand that Yahweh is Jesus's LORD and saviour then I don't know what to do with u.....

U fail to understand that these titles lord and saviour are just titles......

and which ever of it Jesus answers,Yahweh is d ultimate of it.....because he is LORD and GOD over Christ....

How don't u understand this baffles me......

Jesus is my saviour in that he died and is now mediating for me to get to Yahweh....

While Yahweh is d grander saviour in that he sent Jesus to come die for us.......

They are both saviours but one greater than the other......don't u get it??

Abraham was sarahs LORD,that didn't mean it stopped Yahweh from being sarahs LORD....did it??

When ever u play with titles u fail.....

Use names.......

What is d meaning of the word LORD??

lord
[lawrd]

-n.
1. a person who has authority, control, or power over others; a master, chief, or ruler.
2. a person who exercises authority from property rights; an owner of land, houses, etc.
3. a person who is a leader or has great influence in a chosen profession: the great lords of banking.
4. a feudal superior; the proprietor of a manor.
5. a titled nobleman or peer; a person whose ordinary appellation contains by courtesy the title Lord or some higher title.
6. the Lords Spiritual and Lords Temporal comprising the House of Lords.

.....

From those definitions both Jesus and his Father Yahweh are LORDS...but d question is
LORDS over whom or what??

1 corinthians gives u the answer but u keep running from pillar to post explaining what not....

1 corinthians 11:3 tells u Jesus has A LORD over him.......

Yahweh and Jesus can bear those titles Lord and Saviour........

It don't change a thing as to the fact that 1 is greater than d other....

So if I say Jesus is my master or LORD I'm correct according to 1 corinthians 11:3 and that doesn't contradict isaiah 43:11 that still speaks of Yahweh as savior and Lord.......

But the ball is in ur court to agree if Yahweh is Jesus's LORD.....

I don't have a problem.u got d problem......

Thanks

OLAADEGBU:

To be an atheist is better than to belong to a false religion or cults because many atheists have open minds.

You say that Jesus is your Lord, is He your Saviour too? If so consider this verse that your folks have failed to respond to.

"You are my witnesses, says the LORD, and my servant whom I have chosen: that you may know and believe me, and understand that I am He: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after Me. I, even I, am the LORD; and beside Me there is no saviour.," (Isaiah 43:10,11)

If you study this verse objectively, you will discover the following pointers:

There always has been and always will be only one true God.

There is no Saviour of the world except for this one true God.

Therefore, the Saviour of the world must be the one true God.

This leads to another question:

Is Jesus the Saviour of the world?

I do not think that anyone who has read the New Testament would dispute this. Even your NWT version of the Bible refers to Jesus as the Saviour: "and of the Saviour of us, Christ Jesus" --Titus 2:13.

Therefore, since:

The one true God is the only Saviour of the world (Isaiah 43:10,11), and

Jesus is the Saviour of the world (Titus 2:13; 2 Peter 1:1),

Jesus must therefore be the one true God.

To deny that Jesus is the one true God, one would either have to deny that Jesus is the Saviour, or say that God is lying to us in Isaiah 43:11. Neither alternative fits with Scripture.

Does Titus 2:13 teach that Jesus is God our Saviour?

In Titus 2:13 it states the following:

"Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ; Who gave Himself for us, that He might redeem us from all iniquity, and purify to Himself a peculiar people, zealous of good works."

Paul is here through the inspiration of the Holy Spirit stating clearly that it is Jesus who is our great God and Saviour.

QED.

In case u haven't read this scripture let me read it out from GODs word translation...
Mind u since we started this discussion the NWT has never crossed my mind....

1 corinthians 11:3
GOD'S WORD® Translation (©1995)
However, I want you to realize that Christ has
authority over every man, a husband has
authority over his wife, and God has authority
over Christ.


What don't u understand from this scripture ??

OLAADEGBU:

I said that the word possessed there means to acquire, there's no need to complicate matter there. What does it mean to call Jesus the Son of God?

Does the title applied to Jesus, Son of God, imply that He is different than God? No. Jesus is the only begotten Son of God (John 3:16), while Christians are adopted sons of God (Romans 8:15-17). Christians are called adopted sons of God because we are different from God and must become His children (hence, adopted, not begotten). Jesus is not called adopted because He never became God's Son, but has always been God's Son. Calling Jesus the only begotten Son of God means that He is of the same nature as God, not a different nature, as C.S. Lewis explains:

"To beget is to become the father of: to create is to make. And the difference is this. When you beget, you beget something of the same kind as yourself. A man begets human babies, a beaver begets little beavers, But when you make, you make something of a different kind from yourself. A bird makes a nest, a beaver builds a dam . . . Now that is the first thing to get clear. What God begets is God; just as what man begets is man. What God creates is not God, just as what man makes is not man. That is why men are not Sons of God in the sense that Christ is. They may be like God in certain ways, but they are not things of the same kind."

There is a clear distinction between making and begetting, that is, you cannot make what you beget. What you make is different from yourself, what you beget has your nature. Therefore to call Jesus the only begotten Son is to say that He has God's nature and was not made. Since He has God's nature, He is, by definition, God and therefore eternal. If Jesus was created by God, He could not have been begotten, and John 3:16; 1:18, 1 John 4:9, etc. would be in error.

Therefore, when the Bible says that Jesus is the only begotten Son of God, it means that Jesus is equal to God, not less than God. QED.

YOU NEED TO GO BACK TO SCHOOL

OLAADEGBU:

To be an atheist is better than to belong to a false religion or cults because many atheists have open minds.

You say that Jesus is your Lord, is He your Saviour too? If so consider this verse that your folks have failed to respond to.

"You are my witnesses, says the LORD, and my servant whom I have chosen: that you may know and believe me, and understand that I am He: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after Me. I, even I, am the LORD; and beside Me there is no saviour.," (Isaiah 43:10,11)

If you study this verse objectively, you will discover the following pointers:

There always has been and always will be only one true God.

There is no Saviour of the world except for this one true God.

Therefore, the Saviour of the world must be the one true God.

This leads to another question:

Is Jesus the Saviour of the world?

I do not think that anyone who has read the New Testament would dispute this. Even your NWT version of the Bible refers to Jesus as the Saviour: "and of the Saviour of us, Christ Jesus" --Titus 2:13.

Therefore, since:

The one true God is the only Saviour of the world (Isaiah 43:10,11), and

Jesus is the Saviour of the world (Titus 2:13; 2 Peter 1:1),

Jesus must therefore be the one true God.

To deny that Jesus is the one true God, one would either have to deny that Jesus is the Saviour, or say that God is lying to us in Isaiah 43:11. Neither alternative fits with Scripture.

Does Titus 2:13 teach that Jesus is God our Saviour?

In Titus 2:13 it states the following:

"Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ; Who gave Himself for us, that He might redeem us from all iniquity, and purify to Himself a peculiar people, zealous of good works."

Paul is here through the inspiration of the Holy Spirit stating clearly that it is Jesus who is our great God and Saviour.

QED.

confusion.
You people remove God name from the bible and call both father and son lord, how then will you know the diiference?

You have just fallen into the pit you dug.

Double post

frosbel:

One is One , right

So one God = 1 and not 3 different persons, right ?

God is One consisting of three separate, distinct Persons.

OLAADEGBU:

God is One consisting of three separate, distinct Persons.

confusion.
Is the holy spirit a person?

Have you change, is God now distinct?

The athenasian creed says they are not
"seperat, none greater than each other, they are in one mold" etc etc.

Now you are saying they are distinct.

Confusion headquarters.

OLAADEGBU:

God is One consisting of three separate, distinct Persons.

Hehehehehehehehehe...

U see d confusion...

Walahi I bet that u and frosbell won't agree on this......

Its gonna be confusion all the way.....

So Jesus beind the son still doesn't make d Father greater than him.....meaning Jesus lied when he said d opposite of what ur saying....

And if u say Jesus wasn't created but was begotten,then I wonder from where Yahweh acquired Jesus...

Was Jesus in a market place as a commodity that was bought from an owner possesing Jesus or was he created or formed as those other translations put it??

U might complicate issues that might lead to questions that u urself will never find answers to.......

Like I said I will never open the NWT...and I'v never since this discussion started....

Which ever way u look @ it Yahweh still is greater than Jesus...

The one who begets must be greater than the begotten....

U are not equal with ur mum that begot u,are u??

For Yahweh to have have purchased or acquired Jesus if u stick to those 2 words it still proves the point that @ one time or the other Yahweh was there b4 Jesus.....

Jesus lives because Yahweh his source of life has kept him alive....
.....despite d fact u'v discarded the use of Gods name into the receptacle.....


U people have turned Gods omnipotence into myths, foolishness and some kinda mental disorder......

truthislight:

confusion.
Is the holy spirit a person?

Yes.

truthislight:

Have you change, is God now distinct?

No, I have not changed. The Holy Spirit is a separate, distinct and recognisable Person.

truthislight:

The athenasian creed says they are not
"seperat, none greater than each other, they are in one mold" etc etc.

Now you are saying they are distinct.

Confusion headquarters.

God is not the author of confusion but of orderliness. The Godhead consists of three separate, distinct and recognisable personalities and qualities, perfectly united in one.

The Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit are different Persons in the Godhead, not merely three names for one Person as frosbel would like to believe. (See Matthew 3:16, 17; 2 Corinthians 13:14; Matthew 28:19,20) for confirmation.

http://www.dclm.org/AboutUs/WhatWeBelieve/TheGodHead/tabid/160/Default.aspx

truthislight:

confusion.
Is the holy spirit a person?

Have you change, is God now distinct?

The athenasian creed says they are not
"seperat, none greater than each other, they are in one mold" etc etc.

Now you are saying they are distinct.

Confusion headquarters.

do u mind quoting d athanasian creed correctly becos what u just quoted is not d athanasian creed. The holyspirit is a divine being not a force becos Jesus said ''he will lead u to all truth' Jesus didnt say it wil lead u to all truth. You may go and ask to english teacher to confirm that 'he' is used for a living being, it is used for a force.
Peace

OLAADEGBU:

Yes.



No, I have not changed. The Holy Spirit is a separate, distinct and recognisable Person.



God is not the author of confusion but of orderliness. The Godhead consists of three separate, distinct and recognisable personalities and qualities, perfectly united in one.

The Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit are different Persons in the Godhead, not merely three names for one Person as frosbel would like to believe. (See Matthew 3:16, 17; 2 Corinthians 13:14; Matthew 28:19,20) for confirmation.

http://www.dclm.org/AboutUs/WhatWeBelieve/TheGodHead/tabid/160/Default.aspx

Ur dis-agreeing with both me and frosbel....

u say GODhead like that word is the name of a person or like its d name of an individual....

wasn't Jesus part of a GODhead or the GODhead when he died??

Show me where it says the GODhead is made up of the Father, the son and d holy spirit....

U assumed that the GODhead comprised of those 3 entities,the bible didn't...

Don't u get it??

Ur making assumptions that even the bible which is GODs word never made....

Now that's d heresy we are talking about.....

Where in d bible did it say that the holy spirit is part of a GODhead??

And we then come back to frosbels point,altho funny.....

When u gaze into the sky how many persons do u see??

From the bible I usually see Yahweh and Jesus sitting down @ his right hand side...

Where is the 3rd entity to make up the GODhead as u claim??

Don't ever think these questions I'm asking are irrelevant.....they are infact pertinent into proving ur trinity claim.....

Where is the holy spirit??

The holy spirit is suppose to be in that GODhead set up there in the heavens....

But where is he or it??rather we see 2 persons.....

Daniel saw 2 persons,stephen b4 he was stoned saw 2 persons,john in his vision saw 2 persons,apostle in hebrews saw 2 persons.even david in his psalms talked about Jesus sitting @ his Fathers right hand....

But here we are hearing from trinitarians that there is 3rd person.....

Oya where is the 3rd person to fit into d equation,no where to be found.......

Ur assumptions on 3 persons making up a GODhead is false and a myth....

An egyptian myth....a pagan myth.......

@ola.....

I have told u a longtime ago to do a research on the greek and hebrew words used that is translated into english as the holy spirit.....

The hebrew and greek words in itself negates d fact of the holy spirit being a person.....


The hebrew and greek words that is translated to holy spirit shows that d holy spirit isn't a person to start with.....

The pagan dogma is making all this assumptions ..........

Go back to those words and analyze them.......

truthislight:

confusion.
You people remove God name from the bible and call both father and son lord, how then will you know the diiference?

You have just fallen into the pit you dug.

Answer the question then: Is Jesus Christ the Saviour of the world?

@OLAADEGBU,

When it says that Jesus was in the form of God it means that He was God from eternity who created all things and this is corroborated in John 1:1-3

Noo, Dont force your personal opinion of how you choose to understand John 1:1-3 on us pleeeese,it does not support your point at all,because the conclussion on that matter was a debate among scholars,

but one thing that was so sure in the wikipedia, was that the result favours 'the word was a God' check the WIKIPEDIA free encyclopedia now and see for yourself under the topic;

"God" or "a god"

Main article: John 1:1;
The last four words of John 1:1 (Greek: θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος, literally "God was the Logos," or "God was the Word" have been a particular topic of debate within Christianity. In this construct, the subject (the Logos) and the complement (God) both appear in the nominative case, and the complement is therefore usually distinguished by dropping any article, and moving it before the verb.[33][34] Grammatically, the phrase could therefore read either "the Word was God" or "the Word was 'a' god."[33] In Greek grammar the word 'a' is nonexistent and is generally understood as implied by the very nature of its absence. Different translators decide to add it or to not add it. However, [size=14pt]according to a grammatical construction known as Colwell's Rule, the predicate of a predicate nominative should not be considered indefinite unless the context mandates it. Since "God" (Greek: θεὸς, theos) is the predicate in the predicate nominative construction, it is unlikely that the noun "God" is indefinite (requiring "a god" rather than "God"[/size] [35]. Early New Testament manuscripts did not distinguish upper and lower case,

so,

instead of wasting much time here, the conclusion still remains that either 'a God' or 'God'
it still boiled down to the fact that the creator himself share some titles with his son,and even humans,for example in the new testament God was reffered to using lord with small letters;

Jude 1:4
King James Version (KJV)
4 For there are certain men crept in unawares, who were before of old ordained to this condemnation, ungodly men, turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness, and denying the only Lord God, and our Lord Jesus Christ.

And that is why if your argument must hold water, you must prove to us why jesus was not reffered to as 'Almighty God' but only 'Mighty God' just show me one,and dont try to divert from the question here please,because people are watching,and it is getting more interesting now

Jesus Christ thought it not robbery to be [size=18pt]equal[/size] with God means that He didn't cling to His deity as a robber will cling to its plunder. It means that despite the fact that He took up the outward form of a man it did not detract from His intrinsic deity.

now you are looking at 'the robbery' aspect,only,and forgeting the 'equal' aspect which both the (king james version KJV) shared with (Complete Jewish Bible) (CJB)

ok lets treat the 'equal' along with 'robbery'

'equal' as used in the context using strong hebrews/greek dictionary gives us the following;
ἴσος

isos

ee'-sos

(through the idea of seeming );
similar (in amount or kind): - + {agree} as {much} {equal} like.

three discriptions we have derived here were
1,similar;.... often used for two different things.
2,Agree;.... two separate persons or more in agreement.
3,like;......two or more separate persons or things sharing 'some likeness' in some areas.

if christ thought it not robbery to be 'similar' and not 'same', to 'agree with'or to share some 'lkeness' with his father, its not the same as being God almighty himself, okay?

If Charles T. Russel understood it he wouldn't have twisted it to mean something else and there wouldn't have been this many false religion and cults today. If you read further in John 17 that you quoted you will discover that Jesus Christ was with the Father before coming down to earth. He said:

i earlier quoted from Complete Jewish Bible (CJB) word for word,[/b]and not NWT,so i dont know what you are talking about,
John 17:6
Complete Jewish Bible (CJB)
6 “I made your name known to the people you gave me out of the world. They were yours, you gave them to me, and they have kept your word.
i dont need russel to tackle you bro, [b]but then do you know that you have diverted from the question that i ask? here is it again,

BARRISTERS:
lie!!! the catholics made the gospel looks complex to gain undue advantage of the poeple, the bible quote below aknowledge the fact that jesus message are to be understood by the followers,read (bolded)
john 17:6,7;

my post above is directed at your assertion below,to show you that God did not intend to make the issue of christ message a mysery or runs counter to humans mind but only catholics do;

OLAADEGBU
The entire gospel message runs counter to the human mind. The Creator dying for the creation. The judge paying the penalty for the guilty. The immortal One dying. Sinless God substituting for human sinners. No human or devil ever could have thought of this scheme, and indeed, no such one did.

this notion was confirmed below;

John 17:6
Complete Jewish Bible (CJB)
6 “[size=18pt]I made your name known to the people you gave me out of the world.[/size] They were yours, you gave them to me, and they have kept your word.

lets thank williams tyndale that catholics killed for this exposures!

I hope you are not quoting from the dodgy NWT that has been twisted to deny the truth. Here is what the authorised version says:

no i have not, the translation is there for yoiu to verify,they say that 'you cant be rome than the pope' abi, lets start from bibles fro the jews where christianity came from using first complete jewish bible,see below

Proverbs 8:22-31
Complete Jewish Bible (CJB)
22 “Adonai made me as the beginning of his way,
the first of his ancient works.
(somebody had made someone here)
23 I was appointed before the world,
before the start, before the earth’s beginnings.

'somebody appointed someone here'can you see how hard pressed it can be for you?
see the translation that i used in my quote (NIV)now compare below word for word what i pasted earlier;

Proverbs 8:22-31
New International Version (NIV)
22 “The Lord brought me forth as the first of his works,[a][b]
before his deeds of old;
23 I was formed long ages ago,
at the very beginning, when the world came to be.

and to expose another 'big' lie

"The LORD possessed me in the beginning of his way, before his works of old. I was set up from everlasting, from the beginning, or ever the earth was" (Proverbs 8:22-23).

The word [size=14pt]"Possessed" [/size]in verse 22 is the same word as [size=14pt]"acquired"[/size]. It means that the Lord Jesus Christ was not just the Son of God, but that He was the only begotten Son of God. It means that He was "in the beginning" with God as the gospel of John put it in (John 1:1-2), Simultaneously He is the only begotten, eternally proceeding from the Father

you claimed that 'possesed'used in the context means 'aquired' ? is it from using your pocket diary,not even considering what the 'context itself states' thats a poor homework,im sorry using the language because you want me to do your simple home work for you,
ok lets see what the context itself presents as possibilities of what is meant by 'possesed' and you will see that 'aquired' wasnt among options,below;

'possesed' as used in the context appear in hebrew/greek below

קנה

qânâh

kaw-naw'

[size=18pt]A primitive root; to {erect} that {is} create [/size]; by extension to {procure} especially by purchase (causatively sell ); by implication to own: - {attain} buy ({-er}) teach to keep {cattle} {get} provoke to {jealousy} possess ({-or}) {purchase} {recover} {redeem} X {surely} X verily.

you can see that 'a primitive original usage' here favours [size=14pt]'create' and 'erect'[/size]
and it was only by extension that other usages excluding 'aquire' were considered.
so oga OLAADEGBU, your assertion seem to have failed you here.

I have addressed this misconception of yours if you read earlier posts. The Father and Son are both referred to as the mighty God. (See Isaiah 1:24).

no you have not adressed it sir, show us on particular place where 'almighty God' which is not same with 'mighty God' is used to depict jesus, then i will rest my case, but failure to do that.......ah,ahh,aaaaah, the trouble just start oo. you go defend tire, trust me.

Can you answer this question? Is Jesus Christ your Lord and Saviour?

if not,why not?.......yes of course, expecting your reply ooo, no diversion.thanks.